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Surgery Final > Surgery Final Exam > Flashcards

Surgery Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following features defines the suture materials drainage ability?

a. Monofilament vs multifilament
b. Tensile strength
c. Knot security
d. Absorption

A

Monofilament vs multifilament

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2
Q

Which statement is correct regarding intra- and post-op hypothermia?

a. decreased anesthetic demand
b. doxopram is the drug of choice in case of hypothermia
c. is mostly due to the use of opioids
d. increases the oxygen demand of the CNS

A

decreased anesthetic demand

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3
Q

which statement is correct concerning the maintenance phase of anesthesia?

a. General anesthesia may be maintained by either inhalant or injectable agents; combinations for maintenance are contraindicated
b. In the maintenance phase of anesthesia, application of 100 ml/bwkg/h crystalloid infusion is recommended to maintain normovolemia and normotension
c. The goal is to maintain the “surgical tolerance” depth of anesthesia using the lowest sufficient dose of anesthetics
d. The main duties of the anesthetist are monitoring of the patient, maintenance of homeostasis, fine adjustment of the depth of anesthesia and preservation of vagotonia

A

The goal is to maintain the ‘surgical tolerance’ depth of anesthesia using the lowest sufficient dose of anesthetics

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4
Q

What is the normal value of the Norberg angle in healthy dogs?

A

higher than 105 degrees

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5
Q

which of the following items is a member of the mixing part of the anesthesia machine?

a. Y-piece
b. Soda lime canister
c. Flowmeter
d. Breathing tubes

A

Flowmeter

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6
Q

which statement is correct?

a. acids can cause coagulation necrosis
b. alkalines can cause colliquation necrosis
c. both
d. neither

A

both

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7
Q

what is the no. of permanant teeth in dog

A

42

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8
Q

which of the following USP numbers indicates the thinnest suture material?

A

4-0

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9
Q

what statement is correct regarding the imaging of spinal cord compression (SCC)?

a. Disc calcification indicated SCC
b. A survey radiograph is generally enough to diagnose SCC
c. SCC can be caused exclusively by the intervertebral disc
d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

A

myelography is a useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

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10
Q

which of the following suture materials in non-absorbable?

a. Polypropylene
b. Polydioxanone
c. Both
d. None

A

polypropylene

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11
Q

the proper name of the ‘oxspring’ view for the examination of the navicular bone is:

A

dorsoproximal-palmarodistal oblique view

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12
Q

which of the following parameters decreases in DIC?

A

Fibrinogen

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13
Q

which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable?

a. polypropylene
b. polyamide
c. both
d. none

A

Both

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14
Q

Which of the following features makes polypropylene the most popular cardiovascular suture material?

a. Monofilament features
b. Good tensile strength
c. Good knot security
d. Unique thrombophob feature

A

good tensile strength

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15
Q

what does 2-metric mean on a suture material pack?

A

the suture material is 0.2mm in diameter

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16
Q

current concepts of pain management/analgesia

a. Presumptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)
b. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)
c. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multilocal (acting at several different sites of action)
d. Of higher importance in adults than in pediatric patients

A

preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)

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17
Q

what is Spongostan?

A

Gelatin Sponge

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18
Q

which of the following is characteristic of Stresnil injection in swine anesthesia?

a. Duration is dose dependent
b. Neureoleptic drug
c. Administered only intravenously
d. Benzodiazepine derivate

A

Neuroleptic drug

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19
Q

Which statement is not correct regarding tracheal collapse?

a. The entire trachea is affected
b. The radiographic appearance is influenced by the respiratory phase
c. Its cause is the weakening of the cartilage
d. Mostly small breed dogs are affected

A

The entire trachea is affected

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20
Q

which statement is correct regarding physiology of the pediatric patient?

A

The vegetative innervation of the heart and the vasomotor function is immature

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21
Q

which drug is not recommended to use at a colic patient’s examination

A

Acepromazine

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22
Q

which one is an opioid antagonist?

A

Naloxon

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23
Q

phases of wound healing are

A

Acute inflammation, Resorption, Proliferation, Remodeling

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24
Q

The proper name of the ‘skyline’/ examination of the navicular bone

A

Palmaroprox-palmarodist oblique

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25
Q

which of the following is the main ‘shock organ’ of the horse and the cat?

A

Lung

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26
Q

Which statement is correct regarding dentin in dog?

a. It is capable of repair in living tooth
b. Dentin layer is thickening towards enamel during production
c. It comprises more than 98% inorganic elements (false)
d. It is continuously narrowing during aging

A

It is capable of repair in living tooth

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27
Q

which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia?

a. Urinary bladder
b. Small intestines
c. Large intestines
d. Uterus

A

Urinary Bladder

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28
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect? An active drain..

a. Is not recommended as flushing drain
b. Can be open suction-drain
c. Can be closed suction-drain
d. Is used as flushing drain

A

is not recommended as a flushing drain

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29
Q

what does ‘epulis’ mean?

A

benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva

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30
Q

which of the following statements is incorrect regarding salivary mucocele?

A

one of the effective treatments is puncture and content removal from the cyst

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31
Q

According to Vasanjee et al Vet Surg paper (2006), which of the following liver biopsy techniques caused remarkable collateral tissue damage?

A

Laparoscopic ‘pinch’ biopsy

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32
Q

Which of the following conditions does not cause hydronephrosis?

a. Ureteral torsion
b. Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery
c. Ureteral tumor
d. Ureterolithiasis

A

Ureteral torsion

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33
Q

which of the following statements is incorrect concerning gastric foreign body?

a. The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 95%
b. The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure
c. Gastric foreign body may cause perforation
d. Oral feeding can be started 4-6 hours after gastrotomy

A

The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure

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34
Q

What is the most common complication after a horse laryngoplasty?

a. Facial nerve paralysis
b. Temporary blindness
c. Laryngeal edema
d. myopathy

A

Laryngeal edema

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35
Q

Which of the following approaches is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair?

a. Laparotomy
b. Lateral thoracotomy
c. Laparotomy + lateral thoracotomy
d. Sternotomy

A

Laparotomy

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36
Q

Which is correct regarding the lactate level of the abdominal fluid in colic horses?

a. It has no significance concerning the prognosis
b. Tissue perfusion of the brain can be related to the lactate level
c. It describes the extent of the hypoxia caused by endotoxemias
d. It can reach max. the half of the concentration in blood

