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2. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) > Summer MCQ > Flashcards

Summer MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

Which two cardiac arrest rhythms are shockable with a defibrillator?

A

Ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT)

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2
Q

How many litres of oxygen per minute should someone in cardiac arrest be given?

A

15 litres per minute

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3
Q

What should you do if you are struggling to ventilate someone in cardiac arrest?

A

Size and insert an oropharyngeal airway

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4
Q

A patient is struggling to breathe so you give them oxygen. This could be detrimental to a patient with what type of respiratory disease?

A

Chronic COPD

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5
Q

Which of the following branches of the maxillary nerve innervates the anterior part of the hard palate immediately behind the central and lateral incisors?

A

Nasopalantine nerve

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6
Q

Which drug is most likely to be given to someone having an acute myocardial infarction?

A

Aspirin

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7
Q

Which of the following routes of drug administration is subject to first pass metabolism?

A

Oral

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8
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to lower lipid levels?

A

Simvastatin

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9
Q

In the mandibular arch, where is the primate space found?

A

Distal to the canine

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10
Q

Where do you find fovea palatinae?

A

Posterior to the vibrating line

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11
Q

If a sharp injury occurs, you should initially

A

Encourage bleeding

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12
Q

Which muscle is infrahyoid?

A

Sternohyoid

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13
Q

Which of the following is an irreversible factor for cardiovascular disease?

A

Age

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14
Q

Which of the following is one of the checks you undertake when using a handpiece?

A

Check the burr is secure in the chuck

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15
Q

Which direct restorative material relies on chelation between carboxylate groups and the calcium in the tooth as a major component of the bonding mechanism?

A

Glass ionomer cements

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16
Q

What are dental excavators primarily used for?

A

Caries removal

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17
Q

What is the normal maximum rotation of a ‘slow-speed’ (latch grip) handpiece?

A

20,000 rpm

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18
Q

What is the normal maximum rotation of a ‘high-speed’ air turbine?

A

400,000 rpm

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19
Q

What undercut gauge is used to assess for CoCr clasps?

A

0.25mm

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20
Q

In removable partial denture design, support is:

A

the resistance of a denture to occlusally directed load

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21
Q

What is used to locate undercut areas during surveying without marking the cast?

A

Analysing rod

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22
Q

Which of the following effects of etching will improve retention of composite restorations?

A

The increase in surface area

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23
Q

In removable partial denture design, indirect retention is:

A

the resistance of a denture to rotation

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24
Q

Identify the correct Kennedy Classification for the following dental arch

A

Kennedy Class III, modification 1

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25
Q

Which factor does not affect the wear of composite?

A

Tensile strength

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26
Q

Which classification of support could be considered when designing a partial denture incorporating a free-end saddle?

A

Craddock Class 2 or Class 3

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27
Q

Which type of dentine is laid down in response to excessive tooth wear?

A

Tertiary dentine

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28
Q

Agar and alginate are both

A

Hydrocolloids

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29
Q

In partial denture construction a pin dam

A

improves adaptation

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30
Q

At what depth does the first black band on a BPE probe start?

A

3.5mm

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31
Q

What is the normal order of eruption of primary teeth?

A

a, b, d, c, e

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32
Q

Which surface is most susceptible to caries in an upper 6?

A

Occlusal

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33
Q

What is the minimum length of a CoCr occlusally approaching clasp?

A

15mm

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34
Q

The RPI is a stress relieving clasp system that works by

A

eliminating axial rotation (torque) from the distal of the abutment tooth

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35
Q

What is the most likely reason for placing a resin modified glass ionomer lining under an amalgam restoration?

A

Thermal protection of the pulp

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36
Q

What is the most appropriate material to place directly over a non-carious exposure in an asymptomatic tooth?

A

Steroid/ antibiotic paste

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37
Q

A hybrid composite resin material is one that

A

Has quartz filler particles that range in diameter from small (<0.1um) to large (1 to 10um)

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38
Q

In the table below, the thermal expansion coefficients of three restorative materials (marked A to C) are indicated. The materials A, B and C are:-

A

GIC, amalgam, composite resin

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39
Q

When a patient sues a dentist for compensation because of harm that results from clinical negligence, there are sometimes causes involving contributory negligence. Contributory negligence applies when:

A

The patient’s own actions of a neglectful nature also contributed to the harm

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40
Q

One of the criteria for clinical negligence is that the dentist has failed to meet the standard of care. For a General Dental Practitioner, which of the following is true in relation to the standard of care?

