Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Anatomy and Physiology of Facial Nerve

A
  • Special Visceral Afferent Fibers
    • Sense of Taste on Anterior 2/3 of Tongue
    • Via the Lingual and Chorda Tympani Nerves
    • Geniculate Ganglion
    • Nervus Intermedius to the Tractus Solitarius
  • General Visceral Afferent Fibers
    • Controversial
    • Skin of the Concha and Auricle
  • Special Visceral Efferent Fibers
    • Stapedius Muscle
    • Auricular Muscles
    • Posterior Belly of Digastric Muscle
    • Stylohyoid Muscle
    • Platysma Muscles
    • Superficial Facial Muscles
  • General Visceral Efferent Fibers
    • Parasympathetic System
      • Greater Superficial Petrosal Nerve
      • Lesser Petrosal Nerve
      • Chorda Tympani Nerve → Lingual Nerve
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2
Q

Pathophysiology of Nerve Injury

A
  • Neurapraxia - Loss of Axoplasm Flow
  • Axonotmesis - Wallerian Degeneration w/ the Preservation of Endoneural Sheaths
  • Neurotmesis - Wallerian Degeneration + Loss of Endoneural Tubules
  • Sunderland’s Five Levels of Neural Injury
    • First Degree - Neurapraxia
    • Second Degree - Axonotmesis
    • Third Degree - Neurotmesis w/ Loss of Endoneurium
    • Fourth Degree - Neurotmesis w/ Loss of Endoneurium and Perineurium
    • Fifth Degree - Neurotmesis w/ Loss of Endo, Peri, and Epineurium
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3
Q

Classification of Recovery From Facial Paralysis

A
  • Grade I - Normal
  • Grade II - Slight Weakness
  • Grade III - Obvious, but not disfiguring difference b/t the two sides, Complete closure of eye w/ effort
  • Grade IV - Obvious weakness and/or disfiguring asymmetry, Incomplete closure of eye
  • Grade V - Slight Movement
  • Grade VI - Total Paralysis
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4
Q

Differential Diagnosis of Facial Paralysis

A
  • Infection
    • Bell’s Palsy
    • Herpes Zoster Oticus
    • Otitis Media/Mastoiditis
    • Malignant Otitis Externa
    • Tuberculosis
    • Lyme Dz
    • Acquired immunodeficiency Syndrome
    • Infectious Mononucleosis
  • Trauma
    • Temporal Bone Fracture
    • Birth Trauma
    • Facial Contusions/Lacerations
    • Penetrating Wounds
    • Iatrogenic Injury
  • Neoplasia
    • Cholesteatoma
    • Glomus Jugulare or Tympanicum
    • Carcinoma
    • Facial Neuroma
    • Schwannoma
    • Meningioma
    • Leukemia
    • Histiocytoses
    • Rhabdomyosarcoma
  • Congenital
    • Compression Injury
    • Mobius Syndrome
    • Lower Lip Paralysis
  • Idiopathic
    • Recurrent Facial Palsy
    • Melkersson-Rosenthal Syndrome
  • Metabolic and Systemic
    • Sarcoidosis
    • Guillain-Barre Syndrome
    • Autoimmune Disorders
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5
Q

Evaluation of Facial Paralysis

A
  • Hx
    • Onset
    • Duration
    • Rate of Progression
    • Recurrent or Familial
    • Associated Symptoms
    • Major Medical Illness/Major Surgery
  • Physical Exam
    • Microscopic Otoscopy
    • URT Examination
    • Cranial Nerve Assessment
    • Palpation of Parotid Gland and Neck
    • Neurologic
      • Cerebellar Signs
      • Motor
    • Facial Nerve Function
      • Complete vs. Incomplete (Paresis)
      • Segmental vs. Uniform
      • Unilateral vs. Bilateral
  • Lab Studies
    • Audiometry
    • Electrophysiology Tests
      • Nerve Excitability Test
      • Maximal Stim Test
      • Electroneurography
      • Electromyography
  • Radiographic Studies
    • CT
    • MRI
  • Possible Additional Studies
    • CBC w/ Differential
    • Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
    • Serum Antibody
    • Serum Antinuclear
    • Rheumatoid Factor
    • CXR
    • Lumbar Puncture w/ CSF Assay
  • Topographic Testing
    • Includes Schirmer Test, Stapedial Reflex, Electrogustometry, and Salivary Flow
    • NOW considered “OBSOLETE”
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6
Q