A

It describes the extent of the hypoxia caused by endotoxemias

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37
Q

Which of the following suture materials is absorbable?

a. polypropylene
b. polyamide
c. both
d. none

A

None

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38
Q

which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostic value in intestinal intussusception?

a. Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section
b. Positive contrast abdominal GI radiography
c. Lack of feces
d. Vomiting

A

Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section

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39
Q

which statement is correct

a. Glucocorticoids specifically inhibit the cyclo-oxygenase (COX) enzyme
b. Non-steroids (NSAIDs) inhibit the production of leukotrienes
c. NSAIDs inhibit phospholipase A2
d. Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

A

Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

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40
Q

Which statement is correct concerning indication for abdominal surgery in horses

A

Serosanguineous abdominal fluid, elevated TP and progressively worse general status indicate celiotomy

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41
Q

Which statement is correct concerning endotracheal tube

A

Not only aspiration may be prevented by using endotracheal tubes, but it also allows for connection to the anesthesia machine by the Y-piece and mechanical ventilation

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42
Q

Which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis?

a. Partial nephrectomy
b. Unilateral nephroureterectomy
c. Kidney-drainage
d. Euthanasia

A

Partial nephrectomy

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43
Q

Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic dogs?

A

Ventral Rhinotomy (due to lack of space dorsally)

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44
Q

Which of the following arteries does not directly contribute to splenic blood supply?

a. Left gastric
b. Left gasteoepiploic
c. Short gastric
d. Splenic

A

Left gastric

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45
Q

Which is not typical of hoof abscess?

a. Severe lameness
b. No palpable digital artery pulsation
c. Easily localized pain elicited with hoof tester
d. After debridement of the abscess, the lameness disappears soon

A

b. No palpable digital artery pulsation

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46
Q

What can be the cause of secondary sinusitis in horses?

A

Ascending infection from the oral cavity due to tooth fracture

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47
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis?

a. It can occur bilaterally
b. It can lead to ureterolithiasis
c. It can be caused by congenital disorder
d. Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

A

Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

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48
Q

Which sign of the following reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2 is less than 60mmHg)

a. Dyspnoe
b. Cyanosis
c. Hyperventilation
d. Labial breathing

A

Cyanosis

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49
Q

Which anal zone involves circumanal hepatoid glands?

a. Zona cutanea
b. Linea anorectalis
c. Zona intermedia
d. Zona columnaris

A

Zona cutanea

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50
Q

Which of the following nerves is mostly prone to iatrogenic injury during TECA and LBO procedure?

A

Auriculopalpebral of the Facial nerve

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51
Q

Which is characteristic of right abomasal displacement?

A

It requires urgent operation

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52
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tools is the next to be chosen in case of uncertain radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia?

a. Thoracocentesis
b. Abdominocentesis
c. Ultrasonography
d. Respiratory endoscopy

A

Ultrasonography

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53
Q

Intramedullary pinning is not good for..

a. Treatment of Achilles tendon fracture
b. Femoral fracture treatment in cats
c. Fixing calcaneal fractures
d. Treatment of avulsion fractures

A

Treatment of Achilles tendon fracture

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54
Q

Which type of small intestinal obstruction has usually the poorest prognosis?

A

Mesenteric torsion

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55
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV)?

a. GDV starts right after the last feeding
b. The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders
c. There is also a chronic form of GDV
d. GDV is usually of acute onset

A

GDV starts right after the last feeding

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56
Q

The ileocecal fold in horses is attached to the..

a. Dorsal tenia of the cecum
b. Medial tenia of the cecum
c. Ventral tenia of the cecum
d. Apex of the cecum

A

Dorsal tenia of the cecum

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57
Q

Which of the following suture materials is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure (Greenberg, Am J Vets Res, 2004)

a. PDS
b. Polyglyconate
c. Glycomer
d. Polyglecaprone

A

Polyglecaprone

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58
Q

Which statement is correct

a. The blowout crack is a serious vertical hoof crack
b. The blowout crack is causing serious lameness in most of the cases
c. The blowout crack is a horizontal hoof crack
d. None

A

c. The blowout crack is a horizontal hoof crack

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59
Q

Which is not characteristic of the OCD in equine stifle

a. It can occur on the lateral trochlear ridge of the femur in the femoro-patellar joint
b. It can occur on the medial trochlear ridge of the femur in the femoro-patellar joint
c. It is associated with joint effusion
d. It is usually manifested in young animals

A

It can occur on the medial trochlear ridge of the femur in the femoro-patellar joint

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60
Q

In carpal valgus deformity, the hoof location to the carpus is..

a. Abaxial
b. Axial
c. Cranial
d. Caudal

A

Abaxial

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61
Q

Which is the advised castration technique in standing horse

a. Open, unsutured
b. Open, sutured
c. Closed, unsutured
d. Closed, sutured

A

Open, unsutured

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62
Q

Which statement is correct

a. Stride is shortening in horses with navicular disease
b. Navicular disease is really common in Friesian horses
c. None
d. Both

A

a. Stride is shortening in horses with navicular disease

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63
Q

Which of the followings is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic ureter?

a. Cystoscopy
b. Double contrast cystography
c. Intravenous urography + pneumocystography
d. Urinary scintigraphy (TcO4-)

A

Intravenous urography + pneumocystography

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64
Q

What does “sceletonisation” mean?

a. Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply on the intestinal section to be resected
b. V-shaped excision of the mesentery
c. Excision of the affected intestinal section
d. Suturing of the V-shaped mesenteric defect

A

Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply on the intestinal section to be resected

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65
Q

How many lung lobes has the dog?

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

A

7

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66
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The sites of the low palmar nerve block are at the level of the proximal sesamoids
b. Low palmar block anesthetizes the navicular region and the DIPJ as well
c. Low palmar block anesthetizes the distal (in the hoof capsule) DDFT lesions
d. All of them are correct

A

Low palmar block anesthetizes the distal (in the hoof capsule) DDFT lesions

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67
Q

Which of the following procedures is not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts?

a. Marsupalisation
b. Omentalisation
c. Drainage
d. Puncture

A

d. Puncture

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68
Q

Which Is not typical of the left dorsal displacement of the large colon in horses?

