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Orthodontics > Summer Mock > Flashcards

Summer Mock Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following are advantages of the indirect method of bonding brackets to a tooth over the direct method EXCEPT

A

less technique sensitive

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2
Q

which of the following are considered functional appliances

A

Frankel
Bionator
Clarks twin block
Herst
Activator
QUAD HELIX IS NOT

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3
Q

Headgear appliance is used for

A

both anchorage and traction

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4
Q

which of the following is not a fixed appliance

A

frankel appliance

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5
Q

when comparing stainless steel versus nickel titanium, stainless steel has a _______ modulus of elasticity and ________ resilience

A

higher , lower

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6
Q

which appliance is probably the most widely used today by orthodontist

A

edgewise

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7
Q

the hawley retainer is the most common in ortho because it can use the palate for anchorage

A

correct but not related

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8
Q

an active finger spring of a removable appliance usually touches the tooth with a point contact. what is the most likely type of tooth movement produced in this situation

A

tipping

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9
Q

prior to bonding _____is used as an etching agent. Prior to placing bands, _______ is used as an etching agent

A

35-50% unbuffed phosphoric acid; nothing

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10
Q

in a maxillary permanent incisor crossbite, in order to treat this condition properly the dentist should do what

A

correct the condition immediate with a simple appliance

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11
Q

ortho forces can be treated as math vectors

forces produce either translation, rotation, or a combination of translation and rotation, depending upon the relationship of the line of action of the force to the center of resistence

A

both are true

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12
Q

what can cause extrusion of the maxillary first molar which can cause an open bite

A

cervical pull headgear

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13
Q

which condition is appropriately treated at an early age

A

posterior crossbite with a functional shift

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14
Q

displaced teeth related to functional shifts occur in which of the following situations

A

posterior crossbite
anterior crossbite

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15
Q

maxillary expansion is often done to correct crossbites.
tongue thrusting often causes an anterior open bite

A

both are true

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16
Q

what is not a classic symptom of sucking habbit

A

expanded maxillary arch

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17
Q

an anterior crossbite should be corrected as soon as it is detected because it is difficult to retain the corrected occlusion

A

correct but unrelated

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18
Q

a patient’s SNA angle is 78. the SNB is 76. this tells us that the maxilla is ______, the mandible is_____, and the skeletal profile is ______

A

retrognathic, retrognathic, class I

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19
Q

a poor man’s ceph is performed via

A

facial profile anaylsis

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20
Q

what does not correlate with a steep mandibular plane

A

Class III malocclusion

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21
Q

what is needed so that the soft tissues are clearly visible on a lateral cephalometric radiograph

A

soft tissue shield

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22
Q

identify the frankfurt-horizontal plane and the numbered point it uses for its origin

A

a line through porion and orbitale.

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23
Q

in predicting the time of the pubertal growth, the ortho can get the most valuable info from

A

wrist hand

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24
Q

in a series of extraction case, what is the correct order of tooth removal

A

p-canine, p-first molar, perm first premolar

25
Q

what is the correct sequence of uprighting a tooth

A

separate
band
upright
complete crown lengthening
complete crown prep

26
Q

at the age of 9, young jimmy needs his tooth #30 pulled due to caries. What is the proper space maintenance

A

no space maintenance

27
Q

_____ describes movement of the crown in one direction while the root tip is displaces in the opposite direction

A

tipping

28
Q

_______ is controlled root movement while the crown in held relatively stable

A

torque

29
Q

A post-ortho circumfrential supracrestal fibrotomy is performed, thus reducing the tendency of rotated tooth relapse

A

both are true

30
Q

which are part of the rationale for retention in ortho

A

all

31
Q

the cranial vault is made up of a number of flat bones that are formed by _______, ______ cartilagenous precursors

A

intramembraneous bone formation; without

32
Q

once bone is formed, it grows by

A

appositional growth

33
Q

cartilage differs from bone in that cartilage can increase size by

A

interstitial growth

34
Q

the sole function of the alveolar process is to support the teeth, which is why it resorbs if a permanent tooth is extracted

A

both are correct and related

35
Q

bone deposition in the ____ region is responsible for the lengthening of the maxillary arch

A

tuberosity

36
Q

An 18 year old patient presents back to you complaining of crowding of his lower anterior incisors. It is because of

A

late mandibular growth

37
Q

what percentage of 6-year old children have a median maxillary diastema

A

98%

38
Q

the length of the mandibular arch is longer than the maxillary arch

the difference is only about 2mm

A

false
true

39
Q

the most commonly impacted tooth is the mandibular canine.

the longer a tooth has been impacted, the more likely it is to be ankylosed

A

false, true

40
Q

if a permanent maxillar first molar has errupted ectopically against the distal root surface of a primary second molar, what is the tx of choice

A

a brass wire place between the primary and second molar and permanent first molar

41
Q

the time required to upright a molar can very from

the time required to stabilize the molar can vary from

A

6/12 months
2/6 months

42
Q

which is NOT are signs of incipient malocclusion

A

larger than normal primary teeth

43
Q

a patient presents with long face syndrome based on webDDS. the man has obvious mouth breathing. what is your immediate thought

A

skeletal open bite

44
Q

angle class I represents % of the population while class II represents

A

70; 25

45
Q

what ceph measurement is characteristic in class I

A

ANB <4 degrees

46
Q

a concave profile is associated with a class III occlusion

It is also termed retrognathic

A

true
false

47
Q

which of the following can be used to describe a class II malocclusion

A

overbite or retrognathism

48
Q

which of the following is least common

A

Class III

49
Q

the existence of a forward shift of the mandible during closure to avoid incisor interference is found in

A

pseudo class III

50
Q

the most common cause of class I malocclusion is

A

discrepancy between tooth size and supporting bone

51
Q

which of the following is/are general causes of failure of tooth erruption or delayed erruption

A

hereditary gingival fibromatosis
down syndrome
rickets

52
Q

primate space is located between the lateral incisors and canines in the max

in the mand, it is located between k9 and 1st molar

A
53
Q

which of the following primary molar relationships can you expect to result in a class II relationship in the permanent dentition

A

distal step

54
Q

a PA of primary tooth M shows tooth #22 overlapping half of the root. the patient is not in the chairr. what would you presume

A

22 is errupting facially

55
Q

leeway space is calculated difference between primary and permanent tooth size

there is typically more leeway space in the max arch

A

first true
second false

56
Q

6-year old patient and her mother present to your office. Her moms chief complaint is “my kids overtbite makes her look like bugs bunny. what is wrong with the moms statement

A

she is mixing up overbite and over jet

57
Q

which of the following teeth are required for a dentist to perform a moyers mixed dentition anaylsis

A

mandibular incisors

58
Q

which of the following is false concerning dentition anaylsis?

A

anaylsis for each quadrant

Orthodontics (2 decks)

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