Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What is Pseudomembranous Colitis?

A
  • Acute inflammatory condition which occurs secondary to antibiotic use
  • Clostridium Difficile (gram positive anaerobe)
  • Presentation is usually within 3 - 9 days, although symptoms may develop up to 6 weeks after antibiotic use
  • Presentation = proximal colon and caecum and present with a RLQ pain which may mimic appendicitis
  • Diagnosis = stool testing for Clostridium Difficile toxins
  • Complications = hypovolaemic shock, electrolyte imbalance, hypoalbuminaemia, perforation of the bowel and toxic megacolon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the management of Pseudomembranous Colitis?

A
  • Fluid Resuscitation (mild cases do not require admission)
  • Oral Metronidazole for 10 days
  • Resistant and recurrent cases are treated with Oral Vancomycin
    • intravenous preparations are avoided as the drug does not reach the intestinal mucosa
  • Anti-Diarrhoeal Agents must be avoided as this would lead to retention of the C. difficile toxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Neurogenic Shock?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • Sudden disruption or injury to the sympathetic nervous pathways
  • Results in loss of vasomotor tone and pooling of blood in the peripheries
  • Severe Hypotension
  • Causes of neurogenic shock include injury to the brain and spinal cord, and acute emotional stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Spinal Shock?

A
  • Transient state occurring after injury to the spinal cord
  • Loss of all voluntary and reflex activity below the level of the injury
  • Hypotonic Flaccid Paralysis which also affects the bladder and bowel
  • This loss can be complete initially but may resolve over a period of days and weeks following the injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the key features of an Arterial Ulcer?

A
  • Painful
  • Deep
  • Well Demarcated
  • Heels, Toes and over Bony Prominences
  • Due to Arterial Insufficiency and Ischaemia = Atherosclerosis
  • Dusky Discolouration
  • Shiny, Hairless Skin
  • Thickening of the Toenails
  • Intermittent Claudication
  • Poor Pulses
  • Coronary Angiography =define arterial lesions which may be improved by angioplasty or vascular reconstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the key features of an Venous Ulcer?

A
  • Middle Aged Women
  • Cause = Venous Hypertension and assoc w Varicose Veins
  • Medial Gaiter Area (from the ankle to the proximal calf)
  • Shallow
  • Sloughy
  • Surrounding skin = Oedematous, Dark (caused by haemosiderin deposition), Eczematous and Thickened (lipodermatosclerosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What history questions should you ask in a Vascular Patient station?

A
  • Vascular Risk Factors:
    • personal or family history of diabetes
    • smoking habits
    • exertional capacity before onset of claudication (e.g. walking distance, number of stairs they can climb)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the associations of Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?

A
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Sjogren’s Syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ERCP - ‘beading’ of the biliary tree

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Buerger Disease?

A
  • Vasculitis of medium-sized vessels
  • Results in progressive obliteration of distal arteries
  • Young Men (< 45 years)
  • Smoke heavily
  • Asians and Ashkenazi Jews
  • HLA-B12​
  • Pain = main symptom
  • Chronic Inflammation and Thrombosis can result in Ulceration and Gangrene (often requiring amputations)
  • Arteriography = normal proximal vessels and distal occlusions with multiple ‘corkscrew’ collaterals
  • Management = analgesia and stop smoking - if tobacco use is not ceased, multiple amputations will be unavoidable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Takayasu Arteritis?

A
  • Pulseless Disease or Aortic-Arch Syndrome
  • Granulomatous Inflammation of the aorta and its major branches.
  • Hypertension
  • Arm Claudication
  • Absent Pulses
  • Bruits
  • Visual Disturbance (transient amblyopia and blindness)
  • Systemic Illness (malaise, fever, night sweats and weight loss)
  • Younger Asian Women
  • Diagnosis = Angiography which shows aorta narrowing and its major branches
  • Management = steroids but the condition is progressive and death occurs within a few years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the markers of poor prognosis in Pancreatitis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the investigation findings in Pancreatitis?

A
  • Raised Amylase (above 4 times the normal upper limit)
    • 40 - 140 U/L
  • Elevated Serum Lipase (2 times upper normal limit)
    • 0 - 160 U/L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the potential complications of a Supracondylar Fracture?

A
  • Volkmann Ischaemic Contracture
    • brachial artery injury = circulatory compromise and ischaemia = fibrosis of the forearm compartment
    • secondary to untreated compartment syndrome
    • forearm appears to be shortened and held in flexion at the wrist and the fingers
    • Treatment = surgery
  • Carpal Tunnel Syndrome = median nerve injury
  • Ulnar Nerve Palsy = stretching of the ulnar nerve over an increasing valgus deformity
  • Cubitus Varus Deformity (‘gunstock deformity’) = malunion of supracondylar fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the features of Chagas Disease?

A
  • Central and South America
  • Trypanosoma Cruzi = protozoa
  • Primary Disease
    • skin nodule – a chagoma
    • fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy etc
  • Secondary Disease
    • 30% after years
    • dysphagia (similar to achalasia)
    • destruction of the oesophageal myenteric plexus
    • retained food eventually results in oesophageal dilatation
    • megaoesophagus’ can be seen on barium swallow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment of Anaphylaxis?