A

Always needs surgical treatment

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69
Q

The material of Cerclage can be..

a. Kirschner wire
b. Absorbable suture
c. Non-absorbable suture
d. Fishing line

A

Absorbable suture

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70
Q

The most common cause of ceco-cecal invagination in horses is..

a. Cecal obstipation
b. Typhlocolitis
c. Anaplocephala infection
d. Congenital abnormality

A

Anaplocephala infection

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71
Q

Which of the following breeds is usually not affected by ectopic ureter?

a. German shepherd
b. Labrador
c. Husky
d. West highland terrier

A

German shepherd

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72
Q

Which of the diagnostic findings indicates the diagnosis of urinary bladder rupture?

a. If the cystourethral catheterization cannot harvest urine in a traumatized patient
b. If the urine is bloody obtained via cystourethral catheterization in a traumatized patients
c. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive anterograde cystography
d. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

A

d. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

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73
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The cranial phase of the stride is longer in supporting limb lameness
b. The origin of the pain is usually located in the proximal area in supporting limb lameness
c. Both
d. None

A

a. The cranial phase of the stride is longer in supporting limb lameness

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74
Q

Swinging limb lameness

A

Cranial phase of stride is shorter, worse in outside circle, problem is higher

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75
Q

What is the most important to do at a wound close to a joint in horses?

a. To determine if the joint is affected
b. Operate the horse as soon as possible
c. Adequate antibiotic treatment
d. Tetanus prophylaxis

A

To determine if the joint is affected

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76
Q

Which statement is correct concerning inguinal hernia?

a. In direct hernia: the small intestines escape to the subcutaneous space of the scrotum
b. The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one
c. Both
d. None

A

The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one

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77
Q

Ideal therapy in case of a joint injury is..

A

Joint lavage within 6 hours

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78
Q

Which statement is correct concerning thrush?

a. Long, contracted heels and deep sulci are predisposing to thrush
b. The etiology of the thrush is unknown
c. In the treatment of thrush it is obligatory to keep the frog wet
d. Thrush is a fatal disease

A

a. Long, contracted heels and deep sulci are predisposing to thrush

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79
Q

What is typical of a uterine torsion in mare?

a. Onset 1 month before parturition, mild-mid colic signs
b. Onset 2 months before parturition, severe colic signs
c. Onset after parturition, mild-mid colic signs
d. Onset 1 month before parturition, severe colic signs

A

b. Onset 2 months before parturition, severe colic signs

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80
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Elevating heels in 12-18 degrees can help to prevent the rotation of the P3
b. In peracute and acute phase of laminitis to cool the hoof capsules is beneficial
c. Both
d. None

A

b. In peracute and acute phase of laminitis to cool the hoof capsules is beneficial

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81
Q

Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy?

a. Dorsal latissimus m
b. Dorsal serratus m
c. Ventral serratus m
d. M.cutaneus trunci

A

d. M.cutaneus trunci

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82
Q

Which of the following nerves is mostly prone to iatrogenic injury during ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO) procedure?

A

Hypoglossal nerve

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83
Q

What is the advised treatment for an injured podotrochlear bursa after “street nail” puncture in a horse?

a. Bursoscopy through the distal tendon sheath
b. Bursoscopy through the coffin joint
c. Approach from the solar surface of the hoof
d. Conservative treatment

A

Bursoscopy through the distal tendon sheath

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84
Q

In colic horse surgery, the large colon enterotomy should be performed to rinse out the content?

a. On the dorsal colon
b. On the ventral colon
c. On the pelvic flexure
d. At the level of cecocolic fold

A

On the pelvic flexure

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85
Q

In which case the conservative fracture treatment is not contraindicated?

a. Intraarticular fracture
b. Salter-harris fracture
c. Oblique fracture
d. Fracture with massive dislocation

A

d. Fracture with massive dislocation

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86
Q

Which structure is attached to lateral tenia of caecum?

a. Ceco-colic fold
b. Ileo-cecal fold
c. Duodenal-cecal ligament
d. Gastro-duodenal ligament

A

Ceco-colic fold

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87
Q

Which is not typical of the Uthrecht method to treat left abomasal displacement?

a. Right flank laparotomy is performed
b. Abomasoplexy is performed at the right ventral abdominal wall
c. The abomasum is decompressed
d. The abdominal wall should be closed in three layers

A

a. Right flank laparotomy is performed

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88
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure?

A

Double layer (penetrating + Lambert) suture

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89
Q

Which of the following statements is correct? Penrose drain is..

a. A tube drain
b. Made of latex
c. A multi-lumen drain
d. Mostly used as an active drain

A

A tube drain

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90
Q

The most commonly used large colon resection technique in horses is

a. Partial resection with side to side anastomosis
b. Partial resection with end to end anastomosis
c. Subtotal large colon resection
d. Total large colon resection

A

a. Partial resection with side to side anastomosis

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91
Q

Which muscles are excised at surgery of cribbing in horses?

A

Sternohyoideus, sternothyroideus, omohyoideus

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92
Q

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of diffuse gastric necrosis during GDV surgery?

a. Billroth I gastroduodenostomy
b. Partial gastrotomy
c. Euthanasia
d. Resorption and gastroplexy

A

Euthanasia (because its diffuse necrosis)

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93
Q

The correct surgical treatment of a club foot is..

a. Desmotomy of the proximal check ligament
b. Desmotomy of the distal check ligament
c. Tenotomy of the deep digital flexor tendon
d. Tenotomy of the deep digital flexor tendon (they were written twice on exam)

A

b. Desmotomy of the distal check ligament

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94
Q

The treatment of a congenital club foot in a newborn foal is..

a. 3g oxytetracycline intravenously
b. 30g oxytetracycline intravenously
c. 3g erythromycin intravenously
d. 30g erythromycin intravenously

A

3g oxytetracycline intravenously

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95
Q

Which of the following uroliths is surely radiodense?

a. Struvite
b. Calcium-oxalate
c. Ammonium-urate
d. Cystine

A

Calcium-oxalate

96
Q

Which of the following brachycephalic disorders is not surgically curable?