A

The dentist must meet the ordinary standard of care

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41
Q

Which of the following is the first stage in the practice of public health?

A

Assessment of population needs

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42
Q

Which of the following factors which influence health would be considered a life circumstance factor rather than a behaviour/ lifestyle factor?

A

Housing tenure

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43
Q

What is the most appropriate primary study design for the following question. Is routine scale and polish effectivene at preventing periodontal disease?

A

Randomised control trial

44
Q

The effectiveness of ice chip therapy (cryotherapy) (versus no treatment) at preventing or reducing the severity of mucositis in patients receiving chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy was tested in a randomised controlled trial. The risk ratio [95% confidence interval] = 0.74 (0.57 to 0.95). Which of the following statements is true?

A

There was sufficient evidence of a benefit of ice chips on oral mucositis in the population (?)

45
Q

Which one of these teeth (FDI notation) would be present in the mouth of a healthy 4 year-old child?

A

55

46
Q

Which one of these features, visible with a light microscope in a ground section of a tooth, arises from the incremental deposition of dentine?

A

Lines of von Ebner

47
Q

During its formation, what is the approximate daily rate of deposition of enamel?

A

4 micrometres

48
Q

Which one of these following microscopic features arises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel?

A

Enamel spindles

49
Q

Deposition of which type of dentine is responsible for ‘translucent’ dentine?

A

Intratubular (peritubular) dentine

50
Q

The proportion of dentinal tubules containing a nerve is greatest in dentine under cusps. Approximately what proportion of tubules are innervated in this region of the tooth?

A

40%

51
Q

The cells which form cementum are derived from which of the following tissues or cells?

A

Dental follicle

52
Q

Which one of these stimuli applied to dentine will provoke increased flow of dentinal fluid inwards, towards the dental pulp?

A

Scratching with probe

53
Q

Which one of these periodontal fibre groups originates in the cervical region of a tooth and extends to the inter proximal surface of adjacent teeth?

A

Trans-septal

54
Q

The epithelial attachment, where the junctional epithelium is attached to the tooth surface, is formed by which of the following types of junction?

A

Hemidesmosomes

55
Q

Physiological medial drift of the permanent molar teeth will result in which one of the following clinical features?

A

Broadening of the contact points

56
Q

Which cranial nerve provides the main innervation of the structures derived from the second branchial arch?

A

Facial

57
Q

How much prilocaine is present in a cartridge containing 2mL of a 3% prilocaine solution?

A

60mg

58
Q

Which of the following is the site of action of a local anaesthetic, such as lignocaine (lidocaine)?

A

Voltage-gated sodium channels

59
Q

Which one of these structures generates basic speech sounds in phonation?

A

Vocal folds

60
Q

What age would you expect the roots of all primary teeth in a child to be complete? Choose the most appropriate age from the list.

A

4 years

61
Q

Upper canines sometimes fail to erupt. By what age would you expect an upper permanent canine to have erupted?

A

12 years

62
Q

Which one of the following nerves is a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve?

A

(Long) buccal nerve

63
Q

Which one of these reflexes is generated by irritation of the nasal mucosa and results in explosive expiration?

A

Sneezing

64
Q

A unilateral cleft lip will result from failure of fusion of which pair of embryonic processes?

A

Maxillary and medial nasal processes

65
Q

In a neonate, the anterior fontanelle is surrounded by which skull bones?

A

Frontal and parietal

66
Q

Which of these muscles is derived from the first (mandibular) pharyngeal arch?

A

Temporalis

67
Q

Meckel’s cartilage is present in the developing embryonic and fatal lower jaw. Which one of these bones is formed from part of the Meckel’s cartilage?

A

Malleus

68
Q

Which of these vocal sounds is ‘plosive’ (stop consonant)?

A

‘b’ as in ‘bite’

69
Q

Which of these terms best describes a condition in which a patient has difficulty or discomfort with swallowing?

A

Dysphagia

70
Q

Which of the following conditions is least likely to impair an individual’s chewing (or masticatory) efficiency?

A

Loss of upper incisor and canine teeth

71
Q

The shortened dental arch, as described by Kayser in 1981, has how many teeth per quadrant?

A

Both incisors, canine, both premolars

72
Q

Which of these muscles is classed as a ‘supra hyoid’ muscle?

A

Geniohyoid

73
Q

Which type of tissue covers the articular surface of the mandibular condyle?