A
  • Adrenaline i
    • bronchodilate
    • vasoconstrict,
    • IM (10 mL of 1:1000 solution)
  • IV antihistamines (e.g. chlorphenamine) and IV hydrocortisone are used to assist in dampening the inflammatory response
  • Fluids are used for hypotension
  • Salbutamol can be administered simultaneously to aid the relief of bronchospasm
17
Q

What is the cause of Appendicitis?

A
  • Inflammation of the appendix
  • Secondary to obstruction of the appendiceal opening into the caecum.
  • Causes of obstruction include faecoliths and lymphoid hyperplasia secondary to viral infections
18
Q

What are the signs of Appendicitis?

A
  • Localized peritonitis over McBurney point (found 1/3 of the way between the ASIS and umbilicus)
  • Palpation over the LIF may cause pain in the rRIF (Rovsing Sign)
  • Location (of inflamed appendix)
    • bladder = urinary frequency
    • rectum = diarrhoea
    • psoas muscle = patient will feel most comfortable lying with the hip flexed
19
Q

What are the key features of Acromegaly?

A
  • GH secreting tumour
  • GH = anabolic
  • SoL = early morning headache that is worse on coughing and straining
  • Risks = colon cancer and atheromatous disease
  • Diagnosis = glucose tolerance test (75 g glucose - GH not suppressed)
  • Treatment
    • surgery = transphenoidal
    • medical = octreotide (somatostatin analogues)
  • N.B. Tumour before bone epiphysis fusion = gigantism
20
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma vs Pancreatic Cancer?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

  • Adenocarcinoma of the Biliary Tree
  • Assoc w UC, PSC and Crohn’s
  • Poor Prognosis = 6 months (not amenable to surgery at time of presentation
  • 50-70 years old
  • F = M
21
Q

What is Brown-Séquard Syndrome?

A
  • Hemisection
  • Ipsilateral = loss of motor and dorsal columns (decussates at the level of entry into the spinal cord)
  • Contralateral = loss of spinothalamic (decussates at medulla)
  • Best prognosis of all spinal cord lesions
22
Q

What is the treatment of Wilson’s Disease?

A

Penicillamine = chelates copper and encourages its excretion

23
Q

Ampicillin and Amoxicillin precipitates a widespread rash in which condition?

A

Infectious Mononucleosis = don’t give it!

24
Q

What are the features of Anal Carcinoma?

A
  • SCC (80%)
  • Elderly population
  • Associated w Human Papilloma Virus (types 16, 18, 31 and 33) and Anal Warts
  • Non-Specific Symptoms:
    • pain
    • discomfort
    • itching
    • intermittent bleeding
    • inguinal lymphadenopathy
25
Q

What is the diagnosis and treatment of Anal Carcinoma?

A

Diagnosis

  • Biopsy
  • Rectal Examination under anaesthesia
  • CT/MRI can be used to assess the extent of pelvic spread

Management

  • Localized = radiotherapy with or without excision
  • Larger = abdominoperineal (AP) resection with colostomy
    • sigmoid colon, rectum and anus are removed
    • defect in the perineum is closed with a mesh or muscle flap
26
Q

What are the key features of a Para-Umbilical Hernia?

A
  • Adults
  • Multiparous Women
  • Above/Below Umbilicus in the Linea Alba
  • Narrow Neck = Strangulation
27
Q

What is a Pseudo-Polyp?

A
  • Inflammatory Bowel Disease
  • In an area of oedematous, swollen bowel surrounded by ulcerations, it looks as if the oedema is protruding from the walls of the bowel wall as a polyp
  • In reality, these ‘polyps’ are merely areas of swollen bowel mucosa
28
Q

What is Morton Neuroma?

A
  • Between 3rd & 4th Metatarsal of the Foot
  • Middle-Aged Women
  • Pain (shooting) when wearing shoes (relieved when removed)
  • Diagnosis = clinical (but confirm w MRI or US)
    • Foot X-rays = Normal
  • Treatment = surgical excision (= cure)
29
Q

What is Plantar Fasciitis?

A
  • Pain in the heels when walking
  • Inflammation of the fascia as it inserts into the calcaneum
30
Q

What are some potential complications of Angiography?

A
  • False Aneurysm (commonly after trauma or iatrogenic = pulsatile, minimally tender)
    • ultrasound-guided compression
    • embolisation
    • surgery
  • Groin Abscess = tender and fluctuant but not pulsatile
31
Q

Tumour Markers?

A
32
Q

What are the key features of Duct Ectasia?

A
  • Skin/Nipple Retraction
  • Greenish/Brown Nipple Discharge
33
Q

What is Intraductal Papilloma?

A
  • Benign Tumours of Lactiferous Glands
  • Pre-Menopausal Women
  • Pain within the Nipple or Areola
  • Associated w Discharge which may be Blood-Stained
  • In most cases there is no associated breast lump
  • Investigations =
    • cytology (no malignant cells)
    • ultrasound (more sensitive than mammography for intraductal papillomas)
    • ductography
    • lump present = biopsy
  • Treatment =
    • conservative
    • significant symptoms or a risk of malignancy = surgical excision of the affected duct can be undertaken (microdochectomy)