A

Tracheal hypoplasia

97
Q

Which statement is correct concerning pain?

a. During hypnosis there is no conscious perception of pain, therefore analgesia is only required pre-, and postoperatively
b. Stress and fear have no effect on subjective pain sensation
c. Of several concurrent noxious stimuli, the most intensive one is perceived
d. There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and the intensity of pain experience by the patient

A

There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and the intensity of pain experience by the patient

98
Q

Which statement is correct regarding electricity caused injuries?

a. It is always lethal above 50 mA
b. It is always lethal above 100 mA
c. Both
d. None

A

It is always lethal above 100 mA

99
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The fast healing is typical of contused wounds
b. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds
c. The traumatic shock is not common in contused wounds
d. The anaerobic wound infection is rare in contused wounds

A

b. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds

100
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anesthesia of patients with liver dysfunction?

a. Diazepam is the choice of drug in a patient with hepatic disease, instead of midazolam
b. Phencyclidines (e.g. ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic encephalopathy
c. Isoflurane and sevoflurane significantly affects hepatic function
d. Administration of colloid solutions in case of hypoalbuminemia is risky

A

b. Phencyclidines (e.g. ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic encephalopathy

101
Q

The goal of the “skyline” view from the hock is..

A

To examine the calcaneus and the sustentaculum tali

102
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Wobbler-syndrome affects small breeds
b. The site of disc protrusion can be exactly determined in the survey radiograph
c. The basic types of compressive processes found with myelography: extradural, intradural, extramedullary
d. Positioning of cervical spine generally needs sedation or anesthesia

A

d. Positioning of cervical spine generally needs sedation or anesthesia

103
Q

Which component is not a normal part of digital x-ray system?

A

Intensifying Screen

104
Q

Which therapy has of primary importance in case of cranial injury?

a. Analgesia
b. Anti-convulsion therapy
c. Intracranial pressure decrease
d. Artificial hypothermia

A

c. Intracranial pressure decrease

105
Q

Which of the following does not represent an increased risk of infection of surgical infection?

a. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure
b. Prolonged hospitalization
c. Obesity
d. Prolonged procedure time

A

a. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure

106
Q

Which is not a type of periosteal reaction?

a. Lamellar
b. Columnar
c. Sunburst-like
d. Medullar

A

Medullar

107
Q

Which of the following USP numbers indicate the thickest suture material?

a. 0
b. 2-0
c. 2
d. 3-0

A

2

108
Q

Which location is not typical of OCD in dogs?

a. Tarsus
b. Carpus
c. Shoulder
d. Stifle

A

Carpus (elbow that is typically affected)

109
Q

Which of the following instruments is not the member of the abdominal instrumentation set?

a. Balfour self retraining retractor
b. Doyen clamp
c. Finochietto self retaining retractor
d. Atraumatic tissue forceps

A

c. Finochietto self retaining retractor (used in thoracic operation)

110
Q

Which NSAID is highly toxic to cats?

A

Paracetamol (acetaminophen)

111
Q

Which of the following disorders is the most urgent to be acutely solved?

a. External venous bleeding
b. Upper airway obstruction
c. Spinal fracture
d. Open extremity fracture

A

Upper airway obstruction

112
Q

What is the most common cause of death during equine anesthesia?

a. Aspirational pneumonia
b. Sudden heart stop
c. Bone fracture in the recovery period
d. Diffuse myopathy

A

b. Sudden heart stop

113
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anesthesiologic considerations of hypothyreoidism?

a. Due to thermoregulatory imbalance hyperthermia occurs
b. The overall metabolic rate is decreased, drug metabolism is slower, therefore the “vulnerability” of the patient to anesthesia is lower
c. Myocardial contractibility is decreased, tachycardia is present
d. Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

A

d. Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

114
Q

Which local anesthetic technique is the safest from the patient´s aspect?

a. Infiltrational
b. Epidural
c. Intrathecal
d. Paravertebral

A

Infilrational

115
Q

Which color is typical for compensatory stage of shock?

a. Pale
b. Cyanotic
c. Dirty red
d. Bright red

A

Bright Red

116
Q

Which procedure is a definite indication for preoperative administration of an antibiotic?

a. Splenectomy
b. Small intestine biopsy
c. Ovariectomy
d. Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament replacement material

A

Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament replacement material

117
Q

Which statement is correct concerning tendon injuries?

a. One or two % overextension of the tendons causes partial rupture
b. Three or four % overextension of the tendons causes total rupture
c. More than 5-6% overextension of the tendons causes total rupture
d. None

A

More than 5-6% overextension of the tendons causes total rupture

118
Q

Which is not characteristic of large colon obstipation in horse?

a. Sometimes it can cause severe colic signs
b. The obstipation can always be treated conservatively
c. It can be easily diagnosed with rectal palpation
d. It is more common in winter-time

A

The obstipation can always be treated conservatively

119
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Narrow, upright, boxy hoof can predispose to navicular disease
b. Flat feet with collapsed heels can predispose to navicular disease
c. The navicular disease has hereditary factors
d. All of them are correct

A

d. All of them are correct

120
Q

Severe colic in mares 3-4 days after parturition mostly suggests..

a. Large colon volvulus
b. Hernia formaminis omentalis
c. Small colon obstipation
d. Cecum obstipation

A

Large colon volvulus

121
Q

The intramedullary pinning technique is not good to fix midshaft fracture of the ..

a. Radius
b. Tibia
c. Humerus
d. Metacarpus

A

Radius

122
Q

Which of the following tools/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in the diagnosis of urinary bladder tumors?

a. Double contrast cystography
b. Ultrasonography
c. Urine sediment analysis/cytology
d. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

A

Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

123
Q

In nail trip “street nail” the treatment is

A

LM X-ray to localize the nail, the therapy depends on nail position and injured fractures

124
Q

What is the location of the most common site of subchondral bone cyst in equine stifle?

a. Medial femoral condyle
b. Lateral femoral condyle
c. Medial trochlear ridge of the femur
d. Lateral trochlear ridge of the femur

A

Medial femoral condyle

125
Q

Small colon obstipation in horses is frequently encountered in..

a. Old horses
b. Ponies
c. Young horses
d. Pregnant mares

A

Old horses

126
Q

What is the surgical technique to treat IV.grade laryngeal hemiplegia in horses?

A

Laryngoplasty and ventriculectomy

127
Q

Which of the following clinical findings is not member of the diagnostic triad defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?

a. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
b. Status of the thoracic wall
c. Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
d. ARD

A

a. Skin defect on the thoracic wall

128
Q

Intramedullary pinning is good for..

a. Transverse and short oblique fractures of the middle third of long bones
b. Multiply fractures
c. SH fractures
d. Treatment of mandibular fractures

A

a. Transverse and short oblique fractures of the middle third of long bones

129
Q

Which is the appropriate diagnostic/therapeutic protocol in GDV?