Electrophysiologic Tests

A
  • NET, MST, and ENOG provide the most accurate information w/in the first 3 weeks
  • EMG cannot differentiate b/t a total neurapraxia vs. completely degenerated nerve in acute phase
  • Paresis does NOT warrant electrophysiologic tests
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7
Q

Bell Palsy

A
  • ACUTE onset w/ limited duration
  • Diagnosis of exclusion
  • 1/3 develop only a paresis w/ >95% recovery
  • 2/3 w/ paralysis w/ 85% havings some return of facial tone w/in 3 weeks
  • 71% of all pts achieve H-B grade 1
  • ENOG w/ 90% degeneration in the first 2 weeks recover to H-B grade I or II in only 50% of pts
  • Maximal nerve injury occurs at meatal foramen
    • Decompression is directed at the labyrinthine portion
  • Treatment Regimen
    • Prednisone 1 mg/kg/day in divided doses and tapered over 7-10 days
    • Acyclovir 2000 mg/day in 5 doses for 7 days
    • Delay of more than 3 days precludes any additional benefit
      *
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8
Q

Herpes Zoster Oticus

A
  • Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
  • Facial Paralysis, Ear Pain, and Vesicular Eruption
  • Pain precedes paralysis by a few days
  • SNHL and vestibular dysfunction in 20%
  • Poorer prognosis for spontaneous recovery than Bell Palsy
  • Management
    • Steroid Taper
    • Valacyclovir 1000 mg TID x 7days
    • Consider IV Doses
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9
Q

Otitis Media

A
  • Incidence of facial palsy in AOM about 1:20,000
  • COM w/ facial paralysis is more ominous
    • Aural toilet and antibiotics
    • Myringotomy and Tube
    • CT Scan
    • Consider Tympanomastoidectomy w/ decompression of the mastoid/tympanic facial nerve
      • Incision of Epineurium not recommended
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10
Q

Trauma Related Facial Paralysis

A
  • Temporal bone fractures are categorized according to otic capsule involvement
  • Less than 5% involve otic capsule
  • Facial nerve injury occurs in 50% of all otic capsule fractures
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11
Q

Eye Care Related to Facial Paralysis

A
  • Corneal desiccation = Most Common Complication
    • Warn pt about itching redness, FB sensation, and visual blurring
    • Prevention = lubricants, tape or moisture chambers, and avoidance of wind, vents, and fans
    • Consider gold weight implants, canthoplasty, tarsorrhaphy, and upper eyelid springs
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12
Q

Swallowing Phases

A
  • Preparatory and Oral Phase
    • Voluntary Phase
  • Pharyngeal Phase
    • Reflexive Phase; < 1 second in normal pts
  • Esophageal Phase
    • Fluid is passive, solid is active
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13
Q

Management of Dysphagia

A
  • Treat underlying cause
    • Iron, pyridostigmine, benzotropine, abx
  • Reflux regimen
  • Aspiration pneumonia
  • Botox injections
  • Swallowing rehabilitation
    • Change food consistency
    • Supraglottic swallow
    • Mendelsohn maneuver
  • Surgery
    • Esophageal dilation
    • Cricopharyngeal myotomy
    • G or J tube
    • Vocal fold medialization
    • Tracheotomy
    • Laryngectomy
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14
Q

Upper Esophageal Sphincter

A
  • Cricopharyngeus muscle
  • Tonic closure prevents reflux, aspiration, and regurgitation
  • Relaxes during pharyngeal phase
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15
Q

Lower Esophageal Sphincter

A
  • Normal tone: 10-40 mmHg
    • Achalasia >40
    • Scleroderma <10
  • Physiologic Sphincter (Aided by Diaphragm)
  • Hiatal Hernia = LES Above Diaphragm
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16
Q