A

Fibrous tissue

74
Q

Which one of these events does not play a significant role in preventing aspiration of food particles into the larynx and trachea during swallowing?

A

Relaxation of inferior pharyngeal constrictor

75
Q

What is considered the normal depth of a healthy gingival sulcus (crevice)?

A

1-2mm

76
Q

Which one of these dental or peridental tissues is not derived from the embryonic neural crest (ectomesenchyme)?

A

Enamel

77
Q

Cleft palate may arise if the normal process of palatogenesis is disrupted. Failure of which of the following events is least likely to result in development of a cleft palate?

A

Fusion of lateral and medial nasal processes

78
Q

Neonates display a metopic suture, which of the present between the two developing halves of which bone?

A

Frontal

79
Q

Which nerve provides the sensory innervation of the mucosa of the hard palate, adjacent to the first permanent molar teeth?

A

Greater palatine nerve

80
Q

Which nerve is the principal nerve supply to the pulp of the lower first permanent molar tooth?

A

Inferior alveolar nerve

81
Q

Which nerve provides the general sensory innervation of the mucosa of the dorsum of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

A

Lingual nerve

82
Q

You are administering an inferior alveolar nerve block. As you inject, the patient complains of a sudden pain, and develops trismus. Injury to which one of these muscles is most likely to explain this complication?

A

Medial pterygoid

83
Q

In administering an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle is directed immediately lateral to the pterygomandibular raphe, which provides an important ‘aiming point’. Which two muscles are attached to the pterygomandibular raphe?

A

Buccinator and superior constrictor

84
Q

Which of these types of dentine is laid down in response to excessive cusp wear?

A

Tertiary dentine

85
Q

In addition to an odontoblast process, what other structure is most likely to be present within a dentinal tubule?

A

Unmyelinated nerve

86
Q

According to the prosthodontist John Farrell, which type of foodstuff was found to be least digestible?

A

Beef

87
Q

Some restorative procedures can cause pulpal pain. Which of the following is least likely to cause pain?

A

Failure to penetrate the ameldodentinal junction

88
Q

In the course of making an upper master impression, some material may spread posteriorly onto the soft palate. Which reflex is most likely to be evoked as a result?

A

Gagging

89
Q

Which one of the following provides a plausible explanation for the observation that the maximum biting force generated between pairs of upper and lower teeth is greatest between the first permanent molars. Compared with other teeth, premolars have the:

A

Greatest root area

90
Q

The preparation of a cavity into the pulpal half of the dentine usually causes inflammatory responses in the pulp. Which one of the following responses would be the first one to occur?

A

Release of neuropeptides

91
Q

There are two basic types of cementum: acellular and cellular cementum. Which one of the following characteristics applies particularly to cellular cementum?

A

Present on the apical part of the tooth

92
Q

Which one of the following effects of etching will facilitate bonding of dental materials?

A

Exposes a greater surface area

93
Q

Which one of these teeth (FDI notation) is most likely to display a tubercle of Carabelli?

A

55

94
Q

Which cells associated with an erupting tooth gives rise to the junctional epithelium?

A

Reduced enamel epithelium

95
Q

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is an example of a:

A

Retrovirus

96
Q

A simple random sample of 5 year old Scottish children is drawn from this target population. Which of the following is not true?

A

As the sample size increases, the variability of the sample mean increases

97
Q

Which of the following is NOT an etiological factor for dental anxiety?

A

Having a high pain threshold

98
Q

Which of the following best describes the pulse in atrial fibrillation?

A

Irregular HR, an irregular pattern

99
Q

The Reed Sternberg Cell is pathogenic of:

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

100
Q

When designing a maxillary removable partial denture for a patient missing 11, 12, 13, 21, 22, 23, 25 and 26, how would you classify this using the Kennedy Classification?

A

Class III, mod 1

101
Q

Oral pigmentation can be associated with some forms of non-smoking related lung cancers. This is likely because:

A

ACTH is secreted by some lung cancers

102
Q

Approximately what portion of cancers are carcinomas?

A

90%

103
Q

Modern to advanced periodontitis affects what percentage of the adult population in western societies?

A

10-15%

104
Q

Which of the following is an indication for primary molar pulpotomy?

A

2/3 of marginal ridge breakdown in an asymptomatic tooth

105
Q

At what age would you expect a child to have full masticatory function?

A

2 years

2. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) (1 decks)

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