A

Stabilization and gastrocentesis-adequate narcosis-orogastric tubation and gastric lavage-surgery

130
Q

Which is not correct regarding reflux in horses?

a. Thin liquid
b. pH is less than 7
c. More than 2 liters
d. green-brownish coloured

A

green-brownish coloured

131
Q

According to Shamir et al (JSAP, 2002), which of the following features is incorrect concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?

a. Male
b. Bite wound
c. Bodyweight is less than 10kg
d. Bodyweight is less than 20kg

A

Bodyweight is less than 20kg

132
Q

What is the sequester?

a. Connective tissue surrounded cavity filled with pus
b. Natural body cavity filled with pus
c. Necrotized, demarcated area in the bone
d. Vital, demarcated area in the bone

A

c. Necrotized, demarcated area in the bone

133
Q

Which is necessary for bone healing?

a. Antibiotic treatment
b. NSAID treatment
c. Good blood supply
d. Fluid therapy

A

c. Good blood supply

134
Q

What does incomplete abdominal cryptorchid horse mean?

A

The testis is in the abdominal cavity, the epididymis is in the inguinal canal

(If they ask about complete abdominal cryptorchid horse> both are in abdominal cavity!)

135
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Parts of the supporting phase of the stride are: landing, loading, stance, breakover
b. Parts of the supporting phase of the stride are: landing, stance, breakover, flexion, extension
c. Phases of the breakover are: heel lift, solar lift, toe pivot
d. None

A

a. Parts of the supporting phase of the stride are: landing, loading, stance, breakover

136
Q

Which statement is correct? The locking plate has no..

a. Special oval shaped holes; interfragmental compression
b. Ability for stable fixation
c. Ability for temporary joint immobilization
d. Potential for treating hip luxation

A

a. Special oval shaped holes; interfragmental compression

137
Q

Which of the following methods is to be chosen as first in case of foreign body caused caudal thoracic (prediaphragmatic) esophageal obstruction?

a. Pushing down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastric tubation
b. Endoscopic removal
c. Laparotomy + gastrotomy + transluminal foreign body removal
d. Thoracotomy + esophagotomy

A

b. Endoscopic removal

138
Q

Which is not a common cause of colic in a newborn foal?

a. Meconium retention
b. Strangulation of the jejunum due to pedicle lipoma
c. Rupture of the urinary bladder
d. Gastric ulceration

A

b. Strangulation of the jejunum due to pedicle lipoma

139
Q

Which is the advised surgical method to treat upward fixation of the patella in horses?

A

Medial femoro-patellar ligament desmotomy

140
Q

Which statement is correct regarding extracapsular fixation method in cranial cruciate ligament repair?

a. The suture material is non-absorbable
b. The fixation of Vesalius bones is essential
c. Precise tibial osteotomy is done
d. The suture material is placed outside the joint

A

The suture material is placed outside the joint

141
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding linear foreign body caused small intestinal obstruction?

a. It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy
b. It usually requires multiple GI incisors
c. Iatrogenic perforation might be caused
d. Multiple GI incisions do not increase septic risk compared to single GI opening

A

It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy

142
Q

The recommended fluid to lavage a joint is..

a. Sterile, isotonic infusion solution
b. Sterile, hypertonic infusion solution
c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution
d. Sterile, hypertonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution

A

c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution

143
Q

Which one is typical of Cauda Equina compression?

A

Hansen type II disc protrusion

144
Q

Most common lesion of a rectal wall rupture in horses is..

a. Dorsal wall
b. Lateral wall
c. Ventral wall
d. Concentric

A

Dorsal Wall

145
Q

Which of the following causes is not primary in the etiology of external otitis in dogs?

a. Bacteria
b. Parasite
c. Grass awn
d. Atopia

A

Bacteria

146
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of scrotal hernia?

a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Uterus
d. Urinary bladder

A

Small Intestine

147
Q

Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in feline otitis media?

A

Ventral bulla osteotomy

148
Q

Which of the following diagnostic methods is the most reliable one to assess bone involvement of oral tumors?

a. Radiography
b. Fine needle aspiration biopsy
c. Computed tomography
d. Ultrasonography

A

Radiography

149
Q

If the lactate is 6,5 mmol/l in the abdominocentesis fluid, then..

a. Impaction is presumable
b. The horse had intensive exercise
c. Strangulation ileus is likely
d. It can be manages conservatively

A

Strangulation ileus is likely

150
Q

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of fundus necrosis during GDV surgery?

a. Billroth 1 gastroduodenostomy
b. Partial gastrectomy
c. Euthanasia
d. Resorption and gastroplexy

A

Partial gastrectomy

151
Q

Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in canine otitis externa and media?

A

TECA + LBO

152
Q

According to Vasanjee et al Vet Surgery paper (2006) which of the following liver biopsy technique caused remarkable (more than 2 ml) bleeding?

a. Ligature-biopsy
b. Laparoscopic “pinch” biopsy
c. Needle biopsy
d. None of them

A

None of them

153
Q

Clinical manifestation of the thrombosis in external iliac artery in the horse causes?

A

Intermittent hindlimb lameness worsening with work

154
Q

The best way to treat dorsal chip in a fetlock joint in horses is..

A

Arthroscopy

155
Q

Which is the correct regarding intervertebral disc disease?

A

It is generally acute in chondrodystrophic dogs (short legs, long back)

156
Q

Which statement is correct regarding equine intestinal surgery?

a. It is preferred to suture the end to end jejunocecostomy in two layers continuous pattern
b. The stoma is placed between the dorsal and medial tenia of the cecum in jejunocecostomy
c. Both
d. None

A

Both

157
Q

Which of the following conditions indicates liver lobectomy?

a. Liver abscess
b. Superficial liver rupture
c. Cholelithiasis
d. Diffuse hepatomegaly

A

a. Liver abscess

158
Q

The synovial fluid is determined as septic if..

A

The WBC count is more than 40g/L, with mostly neutrophils

159
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Mepivicain is less irritant than lidocaine
b. Bupivacain has longer duration than mepivacaine
c. Bupivacain has approx. 4 hours of duration
d. All of them are correct

A

All of them are correct

160
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The puncture site of the shoulder joint is between the cranial and caudal part of the major tubercle of the humerus, behind the infraspinatus muscle insertion
b. The puncture site of the shoulder joint is between the cranial and caudal part of the major tubercle of the humerus, in front of infraspinatus muscle insertion
c. Intraarticular analgesia of the shoulder needs min 40 ml anesthesia solution
d. A and C are correct

A

The puncture site of the shoulder joint is between the cranial and caudal part of the major tubercle of the humerus, in front of infraspinatus muscle insertion

161
Q

Which protocol is used for stifle joint anesthesia in the horse?

a. Medial and lateral femorotibial joints, and femoropatellar joint, 20 ml in each
b. Medial and lateral femorotibial joints, 20 ml in each
c. Medial and lateral femoropatellar, and femorotibial joints, 20 ml in each
d. Medial and lateral femoropatellar joints, 20 ml in each

A

a. Medial and lateral femorotibial joints, and femoropatellar joint, 20 ml in each

162
Q

Which statement is correct regarding patellar luxation in dogs?

a. The anatomical and functional axis of the leg is not in the same line
b. It is always lateral in large breeds
c. It is always traumatic
d. It is mostly caudal

A

a. The anatomical and functional axis of the leg is not in the same line

163
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the cecum in horses?

A

Dorsal tenia is avascular and continues in the ileocecal ligament

164
Q

Which of the following statements is correct? The injuries of the tongue?

a. Are not to be operated on
b. Mostly heal with complications
c. Mostly approximated with metal clips or sutures
d. Always to be regarded as contaminated

A

d. Always to be regarded as contaminated

165
Q

Which of the following layers is the first to be closed during midline laparotomy?

a. Rectus sheath
b. Falciform ligament
c. Peritoneum
d. Peritoneum + rectus abdominis muscle

A

a. Rectus sheath

166
Q

Which of the following metric numbers indicates the thickest suture material?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

A

3

167
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. In case of horse standing surgery 0,5 mg/kg thiopental can be given
b. In case of a horse standing surgery 0.05 mg/kg butorphanol cannot be given
c. In case of a horse standing surgery 0.2 mg/kg ketamine can be given intravenously
d. In case of a horse standing surgery 2 mg/kg detomidine can be given intravenously

A

c. In case of a horse standing surgery 0.2 mg/kg ketamine can be given intravenously

168
Q

Which statement is correct concerning syringe pumps?

a. Syringe pumps are less accurate than infusion pumps regarding continuous drug dosage
b. Parameters required for adequate calculation of the rate of infusion (ml/h) are body weight (bwkg), drug concentration (mg/ml or %) and the dose of the drug to be used (mg/bwkg/h)
c. Conventional infusion lines are suitable for as accurate dosing of drugs as syringe pumps, by counting drop numbers
d. In case of a power-cut, even modern syringe pumps stops, just like anesthesia machines

A

b. Parameters required for adequate calculation of the rate of infusion (ml/h) are body weight (bwkg), drug concentration (mg/ml or %) and the dose of the drug to be used (mg/bwkg/h)

169
Q

Which statement is correct regarding recovery from anesthesia?

a. Extubation is done prior to the return of swallowing and coughing reflexes
b. If aspiration is not a concern, the cuff of the endotracheal tube is better left inflated on extubation
c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued or antagonists are administered
d. The close observation of the patient is no longer necessary after extubation

A

c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued or antagonists are administered

170
Q

Which corticosteroid is recommended in the treatment of shock?

a. Methyl-prednisolone Na-succinate
b. Prednisolone Na-succinate
c. Dexamethasone
d. Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

A

a. Methyl-prednisolone Na-succinate

171
Q

Which statement is correct regarding acepromazine used in small animals?

a. Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine
b. High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action
c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good general condition
d. It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive

A

c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good general condition

172
Q

Optional drugs for preoperative analgesia are..

a. Phenotiazines and butyrophenone-derivates
b. Alpha2-antagonist and NMDA-agonist
c. Local anesthetics and muscle relaxants
d. Alpha2-agonists and NMDA-antagonist

A

Alpha2-agonists and NMDA-antagonist

173
Q

Which activity is to be done first in case of pneumothorax?

a. Thoracocentesis
b. Percutaneous chest drainage
c. Oxygenisation
d. Thoracotomy/sternotomy/lobectomy

A

a. Thoracocentesis

174
Q

Which of the following procedures can be used to demonstrate urethral rupture?

a. Double contrast cystography
b. Intravenous urography
c. Excretory urethrography
d. Retrograde urethrography

A

d. Retrograde urethrography

175
Q

The increasing sequence of capacity of a vein catheter is ..

a. Yellow, blue, pink, green
b. Blue, pink, grey, yellow
c. Yellow, pink, blue grey
d. Green, pink, blue, yellow

A

a. Yellow, blue, pink, green

176
Q

Stadium analgesia

a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness
b. Pupils are dilated to the maximum, and the cornea has lost its turgor
c. Coughing reflex is still present, but endotracheal intubation is possible
d. Gradually decreasing level of immobilisation

A

a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness

177
Q

Barium-sulphate can be used for which of the following procedures?

a. Myelography
b. Gastric emptying study
c. Retrograde cystography
d. Arthrography

A

b. Gastric emptying study

178
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anesthesia of patients with renal dysfunction?

a. The prevention of intraoperative hypertonia is the primary goal
b. Alpha-2 agonist decrease renal function
c. Ketamine is contraindicated in dogs with kidney dysfunction
d. Fentanyl and NSAIDs are recommended for intraoperative analgesia

A

b. Alpha-2 agonist decrease renal function

179
Q

What statement is correct regarding the GGE (guaiphenesine)?

a. It has good analgesic effect
b. It is available for induction alone
c. It doesn’t cause ataxia
d. It is a muscle relaxant

A

d. It is a muscle relaxant

180
Q

General infusion rate in perioperative period in dogs and cats?

a. 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h
b. 10ml/kg/h e.g. 1700-2000 drops/10kg/h
c. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/10kg/h
d. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/kg/min

A

a. 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h

181
Q

What do we use the grid for in radiography?

a. To filter scattered beam
b. To improve image sharpness
c. To reduce radiation exposure of the staff
d. To restrain the animal