GERD/LPR Diagnosis

A
  • May begin antireflux regimen from hx
  • Flex Laryngoscopy
  • Barium Swallow
  • 24-hour pH Probe = Gold Standard (but not practical)
  • Esophagoscopy/TNE
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17
Q

Achalasia

A
  • Degeneration of Auerbach’s Plexus
  • Aperistalsis and Increased LES Pressure
  • Increased Risk of Esophageal Cancer
  • Treatment
    • Dilation
    • “Wash” meals down w/ fluids
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18
Q

Progressive Systemic Sclerosis (Scleroderma)

A
  • Autoimmune, smooth muscle atrophy, collagen deposition
  • Esophageal dysmotility of the lower 2/3
  • GERD
  • Fixed Face
  • CREST Syndrome
  • Treatment
    • Reflux control
    • Steroids
    • NSAIDs
    • Ca channel blockers
19
Q

Polymyositis

A
  • Idiopathic inflammatory myopathy of striated muscle
  • Dermatomyositis - variation w/ rash
  • Proximal muscle wasting
  • Dysmotility of the proximal 1/3 of esophagus
  • EMG, Muscle Biopsy, Increased CPK
  • Treatment
    • Reflux control
    • Steroids
    • Immunosuppressives
    • Antimetabolites
20
Q

Zenker’s Diverticulum

A
  • Pulsion diverticulum at Killians Triangle
  • False diverticulum = mucosa/submucosa only
  • 80% on L Side
  • Treatment
    • Cricopharyngeal myotomy +/- diverticulectomy
21
Q

Esophageal Rupture

A
  • Iatrogenic instrumentation most common
  • Mallory-Weiss Syndrome - incomplete tear from increased pressure (emesis)
  • Boerhaave Syndrome - rupture of all 3 layers, risk of mediastinitus
    • Hammer’s Sign - crunching over the heart
    • Needs early surgery and drainage
22
Q

Dysphagia Lusoria

A
  • AKA Bayford Syndrome
  • Retroesophageal R Subclavian Artery
  • Intermittent Dysphagia
  • Dx = Barium Swallow and Esophagoscopy
  • Tx = Ligate and Reanastomose to R Common Carotid
23
Q

Eagle Syndrome

A
  • Elongated Styloid Process or Ossified Stylohyoid Ligament
  • Odynophagia, Unilateral Throat Pain
  • Dx - Radiography
  • Tx - Intraoral or External Excision
24
Q

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

A
  • Iron Deficiency ?
  • Dysphagia, Microcytic Anemia, PE webs, chelitis, hypothyroidism, hiatal hernia
  • Tx: iron supplementation, esophageal dilation
25
Q

Tracheoesophageal Fistulas

A
  • Treatment
    • Division and Reconstruction
  • Congenital
    • Immediate gagging and cyanosis after birth
  • Acquired
    • Secondary to trachs, intubations, tumor, inflammation, trauma
26
Q

Esophageal Malignancy

A
  • More common than benign tumors
  • Dysphagia that turns into odynophagia, hemoptysis, cough, hoarseness, weight loss, emesis
  • Early Transmural Spread
    • Poor prognosis 10% 3-Year Survival
  • Types
    • Squamous Cell Carcinoma
      • Most Common
      • Middle 1/3 of Esophagus
    • Adenocarcinoma
      • Associated w/ Barrett’s
27
Q

Acute Pharyngitis

A
  • Most Commonly Viral
    • Adeno and Rhino
  • Supportive Care
28
Q

Strep Pharyngitis

A
  • GABHS
    • Most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis
    • Rapid Antigen Test
    • Rheumatic Fever
      • Minor Jones 2 + 1 Major
        • Arthralgia, Fever, ARF
      • Major Jones Criteria 2+
        • Carditis, Polyarthritis, Subcutaneous Nodules, Erythema Marginatum, Chorea
29
Q

