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Toxicology Questions > Summer 2015 > Flashcards

Summer 2015 Flashcards

1
Q

Antidotal (specific) treatment of inorganic arsenic toxicosis is:

a) Sodium thiosulfate orally
b) BAL (dimercaprol) IM
c) apomorphine SC
d) Acetylsysteine

A

b) BAL (dimercaprol) IM

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2
Q

Which of the following toxicoses in swine is generally similar to vitamin B complex deficiency?

a) Lead
b) Zinc
c) inorganic arsenic
d) organic arsenic
e) iron

A

d) organic arsenic

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3
Q

Inhibition of lipoic acid which results in inhibition of citric acid cycle is the mechanism of action of:

a) Zinc
b) trivalent arsenic
c) arsanilic acid
d) iron
e) copper

A

b) trivalent arsenic

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4
Q

Swine consuming feed containing high (10 ppm) levels of selenium over several weeks are likely to show clinical signs that would be very similar to which disease?

a) water deprivation/sodium ion toxicosis
b) arsanilic acid toxicosis
c) lead toxicosis
d) Pseudorabies
e) chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticide toxicosis

A

b) arsanilic acid toxicosis

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5
Q

The drug of choice for the treatment of acute anaphylactic shock due to iron toxicosis in piglets is:

a) isoproterenol
b) diphenyhdramine
c) promethazine
d) epinephrine
e) deferoxamine

A

d) epinephrine

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6
Q

Enlarged yellow liver, enlarged friable and hemorrhagic kidneys, enlarged black spleen, and re wine-colored urine are lesions MOST likely associated with:

a) inorganic arsenic toxicosis
b) lead toxicosis
c) acute copper toxicosis
d) chronic copper toxicosis
e) molybdenum toxicosis

A

d) chronic copper toxicosis

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7
Q

Chronic diarrhea, depigmentation, emaciation and lameness in cattle suggest toxicosis with:

a) inorganic arsenic
b) lead
c) molybdenum
d) copper
e) zinc

A

c) molybdenum

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8
Q

Methylene blue IV is the antidotal treatment for:

a) cyanide
b) soluble oxalate
c) 2,4-D
d) nitrate
e) paraquat

A

d) nitrate

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9
Q

Which of the following statements concerning hydrogen sulfide and cyanide is TRUE?

a) They are plant related toxins
b) They react with metals to form black or dark colored compounds in the GI tract
c) They are free of irritant effect
d) Sodium nitrite IV is useful in their treatment

A

d) Sodium nitrite IV is useful in their treatment

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10
Q

Clinical signs in cows suffering from milk fever are MOST similar to poisoning with which of the following toxicants in sheep?

a) fluoride
b) soluble oxalate
c) cyanide
d) nitrate
e) urea

A

b) soluble oxalate

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11
Q

The specimen of choice for nitrate poisoning in an animal that has been dead for several hours is:

a) rumen contents
b) plasma
c) blood
d) urine
e) ocular fluid

A

e) ocular fluid

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12
Q

Which of the following is LEAST effective in the treatment of poisoning by cyanogenic plants?

a) sodium nitrite IV
b) sodium thiosulfate IV
c) vinegar in cold water orally
d) activated charcoal orally
e) mineral oil orally

A

d) activated charcoal orally

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13
Q

The plant part that accumulates the HIGHEST amount of nitrate is:

a) leaves
b) stems
c) stalks
d) seeds
e) flowers

A

c) stalks

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14
Q

A toxicant that causes elevated thiocyanate levels in urine is:

a) cyanide
b) nitrate
c) oxalate
d) selenium
e) molybdenum

A

a) cyanide

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15
Q

Ingestion of a plant that has been sprayed with a 2,4-D herbicide may cause poisoning in livestock MAINLY because of accumulation of toxic levels of which of the following toxicants by the plant?

a) selenium
b) nitrate
c) soluble oxalates
d) all of the above

A

b) nitrate

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16
Q

A toxicant that causes very rapid death, has a characteristic odor, and causes bright red mucous membranes and cherry red blood is:

a) carbon monoxide
b) hydrogen sulfide
c) nitrate
d) urea
e) cyanide

A

e) cyanide

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17
Q

Signs of chronic cyanide poisoning in horses are MAINLY due to:

a) calcification of soft tissues
b) osteoporosis and abnormal bones
c) respiratory insufficiency
d) neuronal degeneration of spinal cord and brain
e) hyperthyroidism

A

d) neuronal degeneration of spinal cord and brain

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18
Q

Ingestion of kerosene is MOST likely to cause:

a) posterior paralysis
b) severe CNS depression
c) hemolysis and methemoglobinemia
d) severe aspiration pneumonia
e) bone abnormalities and osteoporosis

A

d) severe aspiration pneumonia

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19
Q

A reddish-brown gas that produces bronchial constriction and pulmonary edema is:

a) nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
b) hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
c) nitrous oxide (N2O)
d) hydrogen cyanide (HCN)
e) carbon monoxide (CO)

A

a) nitrogen dioxide (NO2)

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20
Q

Soluble oxalate poisoning is often associated with which plants:

a) Jimsonweed (Datura stramonium)
b) Halogeton (Halogeton glomeratus)
c) milkweed (Asclepias carassavia)
d) castor bean (Ricinus communis)

A

b) Halogeton (Halogeton glomeratus)

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21
Q

The plant that commonly causes cyanide poisoning is:

a) larkspur (Delphenium spp)
b) greasewood (Sarcobatus vermiculatus)
c) princess plume (Stanlyes spp)
d) halogeton (Halogeton spp)
e) wild cherry (Prunus spp)

A

c) princess plume (Sarcobatus vermiculatus)

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22
Q

Dogs poisoned by ingesting large amounts of chocolate will be expected to show which of the following clinical sign?

a) Posterior paralysis and constipation
b) CNS depression, skin rashes and oliguria
c) bleeding, vomiting, dehydration and shock
d) convulsions, tremors, tachycardia and urination
e) reddening of the skin, alopecia and lameness

A

d) convulsions, tremors, tachycardia and urination

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23
Q

which of the following plants is very toxic because it has a phytotoxin?

a) oleander (Nerium oleander)
b) castor bean (Ricinus communis)
c) marijuana (Cannabis sativa)
d) black nightshade (Solanum niger)

A

b) castor bean (Ricinus communis)

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24
Q

This extremely toxic plant initially causes abdominal pain and vomiting in monogastric animals, followed by digitalis-like effects. This plant is known as:

a) crotolaria (Crotolaria spp)
b) pigweed (Amaranthus retroflexus)
c) black nightshade (Solanum niger)
d) oleander (Nerium oleander)
e) cabbage (Brassica spp)

A

d) oleander (Nerium oleander)

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25
Q

Ragwort or senecio (Senecio spp) is a common plant in western Oregon and Washington that causes many losses in livestock MAINLY because it has this toxic principle:

a) belladonna alkaloids
b) pyrrolizidine alkaloids
c) cyanide
d) selenium
e) thiaminase

A

b) pyrrolizidine alkaloids

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26
Q

Sudden onset of signs of hepatic insufficiency such as weight loss, icterus, incoordination, head pressing, aimless wandering, walking in circles and other signs of mania, GI distress, tenesmus, are MAINLY signs due to ingestion of:

a) halogeton (Halogeton spp)
b) oleander (Nerium oleander)
c) ragwort (Senecio spp)
d) cottonseed (Gossypium spp)
e) pigweed (Amaranthus retroflexus)

A

c) ragwort (Senecio spp)

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27
Q

The toxic principles of which of the following poisonous plants act MAINLY by blocking nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction?

a) castor bean (Ricinus communis)
b) lily-of-the-valley (Convallaria majalis)
c) larkspur (Delphinium spp)
d) milkweed (Asclepias spp)

A

c) larkspur (Delphinium spp)

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28
Q

The toxic principle in day-blooming jessamine (Cestrum diurnum) is:

a) pyrrolizidine alkaloid
b) atropine
c) cardiotoxic glycoside
d) vitamin D analog
e) photodynamic substance

A

d) vitamin D analog

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29
Q

Caladium is a common house plant. Which of the following is the PRIMARY toxic principle in Caladium spp?

a) alkaloid
b) insoluble calcium oxalate
c) soluble calcium oxalate
d) glycoside
e) cyanide

A

b) insoluble calcium oxalate

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30
Q

Which of the following metals is MOST likely to cross the BBB?

a) iron
b) zinc
c) inorganic arsenic
d) organic arsenic
e) lead

A

e) lead

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31
Q

D-penicillamine is the chelating agent of choice for?

a) arsenic
b) copper
c) iron
d) molybdenum
e) all of the above

A

b) copper

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32
Q

Reduced cytochrome oxidase in cattle can be used as a diagnostic test in toxicosis with:

a) inorganic arsenic
b) lead
c) molybdenum
d) copper
e) selenium

A

c) molybdenum

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33
Q

Poisoning by which of the following toxicants is LEAST likely to cause convulsive seizures in cattle?

a) lead
b) urea
c) chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticides
d) nicotine
e) chronic selenium

A

e) chronic selenium

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34
Q

Which of the following is NOT effective in the treatment or prevention of chronic selenium toxicosis?

a) the addition of copper to diet
b) the addition of organic arsenicals to the diet
c) intramuscular injection of BAL
d) increasing the dietary level of sulfur-containing proteins

A

c) intramuscular injection of BAL

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35
Q

Poisoning by ingestion of seleniferous plants can be seen in the following states EXCEPT:

a) South Dakota
b) North Dakota
c) Montana
d) Wyoming
e) New York

A

e) New York

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36
Q

Chronic selenium in horses MAINLY causes:

a) hemolytic anemia
b) peripheral neurontoxicity
c) brain damage and signs of mania
d) hoof abnormalities and loss of hair
e) abnormal bone and teeth

A

d) hoof abnormalities and loss of hair

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37
Q

The specimen of choice to confirm a diagnosis of chronic fluoride poisoning in a live animal is:

a) feed
b) water
c) urine
d) bone
e) GI contents

A

c) urine

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38
Q

Carbamate and organophosphate pesticides have the following in common EXCEPT:

a) sources of poisoning are generally similar
b) both are lipid soluble and can penetrate intact skin
c) both can be activated by storage
d) both are quickly eliminated
e) both have clinical signs due to excess acetylcholine

A

c) both can be activated by storage

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39
Q

Decreased blood coagulability after exposure to anticoagulant rodenticides is MAINLY due to:

a) chelation of Ca2+
b) inhibition of platelet coagulation
c) stimulation of PGl2
d) decreased prothrombin and coagulation factors VII, IX and X
e) activation of fibrinolysis

A

d) decreased prothrombin and coagulation factors VII, IX and X

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40
Q

A toxicant that MOST likely causes calciferation of soft tissue is:

a) zinc phosphide
b) cholecalciferol
c) fluoroacetate
d) bromethalin
e) strychnine

A

b) cholecalciferol

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41
Q

Petroleum products of low boiling points, low viscosity and low surface tension generally have more pneumotoxic potential.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

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42
Q

Urea toxicosis in cattle is a common disease that is due to hydrolysis of urea to release ammonia which inhibits citric acid cycle resulting in CNS stimulation signs and muscle tremors that usually take several hours to develop.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

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43
Q

Fomepizole (4-methyl pyrazole) is used in treatment of ethylene glycol in dogs and cats by inhibiting alcohol dehydrogenase and is most effective within 3 hours from ingestion of ethylene glycol.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

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44
Q

A negative ethylene glycol test in cats does not mean that the cat has not been exposed to a toxic level of ethylene glycol.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

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45
Q

Chronic fluoride poisoning in cattle causes:

a) diarrhea, pale hair coat, lameness and hoof overgrowth
b) icterus, hemoglobinuria, and photosensitization
c) emaciation, hair loss, and lameness
d) rumen stasis, nephrosis, and constipation
e) lameness, exostoses, and excessive dental wear

A

e) lameness, exostoses, and excessive dental wear

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46
Q

Poisoning by which of the following plants may cause signs of vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency in monogastric animals?

a) wild cherry (Prunus spp)
b) soybean (Glycine spp)
c) horsetail (Equisetum hymenale)
d) oleander (Nerium oleander)

A

c) horsetail (Equisetum hymenale)

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47
Q

A selenium indicator plant which grows widely in western part of the US is:

a) chokecherry (Prunus spp)
b) Prince’s plume (Stanleya spp)
c) halogeton (Halogeton spp)
d) greasewood (Sarcobatus vermiculatus)
e) castor bean (Ricinus communis)

A

b) Prince’s plume (Stanleya spp)

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48
Q

The presence of an odor of rotten garlic in a fresh carcass is suggestive of acute toxicosis with:

a) molybdenum
b) iron
c) selenium
d) urea
e) nitrate

A

c) selenium

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49
Q

Poisoning by ingestion of seleniferous plants can be seen in the following states EXCEPT:

a) South Dakota
b) North Dakota
c) Montana
d) Wyoming
e) New York

A

e) New York

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50
Q

A dog was brought to the veterinary hospital showing the following signs: miosis, excessive salivation, vomiting, diarrhea, urination, muscle fasciculation, seizures and severe difficulty in breathing. The fist procedure that should be instituted is:

a) administration of atropine
b) administration of 2-PAM
c) IV fluid therapy
d) administration activated charcoal
e) artificial respiration

A

e) artificial respiration

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51
Q

The toxic agent MOST likely to produce degeneration of peripheral neurons is:

a) iron
b) arsanilic acid
c) lead
d) copper
e) zinc

A

b) arsanilic acid

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52
Q

Deferoxamine is the chelating agent of choice for:

a) lead
b) zinc
c) arsenic
d) iron
e) copper

A

d) iron

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53
Q

Clinical signs of subacute selenium toxicosis in pigs are generally similar to toxicosis with:

a) inorganic arsenic
b) arsanilic acid
c) lead
d) iron
e) sodium ion/water deprivation

A

b) arsanilic acid

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54
Q

Poisoning by ingestion of seleniferous plants can be seen in the following states EXCEPT:

a) South Dakota
b) North Dakota
c) Wyoming
d) Florida
e) Montana

A

d) Florida

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55
Q

Which of the following metal toxicoses causes inhibition of the activity of several enzymes in heme synthesis?

a) iron
b) zinc
c) inorganic arsenic
d) lead

A

d) lead

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56
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely a clinical sign of chronic copper toxicosis in sheep?

a) GI signs
b) jaundice
c) hemoglobinuria
d) methemoglobinemia
e) hemolysis

A

a) GI signs

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57
Q

The metal toxicosis LEAST likely to cause signs of gastroenteritis is:

a) lead
b) zinc
c) inorganic arsenic
d) organic arsenic feed additives
e) iron

A

d) oragnic arsenic feed additives

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58
Q

Lameness, hoof abnormalities, emaciation and loss of hair in cattle MOST likely suggest toxicosis with:

a) urea
b) monensin
c) soluble oxalates
d) acute selenium
e) chronic selenium

A

e) chronic selenium

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59
Q

Which of the following poisonous plants is MOST likely to produce a photodynamic substance that causes photosensitivity?

a) horsetail (Equisetum hymenale)
b) cottonseed (Gossypium spp)
c) johnsongrass (Sorghum spp)
d) St. Johnswort (Hypericum perforatum)
e) milkweed (Asclepias spp)

A

d) St. Johnswort (Hypericum perforatum)

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60
Q

Which of the following poisonous plants acts by a mechanism similar to vitamin D?

a) Day-blooming jessamine (Cestrum diurnum)
b) jimsonweed (Datura stramonium)
c) St. Johnswort (Hypericum perforatum)
d) monkshood (Aconitum spp)
e) johnsongrass (Sorghum spp)

A

a) Day-blooming jessamine (Cestrum diurnum)

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61
Q

Cyanide and hydrogen sulfide both:

a) are plant related toxicants
b) react with other metals to form black or dark colored compounds in the GI tract and may stain the tissues
c) cause sudden death mainly due to preventing tissue oxygen utilization
d) are free of irritant effects to mucous membranes
e) can cause tolerance in animals to their characteristic odors

A

c) cause sudden death mainly due to preventing tissue oxygen utilization

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62
Q

Chronic poisoning with which of the following is MOST likely to cause abortion in cattle due to decrease in progesterone production?

a) nitrate
b) cyanide
c) selenium
d) soluble oxalate

A

a) nitrate

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63
Q

Late clinical signs of ethylene glycol poisoning are PRIMARILY related to:

a) CNS depression
b) cardiovascular depression
c) acute renal failure
d) hepatic failure
e) peripheral neurotoxicity

A

c) acute renal failure

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64
Q

Which of the following serum parameters is LEAST likely to be elevated in urea toxicosis?

a) ammonia
b) blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c) glucose
d) pH
e) transaminases (ALT, AST)

A

d) pH

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65
Q

atropine is useful in the treatment of organophosphate toxicosis because it antagonizes all of the following effects EXCEPT:

a) miosis
b) excessive salivation
c) bradycardia
d) muscle fasciculation
e) GI hypermotility

A

d) muscle fasciculation

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66
Q

The first clinical signs in organophosphate poisoning are MAINLY due to:

a) CNS stimulation
b) neuromuscular blocks
c) muscarinic stimulation
d) ganglionic blockade
e) ganglionic stimulation

A

c) muscarinic stimulation

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67
Q

If the type of the anticoagulant rodenticide is unknown, duration of vitamin K1 treatment should be:

a) 3 days
b) 7 days
c) 10 days
d) 3-4 weeks

A

3-4 weeks

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68
Q

Toxicity of a new chemical is 3 mg/kg to lambs. If lambs eat 6% of their body weight, what will be the concentration of this chemical in ppm in feed for a lamb weighing 11 pounds?

a) 1 ppm
b) 5 ppm
c) 15 ppm
d) 50 ppm
e) 500 ppm

A

d) 50 ppm

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69
Q

You wish to prepare chlorhexidine disinfectant solution at 150 ppm. How much approximately do you need from chlorhexidine disinfectant solution 2% to add it to water to make 1 gallon of 150 ppm chlorhexidine solution?

a) 0.25 fl oz
b) 0.5 fl oz
c) 1 fl oz
d) 2 fl oz
e) 4 fl oz

A

c) 1 fl oz

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70
Q

Fomepizole (4-methyl pyrazole) is recommended as an antidote for both ethylene glycol and propylene glycol poisonings in dogs.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

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71
Q

Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant in-vivo and in-vitro by inhibiting vitamin K epoxide reductase inhibiting activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

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72
Q

Petroleum products of low boiling points, low viscosity and low surface tension generally have more pneumotoxic potential.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

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73
Q

Which of the following toxicants is MOST likely to be associated with elevation of citrate in the blood or kidney tissue?

a) carbamate
b) pyrethroids
c) zinc phosphide
d) fluoroacetate

A

d) fluoroacetate

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74
Q

A toxicant that has the folloiwng lesions in most species: gastroenteritis which may be hemorrhagic, pulmonary congestion and edema, congestion of liver and kidney, in addition to the odor of dead fish (acetylene odor) in the stomach may be poisoned with:

a) strychnine
b) pyrethroids
c) bromethalin
d) zinc phosphide

A

d) zinc phosphide

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75
Q

Which of the following rodenticides causes cerebral and spinal edema MAINLY by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation and inhibiting ATP?

a) cholecalciferol
b) zinc phosphide
c) strychnine
d) bromethalin

A

d) bromethalin

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76
Q

Which of the following are LEAST likely clinical signs of fluoroacetate (compound 1080) toxicosis in the horse?

a) colic, trembling and staggering
b) tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias and ventricular fibrillation
c) clonic-tonic convulsive seizures and opisthotonos
d) signs of respiratory insufficiency

A

c) clonic-tonic convulsive seizures and opisthotonos

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77
Q

Dipyridyl herbicides are plant hormones that change metabolism resulting in increasing toxicity of plants by improving plant palatibility and increasing toxic content:

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

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78
Q

Fomepizole (4-methyl pyrazole) is not recommended for treatment of ethylene glycol poisoning in cats because it causes methemoglobinemia and Heinz body anemia.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

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79
Q

A negative ethylene glycol test in cats means that the cat has not been exposed to a toxic level of ethylene glycol.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

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80
Q

The MOST sensitive species to ethylene glycol poisoning is:

a) dogs
b) cats
c) swine
d) poultry

A

b) cats

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81
Q

Acute renal failure as a result of ethylene glycol toxicosis usually occurs how long after ingestion in the dog?

a) 1-6 hours after ingestion
b) 6-12 hours after ingestion
c) 12-24 hours after ingestion
d) 24-72 hours after ingestion

A

d) 24-72 hours after ingestion

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82
Q

Adding 20% ferric chloride to urine sample results in purple color urine is used to detect the presence of which of the following toxicants in urine?

a) ethylene glycol
b) phenol
c) detergent
d) bleach

A

b) phenol

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83
Q

All of the following factors increase urea toxicity EXCEPT:

a) hepatic insufficiency
b) alkaline rumen pH
c) dehydration
d) high energy diet

A

d) high energy diet

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84
Q

Which of the following about clinical signs of urea toxicosis is LEAST accurate?

a) slow onset of clinical signs (24-48 hours)
b) nausea and salivation
c) muscle tremors and convulsive seizures
d) urination

A

a) slow onset of clinical signs (24-48 hours)

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85
Q

A feedlot steer that survived an overdose of monensin in the feed was found dead 3 weeks later. The MOST likely cause of death, if related to the monensin toxicosis is:

a) persistent depolarization and arrhythmias as a result of the sodium and calcium channel effects
b) pulmonary hypertension induced by the toxic cardiac changes caused by monensin
c) cardiac fibrosis and insufficiency as a result of cardiac muscle necrosis during acute monensin toxicosis
d) cardiac insufficiency because of monensin inhibition of sodium-potassium adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)

A

c) cardiac fibrosis and insufficiency as a result of cardiac muscle necrosis during acute monensin toxicosis

86
Q

Which of the following metal toxicosis causes inhibition of the activity of several enzymes in heme synthesis?

a) iron
b) zinc
c) inorganic arsenic
d) lead

A

d) lead

87
Q

The diagnosis of lead toxicosis in dogs is BEST established on the basis of:

a) symptoms of colic
b) encephalitic signs
c) blood levels of lead
d) occurrence of basophilic stippling of erythrocytes

A

c) blood levels of lead

88
Q

All of the following are clinical signs of arsanilic acid toxicosis in swine EXCEPT?

a) anorexia
b) incoordination and ataxia
c) partial paralysis
d) erythema and sensitivity to light in white-skin pigs

A

a) anorexia

89
Q

The MOST syscepticle animals to iron toxicosis are:

a) dogs and cats
b) cattle and sheep
c) pigs and dogs
d) horses and cattle

A

c) pigs and dogs

90
Q

Urea toxicosis is usually associated with rumen alkalosis which results in rumen hypermotility and sever colic.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

91
Q

Urea is commonly used in ruminants as a feed additive because it is an economical efficient source of protein and minerals such as sulfur and phosphorus.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

92
Q

What are the major symptoms of acute zinc toxicosis?

a) GI, CNS and muscular
b) GI, hematologic and renal
c) GI, hepatic and CNS
d) muscular, GI and hepatic

A

b) GI, hematologic and renal

93
Q

The dose which will produce alterations (hematologic, biochemical, pathologic or clinical) and administering twice this dose will result in lethality is called:

a) effective dose fifty (ED50)
b) lethal dose fifty (LD50)
c) the toxic dose low (TDL)
d) the toxic dose high (TDH)
e) maximum tolerated dose (MDT)

A

d) the toxic dose high (TDH)

94
Q

The amount of poison that under a specific set of conditions will result in detrimental biologic changes is called:

a) toxicant
b) toxicosis
c) hazard
d) LD50
e) toxicity

A

e) toxicity

95
Q

A compound that has LD50 of 100 mg/kg is considered:

a) practically non-toxic
b) slightly toxic
c) moderately toxic
d) highly toxic
e) extremely toxic

A

c) moderately toxic

96
Q

You want to add the growth promoter arsanilic acid to a pig feed at 550 ppm. The amount of arsanilic acid needed to 5 tons of pig feed is:

a) 1.5 kg
b) 2.5 kg
c) 5.0 kg
d) 10.5 kg
e) 15.0 kg

A

b) 2.5 kg

97
Q

If the toxic level of a drug in the feed is 50 ppm for 20 pound pig. Knowing that 20 pound pig eats 8% of body weight, the estimated toxicity on a mg/kg body weight basis will be:

a) 0.5 mg/bw
b) 2.0 mg/bw
c) 4.0 mg/bw
d) 5.0 mg/bw
e) 10.0 mg/bw

A

c) 4.0 mg/bw

98
Q

You wish to prepare chlorhexidine disinfectant solution at 150 ppm. How much approximately do you need from chlorhexidine dinsinfectant solution 2% to add it to water to make 1 gallon of 150 ppm chlorhexidine solution?

a) 0.25 fl oz
b) 0.5 fl oz
c) 1 fl oz
d) 2 fl oz
e) 4 fl oz

A

c) 1 fl oz

99
Q

Toxicity of a new chemical to piglets in 5 mg/kg body weight. In chemical analysis report the level is 250 ppm. Knowing that piglets eat 8% of their body weight, the calculated level of the new chemical in feed is:

a) more than the level in the report
b) the same level as in the report
c) one-quarter of the level in the report
d) one-third of the level in the report
e) one-half of the level in the report

A

c) one-quarter of the level in the report

100
Q

You want to make 150 mL of 8% ethanol to treat a case of ethylene glycol poisoning, how many mL of 95% ethanol do you used to complete to 150 mL with distilled water?

a) 5.2 mL
b) 6.3 mL
c) 10.5 mL
d) 12.6 mL
e) 15.0 mL

A

d) 12.6 mL

101
Q

A blood lead concentration reported as 90 mg/dL is equal to:

a) 900 ppm
b) 90 ppm
c) 9 ppm
d) 0.9 ppm
e) 0.09 ppm

A

a) 900 ppm

102
Q

Acceptable residue level of a drug in cow’s milk is 5 ppb. The concentration of this drug in milk from a cow treated by this drug is 160 ppb. The half-life of elimination is 5 days. How long would you recommend the milk form this cow to bee withheld if elimination of this drug follows first-order kinetics?

a) 10 days
b) 25 days
c) 50 days
d) 100 days
e) 200 days

A

b) 25 days

103
Q

A toxicant that is metabolized by oxidative enzymes has a faster rate of metabolism in:

a) dogs
b) cats
c) cattle
d) fish
e) birds

A

c) cattle

104
Q

In submitting specimens to the toxicology laboratory for diagnosis, which of the folloiwng statements is LEAST accurate?

a) Tissue specimens should be frozen
b) Tissues can be preserved in 10% formalin for histopatholocial examination, in certain cases
c) Whole blood samples should be frozen
d) Specimens should be taken free of debris and chemical contamination

A

c) Whole blood samples should be frozen

105
Q

The PREFERRED method of preserving tissues for chemical analysis is:

a) alcohol fixation
b) drying
c) formalin fixation
d) freezing
e) heating

A

d) freezing

106
Q

Activated charcoal is LEAST likely to be an effective adsorbent to:

a) insecticides
b) alkaloids
c) bacterial toxins
d) glycosides
e) cyanide

A

e) cyanide

107
Q

After absorption and distribution, organophosphate pesticides have the HIGHEST concentration in the:

a) liver
b) kidney
c) heart
d) brain
e) none of the above

A

e) none of the above

108
Q

Which of the following insecticides is less toxic to young calves (30-day old) than adult cattle?

a) dichlorvos
b) methhoxychlor
c) lindane
d) parathion
e) pyrethrin

A

d) parathion

109
Q

Which are the MOST long-lasting insecticides in the environment?

a) carbamates
b) pyrethrins
c) chlorinated hydrocarbons
d) organophosphates
e) amitraz

A

c) chlorinated hydrocarbons

110
Q

Which of the following clinical signs would be LEAST expected with carbamate insecticide toxicosis in a Hereford heifer?

a) convulsive seizure
b) muscle tremors
c) miosis
d) diarrhea
e) dyspnea

A

a) convulsive seizure

111
Q

What is the BEST sample to submit to a toxicology laboratory to help confirm a diagnosis of organophosphate in a live cow?

a) serum
b) urine
c) brain
d) whole blood

A

d) whole blood

112
Q

What is the BEST sample from a dead cat to submit to a toxicology laboratory to help confirm a diagnosis of toxicosis from chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticide?

a) kidney
b) body fat
c) brain
d) serum
e) urine

A

c) brain

113
Q

Which of the following insecticides causes cardiovascular collapse and respiratory depression MAINLY as an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist?

a) pyrethroids
b) amitraz
c) rotenone
d) d-limonene
e) nicotine

A

b) amitraz

114
Q

Which of the following agents should NOT be added to gastric lavage in a dog poisoned with strychnine?

a) ammonium chloride
b) tincture of iodine
c) potassium permanganate
d) activated charcoal
e) sodium bicarbonate

A

e) sodium bicarbonate

115
Q

The rodenticide that is characterized by acetylene odor is:

a) warfarin
b) cholecalciferol
c) zinc phosphide
d) strychnine
e) bromethalin

A

c) zinc phosphide

116
Q

All of the following drugs can be used to control the CNS effects of strychnine EXCEPT:

a) barbiturate
b) benzodiazepines
c) phenothiazines
d) xylazine
e) guaifenesin

A

c) phenothiazines

117
Q

All of the following drugs can be used to control the CNS effects of strychnine EXCEPT:

a) phenylbutazone
b) aspirin
c) heparin
d) phenobarbital
e) chloramphenicol

A

d) phenobarbital

118
Q

An immediate reversal of the anticoagulant effect of warfarin rodenticides can be produced by intravenous:

a) injection of protamine sulfate
b) injection of menadione (vitamin K3)
c) injection of phytonadione (vitamin K1)
d) infusion of whole fresh blood
e) injection of calcium gluconate

A

d) infusion of whole fresh blood

119
Q

Vitamin D3 rodenticide toxicosis is associated with:

a) hypercalcemia
b) hyperphosphatemia
c) hyperkalemia
d) all of the above
e) a and b

A

e) a and b

120
Q

Carbamate and organophosphate pesticides have the following in common EXCEPT:

a) sources of poisoning are generally similar
b) both are lipid soluble and can penetrate the intact skin
c) both can be activated by storage
d) both are quickly eliminated
e) both have clinical signs due to excess acetylcholine

A

c) both can be activated by storage

121
Q

Urea toxicosis is MAINLY due to:

a) accumulation of ammonia metabolite
b) direct effect on rumen microflora
c) direct stimulation of urea on the precursor of urease enzyme
d) depletion of ammonia metabolite
e) all of the above are correct

A

a) accumulation of ammonia metabolite

122
Q

Which of the following statements about paraquat is LEAST accurate?

a) It is caustic to mucous membranes
b) It is inactivated by soil and light
c) Its toxicity is enhanced by selenium/vitamin E
d) It binds strongly to soil
e) Oxygen therapy is used in severe cases

A

e) Oxygen therapy is used in severe cases

123
Q

Early death in metaldehyde toxicosis is MAINLY due to:

a) heart failure
b) cardiovascular collapse due to severe dehydration
c) respiratory failure
d) liver failure
e) all of the above

A

c) respiratory failure

124
Q

The MOST required specimen for chemical analysis in metaldehyde toxicosis is:

a) liver
b) kidney
c) heparinized blood
d) stomach contents
e) brain

A

d) stomach contents

125
Q

Less toxic to young calves (30 days old) than adult cattle is:

a) urea
b) monensin
c) sodium ion/water deprivation
d) lead
e) 2,4-D

A

a) urea

126
Q

Which of the following toxicants is MOST likely to cause degeneration and pale areas in the myocardium and skeletal muscles, as well as damage in liver and kidney in most species?

a) organophosphate
b) sodium ion/water deprivation
c) monensin
d) urea
e) none of the above

A

c) monensin

127
Q

What is the combination of blood chemistry which BEST characterizes urea (NPN) toxicosis in ruminants?

a) acidosis, hyperkalemia, hyperglycemia and elevated BUN
b) acidosis, hypoglycemia, normal BUN and hypokalemia
c) alkalosis, elevated BUN, hypokalemia and hypoglycemia
d) alkalosis, normal BUN, hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia

A

a) acidosis, hyperkalemia, hyperglycemia and elevated BUN

128
Q

The clinical signs associated with water deprivation/sodium ion toxicosis in swine are thought to be MAINLY caused by:

a) elevated sodium in the neurons
b) elevated sodium in the plasma
c) eosinophilic perivascular cuffing
d) cerebral edema and overhydration of nerve cells
e) focal bilateral malacia of the spinal cord

A

d) cerebral edema and overhydration of nerve cells

129
Q

Species MOST sensitive to phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D herbicides):

a) cattle
b) sheep
c) horses
d) dogs
e) cats

A

d) dogs

130
Q

A toxicant which may cause signs in the horse similar to a human having a heart attach (tachycardia with possible arrhythmias, prominent, jugular pulse, cold extremities, profuse sweating, fear, incoordination) is:

a) urea
b) monensin
c) lead
d) inorganic arsenic
e) chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticides

A

b) monensin

131
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely a clinicopathologic change in ethylene glycol poisoning?

a) hypercreatinemia
b) hyperphosphatemia
c) hyperkalemia
d) systemic alkalosis
e) high serum urea nitrogen (SUN)

A

d) systemic alkalosis

132
Q

Which of the following statements about fomepizole (4-methyl pyrazole) is LEAST accurate?

a) It is a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase
b) It is used as antidote for ethylene glycol poisoning in dogs and cats
c) It inhibits formation of toxic metabolites
d) It is most effective within 3 hours of ethylene glycol ingestion
e) It does not increase serum osmolality or depress the CNS at recommended doses

A

?

133
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning toxicokinetics of lead?

a) It is only absorbed from the GI tract, and most of the ingested lead is absorbed by active transport
b) Most of the absorbed lead is free in plasma ad is rapidly distributed to other tissues, but not the CNS
c) The main organ of storage is the liver
d) It crosses the placenta and is excreted in milk in dangerous concentrations
e) It is rapidly eliminated from the body

A

d) It crosses the placenta and is excreted in milk in dangerous concentrations

134
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely a source of led toxicosis in cattle?

a) insecticide
b) storage batteries
c) contaminated pastures
d) paint
e) none of the above

A

a) insecticide

135
Q

which on e of the following is NOT a likely clinical feature of lead toxicosis in cattle?

a) blindness
b) anorexia
c) hemorrhagic diarrhea
d) rumen atony
e) convulsive seizures

A

c) hemorrhagic diarrhea

136
Q

What is the sample of choice for detection of lead to submit to a laboratory to help confirm toxicosis in a puppy?

a) vomitus
b) serum
c) urine
d) whole blood
e) toe nails

A

d) whole blood

137
Q

Which of the following are LEAST likely clinical signs of acute inorganic arsenic toxicosis?

a) Onset is rapid and the course of disease is rapid
b) profuse watery diarrhea sometimes tinged with blood
c) severe colic, dehydration and weakness
d) prominent nervous signs including excitement and convulsions
e) sudden death in peracute cases

A

d) prominent nervous signs including excitement and convulsions

138
Q

The metal toxicosis LEAST likely to cause signs of gastroenteritis is:

a) lead
b) zinc
c) inorganic arsenic
d) organic arsenic feed additives
e) iron

A

d) organic arsenic feed additives

139
Q

Decreased hepatic copper may be used in the laboratory diagnosis of chronic toxicosis with:

a) lead
b) zinc
c) inorganic arsenic
d) organic arsenic
e) none of the above

A

b) zinc

140
Q

All of the following are clinical signs of arsanilic acid toxicosis in swine EXCEPT:

a) anorexia
b) incoordination and ataxia
c) partial paralysis
d) erythema and sensitivity to light in white-skin pigs
e) blindness

A

a) anorexia

141
Q

The specimen of choice to confirm a diagnosis of iron toxicosis in a live animal is:

a) blood
b) serum
c) urine
d) milk
e) liver biopsy

A

b) serum

142
Q

What percentage of zinc is approximately absorbed from the GI tract?

a) less than 5%
b) 5-10%
c) 10-20%
d) 20-30%
e) more than 50%

A

d) 20-30%

143
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used in the treatment of iron toxicosis?

a) epinephrine
b) fluid therapy
c) sodium bicarbonate
d) activated charcoal
e) magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia)

A

d) activated charcoal

144
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause hemolytic anemia?

a) naphthalene
b) zinc
c) onion
d) copper
e) lead

A

?

145
Q

2-PAM is used for the treatment of:

a) carbamate poisoning
b) organophosphate poisoning
c) rotenone poisoning
d) DEET exposure

A

b) organophosphate poisoning

146
Q

Toxicity of a new chemical is 3 mg/kg to lambs. If lambs eat 6% of their body weight, what will be the concentration of this chemical in ppm in the feed of a lamb weighing 50 lbs?

a) 1 ppm
b) 5 ppm
c) 50 ppm
d) 500 ppm

A

c) 50 ppm

147
Q

Toxicosis may be defined as:

a) poison from a biological process
b) substance when applied or introduced to the body may interfere with life processes
c) chemical illness caused by a foreign compound
d) substance that will kill you

A

c) chemical illness caused by a foreign compound

148
Q

The most common conjugation reaction is:

a) oxidation
b) glucuronidation
c) hydrolysis
d) phosphorylation

A

b) glucuronidation

149
Q

To help confirm diagnosis of organ poisoning in a dead Angus steer, you should look for the parent compound in which specimen?

a) rumen contents
b) brain
c) whole blood
d) liver

A

a) rumen contents

150
Q

Activated charcoal is least likely to be an effective absorbent to:

a) insecticides
b) alkaloids
c) ammonia
d) rodenticide

A

c) ammonia

151
Q

The effect of a toxicant by daily exposure from day one to day 30 is described as:

a) acute toxicosis
b) subacute toxicosis
c) sub-chronic toxicosis
d) chronic toxicosis

A

b) subacute toxicosis

152
Q

Differential diagnosis of fluoroacetate (1080) toxicosis in dogs should include all of the following toxicosis EXCEPT:

a) strychnine
b) zinc phosphate
c) chlorinated hydrocarbons
d) D-limonene

A

d) D-limonene

153
Q

Which of the following insecticides is converted to a metabolite that is a potent cholinesterase inhibitor?

a) dichlorvos
b) lindane
c) methoxychlor
d) parathion

A

d) parathion

154
Q

Most common cause of toxicosis in animals is:

a) veterinary drugs
b) poisonous minerals
c) poisonous plants
d) pesticides

A

d) pesticides

155
Q

Which of the following statements about cytochrome p450 enzyme is LEAST likely to be true:

a) they are found in smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b) they cause termination of action of most toxicants
c) they cause activation of some toxicants
d) they always change toxicant to a more lipid soluble product

A

d) they always change toxicant to a more lipid soluble product

156
Q

You want to dispense 1 gallon of insecticide at a concentration of 10,000 ppm of an active organophosphate. How many ounces of the organophosphate concentrate do you add per gallon of water?

a) 0.5 oz
b) 1.0 oz
c) 1.3 oz
d) 1.8 oz

A

c) 1.3 oz

157
Q

Glycerol monoacetate (Monacetin) is an antidote for:

a) pyrethroid
b) rotenone
c) fluoroacetate
d) zinc phosphide

A

c) fluoroacetate

158
Q

You wish to prepare 1 gallon of 0.1% of rodenticide. How much would you need from a stock that is a 1/25 ratio?

a) 9.0 mL
b) 3.3 mL
c) 5.2 mL
d) 1.0 mL

A

b) 3.3 mL

159
Q

The lead concentration reported in a blood sample was 50 mg%. This is equal to:

a) 0.5 ppm
b) 5.0 ppm
c) 50 ppm
d) 500 ppm

A

d) 500 ppm

160
Q

A compound that has an LD50 of 3 g/kg is considered:

a) practically non-toxic
b) slightly toxic
c) moderately toxic
d) highly toxic

A

b) slightly toxic

161
Q

The “knock down” effect is used to describe the action of which of the following insecticides:

a) organophosphates
b) carbamate
c) pyrethrins
d) amitraz

A

c) pyrethrins

162
Q

As a rule of thumb, 100 g/ton of a toxicant in a feed is pretty much equivalent to 110 ppm of the toxicant in the feed.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

163
Q

80 ug/100 mL is equivalent to 0.08 mg/100 mL, which is equivalent to:

a) 0.08 mg%
b) 0.8 mg%
c) 0.8 mg%
d) 8 mg%

A

a) 0.08 mg%

164
Q

The preferred medication medication for initial control of seizures in a dog with an unknown intoxicant would be:

a) pentobarbital
b) phenobarbital
c) diazepam
d) phenothiazine tranquilizer

A

c) diazepam

165
Q

Which of the following toxicants causes toxicosis MAINLY by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation?

a) Paraquat
b) sodium fluoroacetate
c) pentachlorophenol
d) metaldehyde

A

c) pentachlorophenol

166
Q

Species MOST sensitive to phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D herbicides):

a) Cattle
b) Sheep
c) Horses
d) Dogs

A

d) Dogs

167
Q

Which of the following serum or blood parameters is LEAST likely to be elevated in urea toxicosis?

a) ammonia
b) blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c) glucose
d) pH

A

d) pH

168
Q

The MOST likely pathognomonic evidence of water deprivation/sodium ion toxicosis in swine is:

a) history of feeding sodium at 5%
b) clinical signs of intermittent convulsive seizures
c) eosinophilic meningoencephalitis
d) prominent cerebral edema

A

c) eosinophilic meningoencephalitis

169
Q

Which of the following clinicopathologic parameters is LEAST likely to be elevated in a horse poisoned with monensin?

a) lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)
b) alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
c) creatine phosphokinase (CPK)
d) calcium

A

d) calcium

170
Q

Acute renal failure as a result of ethylene glycol toxicosis usually occurs how long after ingestion in the cat?

a) 12-24 hours after ingestion
b) 36-72 hours after ingestion
c) 5 days after ingestion
d) this rarely, if ever, happens in the cat

A

a) 12-24 hours after ingestion

171
Q

Ingestion of which of the following toxicants is MOST likely to cause Heinz body anemia in cats?

a) ethylene glycol
b) ethanol
c) propylene glycol
d) bleach

A

c) propylene glycol

172
Q

Hypothermia may be one of the clinical signs in acute toxicosis with:

a) metaldehyde
b) pentachlorophenol (PCP)
c) ethylene glycol
d) urea

A

c) ethylene glycol

173
Q

The recommended chelating agent for lead toxicosis in pet birds is:

a) calcium disodium EDTA
b) BAL (dimercaprol)
c) d-penicillamine
d) dimercaptosuccinic acid (succimer)

A

d) dimercaptosuccinic acid (succimer)

174
Q

All of the following decrease GI absorption of lead EXCEPT:

a) zinc
b) protein
c) acidity
d) calcium

A

c) acidity

175
Q

The diagnosis of lead toxicosis in dogs is BEST established on the basis of:

a) symptoms of colic
b) encephalitic signs
c) blood levels of lead
d) the occurrence of basophilic stippling of erythrocytes

A

c) blood levels of lead

176
Q

All of the following are clinical signs of arsanilic acid toxicosis in swine EXCEPT:

a) anorexia
b) incoordination and ataxia
c) partial paralysis
d) erythema and sensitivity to light in white-skin pigs

A

a) anorexia

177
Q

Hematologic signs including hemolytic anemia, icterus and hemoglobinuria are MOST likely seen in which of the following toxicosis?

a) metaldehyde
b) paraquat
c) zinc
d) 2,4-D

A

c) zinc

178
Q

A dog showing gastrointestinal signs followed by a phase of apparent recovery, which deteriorates into multi-organ failure is MOST likely poisoned with oral:

a) lead
b) inorganic arsenic
c) zinc
d) iron

A

d) iron

179
Q

The BEST antemortem specimen for chemical analysis of inorganic arsenic in inorganic arsenic poisoning is:

a) urine
b) blood
c) serum
d) plasma

A

a) urine

180
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely a clinical sign of marine toad (Bufo marinus) intoxication?

a) foaming of the mouth
b) seizures
c) tachycardia or bradycardia
d) hemolysis

A

d) hemolysis

181
Q

Cationic detergents (quaternary ammonium compounds) are more toxic than anionic detergents, while non-ionic detergents are relatively non-toxic:

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

182
Q

A negative ethylene glycol test in cats means that the cat has not been exposed to a toxic level of ethylene glycol:

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

183
Q

Metaldehyde toxicosis is associated with prominent nervous signs and convulsive seizures which are NOT elicitable by external stimuli in:

a) cattle
b) sheep
c) swine
d) cats
e) dogs

A

e) dogs

184
Q

Which of the following toxicoses is MOST likely to be associated with formaldehyde odor in stomach contents during postmortem examination?

a) metaldehyde
b) carbamate
c) paraquat
d) ethylene glycol

A

a) metaldehyde

185
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely concerning paraquat toxicosis?

a) Generally, onset of clinical signs is rapid
b) Signs in dogs and cats include vomiting, CNS depression and severe dyspnea
c) Lesions include pulmonary edema, congestion and hemorrhage, and may be lingual ulcers
d) Death is due to difficulty in gaseous exchange resulting from lung damage
e) Oxygen is generally contraindicated in treatment of toxicosis

A

a) Generally, onset of clinical signs is rapid

186
Q

The adsorbent of choice for paraquat is:

a) activated charcoal
b) Fuller’s earth or bentonite
c) magnesium trisilicate
d) bismuth subsalicylate
e) pectin

A

b) Fuller’s earth or bentonite

187
Q

The toxicant in which acute toxicosis causes signs of rapid overheating and respiratory distress; and lesions of rapid rigor mortis and dark blood is:

a) 2,4-D
b) paraquat
c) pentachlorophenol (PCP)
d) organophosphate
e) ethylene glycol

A

c) pentachlorophenol (PCP)

188
Q

Which of the following NPN sources is MOST toxic?

a) ammonium sulfate
b) ammonium chloride
c) ammonium phosphate
d) biuret
e) urea

A

e) urea

189
Q

Feeding of urea as a source of inexpensive protein supplementation in cattle rations has become generally accepted. This is try in spite of the highly toxic effects occasionally encountered. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a) Urea contains no protein as such but is broken down by rumen microflora to ammonia which is then utilized by the rumen microflora to form cellular protein which is utilized by the host
b) Chronic urea toxicosis leads to weight loss and poor performance
c) Urea toxicosis results most often from overfeeding, inadequate mixing, exposures to the concentrated premix and is therefore a very uncommon occurrence in USA
d) Urea toxicosis produces all of the following postmortem findings: gastroenteritis, pneumonia, nephritis, hepatitis and methemoglobinemia
e) Urea toxicosis in mature cattle is treated by administration via stomach tube of 1 gallon of 5% kerosene to stop the production of ammonia

A

a) Urea contains no protein as such but is broken down by rumen microflora to ammonia which is then utilized by the rumen microflora to form cellular protein which is utilized by the host

190
Q

A toxicant which may cause signs in the horse similar to a human having a heart attack (tachycardia with possible arrhythmias, prominent jugular pulse, cold extremities, profuse sweating, fear, incoordination) is:

a) urea
b) monensin
c) lead
d) inorganic arsenic

A

b) monensin

191
Q

Assuming rapid chemical analysis, sample preservation is MOST essential to making diagnosis of:

a) organophosphate
b) urea
c) lead
d) monensin
e) metaldehyde

A

b) urea

192
Q

The MOST likely cause of delayed death in ethylene glycol toxicosis is:

a) anaphylactic shock
b) cardiac arrest
c) renal failure
d) hemolytic anemia
e) respiratory failure due to convulsive seizures

A

c) renal failure

193
Q

Which of the following toxicants is LEAST likely to cause systemic acidosis?

a) metaldehyde
b) zinc phosphide
c) pentachlorophenol
d) propylene glycol

A

d) propylene glycol

194
Q

Which of the following statements about ethylene glycol toxicosis is TRUE?

a) Ethylene glycol is metabolized by hydrolysis to non-toxic metabolites
b) Ethylene glycol is less toxic than propylene glycol in dogs
c) A characteristic microscopic lesion is the presence of birefringent calcium oxalate crystal in the kidney or urine
d) It does not cross the BBB

A

c) A characteristic microscopic lesion is the presence of birefringent calcium oxalate crystals in the kidney or urine

195
Q

Which of the following statements about the use of ethanol in the treatment of ethylene glycol poisoning is LEAST accurate?

a) It has a higher affinity for alcohol dehydrogenase than ethylene glycol
b) It is effective in both dogs and cats
c) It does not have adverse effects at recommended doses
d) It is most effective within 3 hours of ethylene glycol ingestion
e) It is not used after 24 hours of ethylene glycol ingestion

A

c) It does not have adverse effects at recommended doses

196
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used in the treatment of phenols poisoning?

a) emetics
b) milk, egg white or water
c) activated charcoal
d) saline cathartics
e) decontamination of the skin with polyethylene glycol, glycerol or liquid dish soap

A

a) emetics

197
Q

Which of the following metal toxicosis causes inhibition of the activity of several enzymes in heme synthesis?

a) iron
b) zinc
c) inorganic arsenic
d) lead

A

d) lead

198
Q

Calcium disodium EDTA:

a) is most effective when administered orally
b) distributes in total body water
c) enhances urinary lead excretion
d) produces hypocalcemia tetany
e) has a wide safety margin

A

c) enhances urinary lead excretion

199
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely a source of lead toxicosis in cattle?

a) paint
b) storage batteries
c) contaminated pasture
d) used motor oil
e) none of the above

A

d) used motor oil

200
Q

Generally, which toxicosis has the quickest onset of clinical signs?

a) lead
b) zinc
c) organic arsenic
d) inorganic arsenic
e) molybdenum

A

c) organic arsenic

201
Q

Which of the following concerning treatment of inorganic arsenic toxicosis is LEAST likely?

a) fluids and electrolytes for dehydration
b) emetics and mineral oil for decontamination
c) demulcents to protest the GI mucosa
d) BAL (dimercaprol) as a chelating agent
e) sodium bicarbonate for systemic acidosis

A

b) emetics and mineral oil for decontamination

202
Q

Signs of roxarsone toxicosis in swine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) decreased weight gain
b) motor incoordination and posterior paralysis
c) blindness
d) good appetite

A

c) blindness

203
Q

The toxic agent MOST likely to produce degeneration of peripheral neuron is:

a) arsenic trioxide
b) arsanilic acid
c) lead
d) copper
e) molybdenum

A

b) arsanilic acid

204
Q

The specimen of choice to submit to a laboratory to confirm a diagnosis of organic arsenic is:

a) liver
b) kidney
c) whole blood
d) feed
e) water

A

d) feed

205
Q

Hematologic signs including hemolytic anemia, icterus and hemoglobinuria are MOST likely seen in which of the following toxicoses?

a) metaldehyde
b) paraquat
c) zinc
d) 2,4-d
e) urea

A

c) zinc

206
Q

Which of the following specimens is LEAST likely to be useful for chemical analysis of zinc?

a) blood
b) serum
c) urine
d) liver
e) kidney

A

a) blood

207
Q

D-penicillamine is the chelating agent of choice for:

a) arsenic
b) copper
c) iron
d) molybdenum
e) all of the above

A

b) copper

208
Q

A toxicant that has the following lesions in most species: gastroenteritis which may be hemorrhagic, pulmonary congestion and edema, congestion of liver and kidney, in addition to the odor of dead fish (acetylene odor) in the stomach may be poisoned with:

a) strychnine
b) pyrethroids
c) bromethalin
d) zinc phosphide

A

d) zinc phosphide

209
Q

Which of the following drugs would you used to reduce brain swelling due to toxicosis in animals?

a) aspirin
b) diazepam
c) morphine
d) glucocorticoid

A

d) glucocorticoid

210
Q

The MOST sensitive animals to fluoroacetate toxicosis are:

a) dogs
b) cattle
c) horses
d) sheep

A

a) dogs

Toxicology Questions (1 decks)

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