A

To filter scattered beam

182
Q

Which statement is correct? During nephrotomy ..

a. The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein
b. Renal vein is to to be occluded so that the arterial supply remains intact
c. Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact
d. The ureter is also occluded

A

a. The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein

183
Q

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obturation in a male dog?

a. Urethrohydropropulsio
b. Prescrotal urethrostomy
c. Scrotal urethrostomy
d. Perineal urethrostomy

A

a. Urethrohydropropulsio

184
Q

Which one has significance examining a colic horse under field conditions?

a. Measurement of the ionized Ca level of the blood
b. Determination of bacterial count from the peritoneal fluid
c. Measurement of the peritoneal lactate level
d. Measurement of PCV and TPP

A

c. Measurement of the peritoneal lactate level

185
Q

Which statement is correct regarding screw osteosynthesis?

a. Good for humeral condyle fractures
b. Good for tibial oblique fractures
c. Good for antebrachial fractures
d. Never good as a sole method

A

b. Good for tibial oblique fractures

186
Q

What is to be done in case of a long-bone fracture in horses?

a. Treat the shock, immobilize the limb, refer the patient to a clinic
b. Refer to a clinic as soon as possible
c. Adequate antibiotic treatment
d. There is no treatment possibility

A

Treat the shock, immobilize the limb, refer the patient to a clinic

187
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Compressive spinal injury needs emergency treatment
b. Spinal cord injury has no effect for visceral functions
c. The treatment of patients with spinal cord injury is hopeless
d. Corticosteroid and NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal injury

A

d. Corticosteroid and NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal injury

188
Q

Locking compression plate is good for..

a. Minimizing the stress concentration at the plate hole
b. Septic fractures
c. Temporary joint immobilization
d. Supporting tendon repair

A

a. Minimizing the stress concentration at the plate hole

189
Q

Which diagnostic step/sign is pathognomonic in case of cranial cruciate ligament rupture?

a. Radiology
b. Cranial drawer test
c. Gait analysis
d. Historical date

A

b. Cranial drawer test

190
Q

Which examination method is not enough alone for diagnosing Cauda Equina Compression?

a. MRI
b. Plain X-ray
c. CT
d. CT myelography

A

d. CT myelography

191
Q

Which statement is not correct?

a. The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain
b. Haematoma can be the consequence of a contusion
c. The urinary bladder injury can cause bloody urine
d. In case of severe pneumothorax, emergency thoracocentesis is necessary

A

a. The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain

192
Q

In which of the following breeds is the congenital cleft palate common?

a. French bulldog
b. German shepherd
c. Yorkshire terrier
d. Hungarian vizsla

A

a. French bulldog

193
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma (HSA)?

a. Tumorous splenectomy is to be regarded as palliative procedure
b. Chemotherapy does not definitely improve the outcome
c. The ruptured status of the tumor at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor
d. Splenic HSA does not metastatise into the heart

A

c. The ruptured status of the tumor at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor

194
Q

Which oral region is the mostly affected one by oral tumors?

a. Soft palate
b. Hard palate
c. Gingiva
d. Tongue

A

c. Gingiva

195
Q

Which statement is correct concerning pulse oximetry?

a. The status of the peripheral circulation has no effect on pulse oximetry values
b. Low environmental temperature has no effect on pulse oximetry values
c. Bilirubinaemia has no effect on pulse oximetry values
d. Hypertension has no effect on pulse oximetry values

A

d. Hypertension has no effect on pulse oximetry values (hypotension has)

196
Q

Reversible drugs and their antagonists

A

Diazepam:flumazenil; fentanyl:naloxone; medetomidine:atipamezole

197
Q

Which statement is correct concerning preanesthetic assessment?

a. Sedation is always recommended, regardless of the general condition of the patient, in order to reduce further anesthetic doses
b. Following the physical examination of the respiratory, circulatory, renal and hepatic function, complementary diagnostic measures are taken
c. Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea, Urea, ALT and AST
d. The enhanced preanesthetic blood test protocol includes complete hematology panel, coagulation tests, blood gas analysis, electrolyte balance, blood glucose and urinalysis

A

c. Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea, Urea, ALT and AST

198
Q

Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature?

a. Autoclave
b. Gamma-beam radiation
c. Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
d. Isopropyl-alcoholic sterolisation

A

a. Autoclave (steam)

199
Q

Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the geriatric patients?

a. Lung capacity and compliance as well as respiratory rate and volume are increased
b. The reserve capacity of the cardiopulmonary system in unchanged
c. Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased
d. GFR and renal urine concentrating capacity are increased

A

c. Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased

200
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds
b. The movement of the edges of the incised wound can help the healing
c. Both
d. None

A

The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds

201
Q

The columnar periosteal reaction is typical of which disorder?

a. Hypertrophic osteopathy
b. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
c. Nonunion
d. Osteochondrosis dissecans

A

a. Hypertrophic osteopathy

202
Q

Which characteristics are typical of the hoof capsule in chronic laminitis?

A

High heels, concave front wall, convex solar surface, widened white line

203
Q

Which is the adequate treatment of paramphimosis in horses?

a. Amputation of the penis
b. Retaining the penis into the prepuce and suture a mesh to the preputial orifice to prevent reprolapse
c. Administration of drugs to reduce edema
d. Conservative treatment

A

c. Administration of drugs to reduce edema

204
Q

Which of the following breeds is mostly predisposed to Wobbler syndrome?

a. Dobermann
b. German shepherd
c. Dachshund
d. Labrador retriever

A

a. Dobermann

205
Q

Which one is not a postural reaction?

a. Hopping
b. Placing
c. Wheelbarrowing
d. Panniculus reflex

A

d. Panniculus reflex

206
Q
  1. Which statement is correct?

a. Acute laminitis is always a secondary disease
b. Acute laminitis is a common issue of endotoxemia in horses
c. Both
d. None

A

b. Acute laminitis is a common issue of endotoxemia in horses

207
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning perianal adenoma?

a. It is uncommon in females
b. It mostly occurs in males
c. It mainly originates from circumanal glands
d. It originates from the anal sac in females

A

d. It originates from the anal sac in females

208
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. In the categories by “Obel” there are 4 grades to classify acute laminitis
b. Acute laminitis is more common in the hindlimbs
c. Corrective trimming and shoeing have great importance in the treatment in peracute laminitis
d. Trotting with a patient with acute laminitis is really useful on hard ground

A

a. In the categories by “Obel” there are 4 grades to classify acute laminitis

209
Q

Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureter?

a. It may cause dysuria
b. In acquired form, the incontinence is recurring
c. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes
d. The urinary incontinence is always constant

A

The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

210
Q

Which statement is correct concerning a colic horse?

a. The degree of pain shows severity of the disease
b. Dehydration is only in the indolent phase present
c. In very painful cases electrolyte loss is significant
d. Primary cecum tympany can lead to death

A

a. The degree of pain shows severity of the disease

211
Q

Which tissue is least sensitive to ionizing radiation?

a. Adrenal gland
b. Skin
c. Brain
d. Bone marrow

A

c. Brain

212
Q

Which solution of the most alkalizing effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis?

a. NaCl solution
b. NaHCO3 solution
c. Lactated Ringer´s
d. Acetated Ringer´s

A

b. NaHCO3 solution

213
Q

What is the number of permanent teeth in cats

a. 30
b. 32
c. 40
d. 42

A

30

214
Q

Which statement is correct concerning capnometry?

a. The end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) equals to the arterial partial CO2 pressure (PaCO2)
b. PaCO2 is less than EtCO2
c. The physical principle of measurement is HPLC (measurement of absorption)
d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas mixture

A

a. The end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) equals to the arterial partial CO2 pressure (PaCO2)

215
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Vulnus ruptum is an incised wound
b. The vulnus ruptum is usually a lobed wound
c. Both
d. None

A

d. None

216
Q

Which one of the followings does not contraindicate the use of NSAIDs?

a. Shock
b. Prolonged mucous membrane bleeding time
c. Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system
d. Active gastro-intestinal ulceration

A

c. Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system

217
Q

Which is the location of the most common OCD sites in the equine hock?

a. Medial malleolus of the distal tibia
b. Lateral malleolus of the distal tibia
c. Lateral trochlear ridge of the talus
d. Distal intermediate ridge of the tibia

A

d. Distal intermediate ridge of the tibia

218
Q

Which statement is correct in dental nomenclature?

a. Mesial surface faces to the previous tooth in the dental arch
b. Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch
c. Distal surface faces to the apex
d. Distal surface faces to the crown

A

b. Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch

219
Q

Which of the following radiographic densities look the same?

a. Bone and metal opacity
b. Fat and soft tissue opacity
c. Fluid and soft tissue opacity
d. Fluid and fat opacity

A

c. Fluid and soft tissue opacity

220
Q

The ideal degree to perform skyline view from the this carpal bone (C3) in the horse..

a. 85 degree
b. 55 degree
c. 35 degree
d. A and B together

A

c. 35 degree

221
Q

Which part of the metacarpo/metatarsophalangeal joint is visible clearly on the dorsal 45 degree lateral-palmaromedial oblique (45 degree) view in the horse?

a. Medial proximal sesamoid bone
b. Lateral proximal sesamoid bone
c. Statumen
d. A and C together

A

b. Lateral proximal sesamoid bone

222
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

The formation of bullae are typical of II.degree burning injury

223
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is tension relieving?

A

Interrupted horizontal mattress

224
Q

Which statement is correct concerning inguinal hernia in horse?

a. In direct inguinal hernia: the small intestines escape to the subcutaneous space of the scrotum
b. The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one
c. Both
d. None

A

b. The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one

225
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Palmar digital nerve block needs min. 2,5 ml anesthetic solution per side
b. The dorsal wall of the hoof capsule will be anesthetized wit palmar digital block
c. The sites of the palmar digital nerve block are medially from the hoof cartilages
d. All of them are true

A

b. The dorsal wall of the hoof capsule will be anesthetized wit palmar digital block

226
Q

Which is the most commonly used isolation technique for rumenotomy?

a. Simple continuous seromuscular suture
b. Gotze isolation wrap
c. Foil isolation
d. We don’t use isolations

A

a. Simple continuous seromuscular suture

227
Q

Where can a Birkelund fracture be found in a horse?

a. In the dorsal recess of the fetlock joint
b. In the palmar/plantar recess of the fetlock joint
c. In the dorsal recess of the tarsal joint
d. In the dorsal recess of the coffin joint

A

b. In the palmar/plantar recess of the fetlock joint

228
Q

Esophagotomy wound in horses is closed in..

a. 1 layer
b. 2 layers
c. 3 layers
d. 4 layers

A

b. 2 layers

229
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. It is preferable to suture the edges of a bite wound
b. The bite wounds usually heal by primary intention
c. Both
d. None

A

None

230
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Clean soft tissue procedures require broad spectrum antibiotic treatment preoperatively
b. Clean soft tissue procedures require first generation cephalosporins preoperatively
c. Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis
d. In clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures, amoxicillin treatment is the therapy of choice

A

c. Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis

231
Q

Which is characteristic of large colon volvulus in horses?

a. Always evidently diagnosed with rectal palpation
b. More than 180 degree volvulus induces fast intestinal wall necrosis
c. Less than 180 degree volvulus induces fast intestinal wall necrosis
d. Can cause mild colic symptoms for several days

A

a. Always evidently diagnosed with rectal palpation

232
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe?

a. The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication?
b. The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication
c. It definitely requires emergency care
d. It is caused by morphological and/ or functional disorders of abdominal organ(s)

A

b. The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication

233
Q

The advised surgical treatment in case of the P1 communicating fracture is..

a. Lag screw fixation
b. Transfixation cast
c. Plate osteosynthesis
d. Light cast only

A

a. Lag screw fixation

234
Q

The enterotomy wound of the large colon in horses should be sutured…

a. in one layer
b. in two layers
c. in three layers
d. in four layers

A

in two layers

235
Q

Which is always palpable rectally in the colic horse?

A. Small colon obturating bezoar
B. Right dorsal displacement of the large colon
C. Right dorsal colon impaction
D. Dilated stomach

A

B. Right dorsal displacement of the large colon

236
Q

Which of the following diseases cannot cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally immature dogs?

A. Panosteitis
B. Perthes disease
C. Biceps tendon insertion tendinopathy
D. Achilles tendinopathy

A

C. Biceps tendon insertion tendinopathy

Surgery Final (1 decks)

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