Herpangina

A
  • Hand Foot Mouth Disease
    • Coxsackie A
    • Small oropharyngeal vesicular lesions
    • Self-Limiting
30
Q

Mononucleosis

A
  • EBV
  • High Fever, LAD, Exudative Tonsils, Enlarged Spleen
  • Dx w/ serology or mono-spot
  • Resolves in 2-6 weeks
  • Protect spleen, liver, and airway
31
Q

Congential Webs

A
  • Benign
  • Anterior
  • Incomplete Recanalization
  • Glottic in 75%
  • Weak Cry, Aphonia, Inspiratory Stridor
  • Dx
    • Flex Endoscopy
  • Tx
    • Endoscopic lysis if >50%
32
Q

Congenital Subglottic Stenosis

A
  • <4 mm
  • Third most common laryngeal anomaly
  • Membranous, Cartilaginous, or Mixed
  • Grades I-IV
  • Biphasic Stridor
  • Dx
    • Endoscopy
    • CXR
  • Tx
    • Reflux Mangement
    • Endoscpopic Mangaement for Grade I and II
    • Open Surgery Grades III and IV
33
Q

Laryngomalacia

A
  • MOST COMMON congenital laryngeal anomaly
  • MOST COMMON cause of stridor in neonate and chronic pediatric
  • SSx
    • Intermittent inspiratory stridor
    • Worse w/ feeding/crying
  • Inward collapse of A-E folds to glottis
  • Tx
    • Observation
    • Rarely Surgery
34
Q

Tracheomalacia

A
  • Immature tracheal cartilage
  • Rare
  • Expiratory Stridor
  • Usually self-limited; improves w/ growth
  • Treat GERD
35
Q

Vascular Rings

A
  • Double Aortic Arch
    • Most common vascular anomaly to caused stridor
  • Retroesophageal Right Subclavian Artery
    • Most common vascular anomaly to compress the aerodigestive tract
  • Dx
    • MRI/CT
  • Tx
    • Symptomatic compression requires surgery
36
Q

Cri du Chat

A
  • Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5
  • High-pitched stridor, mental retardation, and microencephaly
  • Narrowed endolarynx and interarytenoid cleft
37
Q

Recurrent Respiratory Papillomatosis

A
  • Second most common cause of hoarseness in children
  • 2/3 present before age of 15
  • HPV Types 6 and 11
  • 50% born from mothers w/ condyloma
  • Stridor dyspnea, dysphagia
  • Tx
    • Frequent endoscopic CO2 ablation
    • Avoid tracheotomy
    • Cydofovir
38
Q

Lymphangiomas (Cystic Hygroma)

A
  • 90% present before age of 3
  • Soft solitary painless compressible mass
  • Lymphoendothelial hyperplasia
  • Tx
    • Conservative excision
    • Low rate of recurrence if completely removed
39
Q

Hemangioma

A
  • Most common head and neck neoplasm in children
  • Presents by 6 months and then usually involutes by 2 years of age
  • Types
    • Infantile, capillary, cavernous
  • Tx
    • Observe
    • Laser Excision
    • Radiation
    • Embolization
    • Steroids
40
Q

Acute Sialadenitis

A
  • S. aureus most common
  • Tx
    • Hydration
    • Heat
    • Abx
    • Sialogogues
41
Q

Acute Sialolithiasis

A
  • Most common in submandibular gland
  • 90% of SM or radiopaque
  • 90% of Parotid are radiolucent
  • Consider CT or MRI after exam
  • Tx
    • Gland massage
    • Transoral incision
    • Gland excision
42
Q

Radiation Sialadenitis

A
  • Permanent if exposed to >40-50 Gy
  • Xerostomia, hypogeusia, ageusia, dental caries
  • Gland w/ interstitial fibrosis
  • Tx
    • Symptomatic w/
      • Artificial saliva
      • Dental care
      • Frequent drinks
      • Pilocarpine drops
43
Q

Most comon salivary gland malignancy in adults and children?

A

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

44
Q

Most common submandibular and minor salivary gland malignancy?

A

Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma