Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Human Structure > Summative Two Concepts > Flashcards

Summative Two Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

What 2 muscles and 1 bone make up the boundaries of the posterior triangle?

A

Trapezius, Sternocleidomastoid, and Clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The _________ muscles separate the posterior triangle into a occipital triangle and a supraclavicular triangle.

A

The OMOHYOID muscles separate the posterior triangle into a occipital triangle and a supraclavicular triangle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The ______ and ________ of the brachial plexus are located between the anterior and middle scalene muscles.

A

The ROOTS and TRUNKS of the brachial plexus are located between the anterior and middle scalene muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The interscalene triangle holds the _____ of the ____ ____(nerves) and the ___________ artery.

A

The interscalene triangle holds the ROOTS of the BRACHIAL PLEXUS (nerves) and the SUBCLAVIAN artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The _____ of the axilla is in the posterior triangle of the neck.

A

The APEX of the axilla is in the posterior triangle of the neck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Four muscles of the posterior wall of the axilla:

A

Subscapularis, lattismus dorsi, teres major, long head of triceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What bone makes up the lateral wall of the axilla?

A

Humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Three muscles of the anterior wall of the axilla:

A

Pectoralis major, pectoralis minor & subclavius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Muscle of the medial wall of the axilla:

A

Serratus Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Contents of the axilla:

A

Axillary A, Cords of Brachial Plexus & Deep Veins of the Upper Limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Injury of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus will result in:

A

Waiter’s Tip Hand

(diving into a shallow pool)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Injury of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus will result in:

A

Claw hand deformity

(dangling on tree limb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_______/______ in an ultrasound looks hypo echoic (____).

A

BLOOD/FLUID in an ultrasound looks hypo echoic (dark)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

______ look heterogenous in an ultrasound.

A

MUSCLES look heterogenous in an ultrasound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

________ look either hyper echoic or hypo echoic in an ultrasound.

A

NERVES look either hyper echoic or hypo echoic in an ultrasound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_______ looks hyper echoic in an ultrasound. ____ reflective.

A

FASCIA looks hyper echoic in an ultrasound. HIGHLY reflective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_____ on an ultrasound looks hyper echoic with shadowing. Also ________ reflective.

A

BONE on an ultrasound looks hyper echoic with shadowing. Also HIGHLY reflective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An ________ nerve block blocks the roots of the brachial plexus.

A

An INTERSCALENE nerve block blocks the roots of the brachial plexus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A __________ nerve block blocks the trunks of the brachial plexus.

A

A SUPRACLAVICULAR nerve block blocks the trunks of the brachial plexus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An ________ nerve block blocks the cords of the brachial plexus.

A

An INFRACLAVICULAR nerve block blocks the cords of the brachial plexus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An ________ nerve block blocks the branches of the brachial plexus.

A

An AXILLARY nerve block blocks the branches of the brachial plexus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Interscalene nerve blocks:
Looks like a _________. Found between the ______ and _______ _____ muscles.

A

Interscalene nerve blocks:
Looks like a STOPLIGHT or SNOWMAN. Found between the ANTERIOR and MIDDLE SCALENE muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An inter-scalene block also blocks what nerve?

Why does this matter?

A

Phrenic nerve,

Results in hemidiaphragmic paralysis - important because you don’t want to give this block to someone who already has trouble breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Innervation of Pec Major:

A

Medial and Lateral Pectoral Nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Innervation of Pec Minor:

A

Medial Pectoral Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Innervation of Serratus Anterior:

A

Long Thoracic Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Innervation of Trapezius:

A

Spinal Accessory Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Innervation of Latissimus Dorsi:

A

Thoracodorsal Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Innervation of Levator Scapulae:

A

Dorsal Scapular Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Innervation of Rhomboid Minor:

A

Dorsal Scapular Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Innervation of Rhomboid Major:

A

Dorsal Scapular Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Innervation of Deltoid:

A

Axillary Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Innervation of Supraspinatus:

A

Suprascapular Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Innervation of Infraspinatus:

A

Suprascapular Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Innervation of Teres Minor:

A

Axillary Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Innervation of Teres Major:

A

Lower Subscapular Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Innervation of Subscapularis:

A

Upper and Lower Subscapular Nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Innervation of Biceps Brachii:

A

Musculocutaneous Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Innervation of Coracobrachialis:

A

Musculocutaneous Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Innervation of Brachialis:

A

Musculocutaneous Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Innervation of Triceps Brachii:

A

Radial Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The radial nerve is a branch of the ______ cord. It runs through the ______ ______ and then runs down the ______ _____ of the humerus.

A

The radial nerve is a branch of the POSTERIOR cord. It runs through the TRIANGULAR INTERVAL and then runs down the RADIAL GROOVE of the humerus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The axillary nerve is a branch of the _______ cord. It runs through the _______ _____, then wraps around the ________ ______ of the humerus. It also gives off the ______ ______ _____ _____ nerve.

A

The axillary nerve is a branch of the POSTERIOR cord. It runs through the QUADRANGULAR SPACE, then wraps around the SURGICAL NECK of the humerus. It also gives off the SUPERIOR LATERAL BRACHIAL CUTANEOUS nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The musculocutaneous nerve come from the ______ cord. It pierces the __________ muscle then runs between the ______ muscle and ________ ______ muscles. It will later become the ________ __________ ________ nerve.

A

The musculocutaneous nerve come from the LATERAL cord. It pierces the CORACOBRACHIALIS muscle then runs between the BRACHIALIS muscle and BICEPS BRACHII muscles. It will later become the LATERAL ANTE BRACHIAL CUTANEOUS nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Supra scapular nerve is a branch of the _______ trunk. It passes through the _____ ____. It then passes ______ to the transverse scapular ligament, then passes through the _______ _____.

A

Supra scapular nerve is a branch of the SUPERIOR trunk. It passes through the POSTERIOR TRIANGLE. It then passes INFERIOR to the transverse scapular ligament, then passes through the SUPRASCAPULAR NOTCH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The long thoracic nerve runs on the ________ surface of serratus anterior.

A

The long thoracic nerve runs on the SUPERFICIAL surface of serratus anterior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The ________ joint is prone to dislocation.

A

The GLENOHUMORAL joint is prone to dislocation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Dislocation of the shoulder happens ______, but it is called a ________ dislocation because the head of the humerus ends _____________.

A

Dislocation of the shoulder happens INFERIORLY, but it is called a ANTERIOR dislocation because the head of the humerus ends ANTERIORLY.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The _______ nerve is likely to get injured in a shoulder dislocation.

A

The AXILLARY nerve is likely to get injured in a shoulder dislocation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The ___________ joint is very stable and dislocations are rare.

What will likely happen instead?

A

The STERNOCLAVICULAR joint is very stable and dislocations are rare.

What will likely happen instead?

The clavicle will fracture instead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Dislocation of the _________ joint is typically caused by a direct blow (either in contact sports, hard fall on the shoulder or on the outstretched upper limb) and causes a complete rupture of the ___________ ligament. This is called a ______ ________.

A

Dislocation of the ACROMIOCLAVICULAR joint is typically caused by a direct blow (either in contact sports, hard fall on the shoulder or on the outstretched upper limb) and causes a complete rupture of the CORACOCLAVICULAR ligament. This is called a SHOULDER SEPARATION.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

_________ ________ syndrome: caused by repeated ________ activity; leads to inflammation underneath the coracoacromial arch which is already a small space.

A

SHOULDER IMPINGEMENT syndrome: caused by repeated OVERHEAD activity; leads to inflammation underneath the coracoacromial arch which is already a small space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Injury to the long thoracic nerve will result in:

A

Winged Scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Injury to the Axillary Nerve will result in:

Numbness where?
Loss of contour where?
Weakness in what movement?

A

Numbness on lateral surface of upper arm.

Loss of contour in shoulder.

Weakness in abduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Injury to Musculocutaneous Nerve will result in:

Numbness over ______ ______.
Weakness in ________ and _________.

A

Injury to Musculocutaneous Nerve will result in:

Numbness over LATERAL FOREARM.
Weakness in FLEXION and SUPINATION.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The Median nerve innervates all of the muscles of the anterior forearm except for what? What are the exceptions innervated by?

A

Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
Medial 1/2 of Flexor Digitorum Profundus

These are innervated by the Ulnar Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What nerve innervates the posterior compartment of the forearm?

A

Radial Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

________ of the radius occurs when the radial head is ______ from the annular ligament.

Clinical Presentation typically includes holding the arm close to the body and an unwillingness to move the arm.

A

SUBLUXATION of the radius occurs when the radial head is DISPLACED from the annular ligament.

Clinical Presentation typically includes holding the arm close to the body and an unwillingness to move the arm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Damage to the Radial Nerve will cause:

A

Wrist Drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Fracture of the _____ carpal bone - possibly due to a fall - will result in tenderness when the ______ _____ box is pressed.

A

Fracture of the SCAPHOID carpal bone - possibly due to a fall - will result in tenderness when the ANATOMICAL SNUFF box is pressed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The Ulnar Nerve passes ______ to the Medial Epicondyle.
It then comes to lie and runs under the cover of _____ ______ ______.

A

The Ulnar Nerve passes POSTERIOR to the Medial Epicondyle.
It then comes to lie and runs under the cover of FLEXOR CARPI ULNARIS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The Radial Nerve comes out of the ____ _____ of the humerus and runs under the __________ muscle. It runs underneath it and then branches.
The deep branch pierces the _______ muscle. The superficial branch goes to innervate what?

A

The Radial Nerve comes out of the RADIAL GROOVE of the humerus and runs under the BRACHIORADIALIS muscle. It runs underneath it and then branches.
The deep branch pierces the SUPINATOR muscle. The superficial branch goes to innervate what?

The skin at the back of the hand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The Median Nerve passes between the two heads of ____ ____. It then runs between ______ _____ _____ muscle and ______ ______ _____ muscle.

A

The Median Nerve passes between the two heads of PRONATOR TERES. It then runs between FLEXOR DIGITORUM SUPERFICIALIS muscle and FLEXOR DIGITORUM PROFUNDUS muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pronator Teres syndrome causes compression of what nerve?

A

Median Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The fat pad sign is indicative of what?

A

An intra-articular fracture of the elbow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The Ulnar Nerve innervates all of the muscles of the hand except for what? And those are innervated by?

A

Muscles of the Thenar Eminence:
-Abductor Pollicus Brevis
-Flexor Pollicus Brevis
-Opponens Pollicus

First Two Lumbricals

Innervated by the Median Nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What bones make up the wrist joint?

A

The radius and carpal bones? NOT THE ULNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

______ fracture: fracture of the radius. Indicated when the styloid process of the radius and the ulna are ______.

A

COLLES fracture: fracture of the radius. Indicated when the styloid process of the radius and the ulna are IN-LINE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome causes compression of which nerve?

A

Median Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Injury to the median nerve distal to the wrist would have the greatest impact on what?

A

Opposition of the thumb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The ulnar bursa is continuous with which digits?
If you had a patient with diabetes, you should tell them to prick which fingers to take their blood sugar?
Why is this important?

A

Pinky and Thumb

Middle 3 Fingers

If they got an infection it would not spread to the rest of the hand and beyond it would stay in the finger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Injury to the ulnar nerve results in what?

-what is it called?
-what movement is lost?

A

Injury to the ulnar nerve results in what?

Claw hand deformity
Z Movement Lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Damage to the median nerve: what is it called?
The patient will be able to flex which 2 fingers?
Which 3 fingers will they not be able to flex?

A

Hand of Benediction

Able to flex pinky and ring finger.

Unable to flex index finger, middle finger, or thumb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The Ulnar Nerve passes under ______ ______ ______ muscle, the superficial to ______ ________. It runs in between the _______ and ______ carpal bones. It then has a ______ and ______ branch.

A

The Ulnar Nerve passes under FLEXOR CARPI ULNARIS muscle, the superficial to FLEXOR RETINACULUM. It runs in between the PISIFORM and HAMATE carpal bones. It then has a SUPERFICIAL and DEEP branch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The Median Nerve runs through the ____ _____. Immediately after, it gives a ______ branch to the ______.
It also has a ______ and ______ branch.

A

The Median Nerve runs through the CARPAL TUNNEL. Immediately after, it gives a RECURRENT branch to the THUMB.
It also has a SUPERFICIAL and DEEP branch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Dupuytrens contracture of the _____ _____. Causes a deformity of the hand due to fibrosis.

A

Dupuytrens contracture of the PALMAR APONEUROSIS. Causes a deformity of the hand due to fibrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the weakest ligament of the hip joint capsule?
This is why 90% of hip dislocations are ________.

A

What is the weakest ligament of the hip joint capsule?
ISHIOFEMORAL
This is why 90% of hip dislocations are POSTERIOR.

78
Q

The hip is perfectly positioned for dislocation when?

A

In a car accident.

79
Q

In a posterior hip dislocation the limb will appear ______, ______ rotated, and the head of the femur will be palpable in the ______ region.

A

In a posterior hip dislocation the limb will appear SHORTEND, MEDIALLY rotated, and the head of the femur will be palpable in the GLUTEAL region.

80
Q

In an anterior hip dislocation, the head of the femur will be palpable in the _____ ______ of the ______ region.

A

In an anterior hip dislocation, the head of the femur will be palpable in the FEMORAL TRIANGLE of the PUBIC region.

81
Q

Posterior hip dislocation will usually cause damage to the _______ nerve.

A

Posterior hip dislocation will usually cause damage to the SCIATIC nerve.

82
Q

Superior gluteal nerve comes from what spinal levels?

A

L4 & L5

83
Q

Inferior gluteal nerve comes from what spinal levels?

A

S1 & S2

84
Q

Sciatic nerve comes from what spinal levels?

A

L4 - S3

85
Q

Pudenal nerve comes from what spinal levels?

A

S2 - S4

86
Q

Piriformis Syndrome: _____ nerve entrapment. Causes pain in the ________ region that may go where?

A

Piriformis Syndrome: SCIATIC nerve entrapment. Causes pain in the GLUTEAL region that may go where?
DOWN THE BACK OF THE LEG

87
Q

Subcutaneous injection in the gluteal area should be where? If not, what nerve is likely to be injured?

A

Superiolaterally

Upper outer quadrant

Sciatic Nerve

88
Q

_______ gait: causes a lurch toward affected side to compensate for hip drop (so the ______ side drops) Due to paralysis of what muscle?

A

TRENDELENBURG gait: causes a lurch toward affected side to compensate for hip drop (so the OPPOSITE side drops) Due to paralysis of GLUTEUS MEDIAS AND MINIMUS

89
Q

Pelvis fractures are almost always _______ fractures. What should you be concerned about?

A

Pelvis fractures are almost always MULTIPLE fractures. What should you be concerned about?
Blood supply being affected - lumbosacral trunk (nerves)

90
Q

If a child has a dislocation of the femur, what should you be concerned about and why?

A

Avascular necrosis of femur head because the acetabular branch of the obturator artery largely vascularizes the head of the femur in children.

91
Q

Innervation of Gluteus Medias:

A

Superior Gluteal Nerve

92
Q

Innervation of Gluteus Minimus:

A

Superior Gluteal Nerve

93
Q

Innervation of Gluteus Maximus:

A

Inferior Gluteal Nerve

94
Q

Innervation of Tensor Fascia Lata:

A

Superior Gluteal Nerve

95
Q

Innervation of Piriformis:

A

Nerve to Piriformis

96
Q

Innervation of Obturator Internus:

A

Nerve to Obturator Internus

97
Q

Innervation of Superior Gemellus:

A

Nerve to Obturator Internus

98
Q

Innervation of Inferior Gemellus:

A

Nerve to Quadratus Femoris

99
Q

Innervation of Quadratus Femoris:

A

Nerve to Quadratus Femoris

100
Q

Innervation of Obturator Externus:

A

Obturator Nerve

101
Q

Blood supply to gluteus medius and minimus:

A

Deep branch of Superior Gluteal A

102
Q

Blood supply to Piriformis:

A

Deep branch of superior and inferior gluteal aa.

103
Q

Blood supply to Tensor Fascia Lata:

A

Deep branch of Superior Gluteal A

104
Q

Blood supply to Gluteus Maximus:

A

Inferior Gluteal A

105
Q

Blood supply to Obturator Internus:

A

Inferior Gluteal A

106
Q

Blood supply to Superior and Inferior Gemellus:

A

Inferior Gluteal A

107
Q

Blood supply to Quadratus Femoris:

A

Inferior Gluteal A

108
Q

What is the name of the angle between the head and shaft of the femur?

A

Angle of Inclination

109
Q

The angle of inclination does what was we age?
Why does this matter?

A

Decreases with age.

Decreased angle increased risk of fracture.

110
Q

Fracture of the shaft of the femur has a high risk of __________ which may move to the _____ (called a _______ _____). They can be made of what?

A

Fracture of the shaft of the femur has a high risk of THROMBOEMBOLI which may move to the LUNGS (called a PULMONARY EMBOLUS). They can be made of what?
FAT

111
Q

A fracture of the distal femur may result in damage to:

A

The Popliteal A

112
Q

Boundaries of the femoral triangle: _______ ligament and two muscles

A

Boundaries of the femoral triangle:
Inguinal ligament, Sartorius, Adductor Longus

113
Q

Structures inside the femoral triangle:

______ nerve, ______ sheath which holds _______V, _______A, and ________ canal with _____ ______ lymph nodes, lymphatic channels, and fat.

A

Structures inside the femoral triangle:

SAPHENOUS nerve, the FEMORAL sheath which holds FEMORAL V, FEMORAL A, and FEMORAL canal with DEEP INGUINAL lymph nodes, lymphatic channels, and fat.

114
Q

Adductor Canal aka _______ canal: contains _________a and v and ____________ n.

A

Adductor Canal aka SUBSARTORIAL canal: contains FEMORAL a and v and SAPHENOUS n.

115
Q

Boundaries of the adductor canal:

A

Sartorius
Vastus Medialis
Adductor Longus
Adductor Magnus

116
Q

Boundaries of the popliteal fossa:

A

Semitendinosis
Semimembranosis
Biceps Femoris
Gastrocnemius

117
Q

Superficial contents of the popliteal fossa:

A

Tibial N
Common Fibular N
Sural N
Nerves to head of gastrocnemius
Short Saphenous V

118
Q

Deep contents of the popliteal fossa:

A

Genicular anastomosis
Popliteal A & V

119
Q

______ Cyst (aka ________ cyst): occurs when too much synovial fluid is produced.

A

BAKERS Cyst (aka POPLITEAL cyst): occurs when too much synovial fluid is produced.

120
Q

Perforating arteries from the ____ _____ artery supply the _______ compartment of the thigh.

A

Perforating arteries from the DEEP FEMORAL artery supply the POSTERIOR compartment of the thigh.

121
Q

What artery supplies the medial compartment of the thigh?

A

Obturator A.

122
Q

What artery supplies the anterior compartment of the thigh?

A

Femoral A. & Deep Femoral A.

123
Q

Deep vein thrombosis:
Test for an elevated __________, can diagnose using ________, potentially life threatening in the case of a _______ _________.

A

Deep vein thrombosis:
Test for an elevated D-DIMER, can diagnose using ULTRASOUND, potentially life threatening in the case of a PULMONARY EMBOLISM.

124
Q

Innervation of Pectineous:

A

Femoral and Obturator N

125
Q

Innervation of Sartorius:

A

Femoral N

126
Q

Innervation of Quadriceps Femoris:

A

Femoral N

127
Q

Innervation of Adductor Longus and Adductor Brevis:

A

Obturator N

128
Q

Innervation of Adductor Magnus:

A

Obturator and Tibial Division of Sciatic N

129
Q

Innervation of Gracilis:

A

Obturator N

130
Q

Innervation of the Hamstring Muscles:

A

Tibial Division of Sciatic N

131
Q

Innervation of the Short Head of Biceps Femoris:

A

Common Fibular Branch of Sciatic N

132
Q

The common fibular nerve wraps around the _______ ___ ________.

It then branches into the ________ and _______ fibular nerves.

A

The common fibular nerve wraps around the HEAD OF FIBULA.

It then branches into the SUPERFICIAL and DEEP fibular nerves.

133
Q

Bumper Fracture: fracture of what?

Typically due to a direct blow.

A

Fracture of the shaft of tibia

134
Q

_________ fracture or _______ fracture: occurs when fibularis brevis and fibulas tertius pull on tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal and fracture it.

A

AVULSION fracture or JONES fracture: occurs when fibularis brevis and fibulas tertius pull on tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal and fracture it.

135
Q

The ankle joint (also called _________ joint) is typically injured when it is ________________ due to the difference in diameter between anterior and posterior.

A

The ankle joint (also called TALOCURAL joint) is typically injured when it is PLANTARFLEXED due to the difference in diameter between anterior and posterior.

136
Q

Most common ligament to be injured:

A

Anterior Talofibular lig.

137
Q

The _________ _________ joint is especially important for balance when walking barefoot on uneven ground.

A

The TRANSVERSE TARSAL joint is especially important for balance when walking barefoot on uneven ground.

138
Q

The transverse tarsal joint is made up of which two joints?

A

Calcaneocuboid and Talonavicular

139
Q

The arches of the foot function to act as _____ _____, ____________ for propelling, allow the foot to adapt to _________ surfaces, and _________ the structures on the plantar aspect.

A

The arches of the foot function to act as SHOCK ABSORBERS, SPRINGBOARDS for propelling, allow the foot to adapt to UNEVEN surfaces, and PROTECT the structures on the plantar aspect.

140
Q

_____ _______ (Flat Foot); causes discomfort and ______ due to ________ of plantar structures. Can be common in childhood and old age why?

A

PES PLANES (Flat Foot); causes discomfort and FATIGUE due to COMPRESSION of plantar structures.

Childhood because muscles are not yet developed.

Old age because muscles are weak.

141
Q

______ _________: increased height of longitudinal arches.

A

PES CAVUS: increased height of longitudinal arches.

142
Q

___ _______-________: loss of transverse arch.

A

PES TRANSVERSO-PLANUS: loss of transverse arch.

143
Q

Compartment syndrome is most common in the _______ compartment and the _______ part of the _________ compartment because this is where the blood vessels are located and because they are already ______.

A

Compartment syndrome is most common in the ANTERIOR compartment and the DEEP part of the POSTERIOR compartment because this is where the blood vessels are located and because they are already TIGHT.

144
Q

Weak dorsiflexor muscles would lead to what?

A

Foot catching on ground and falling forward when walking.

145
Q

Inflammation of the proximal part of which two muscles can sometimes be confused with an ankle sprain?

A

Extensor Hallucis Brevis and Extensor Digitorum Brevis

146
Q

What nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg?

A

Deep Fibular N

147
Q

Injury to the Common Fibular Nerve can result in _____ _____.

A

Injury to the Common Fibular Nerve can result in FOOT DROP.

148
Q

What innervates the skin in the posterior lower leg?

A

Sural N

149
Q

What innervates the lateral compartment of the lower leg?

A

Superficial Fibular N

150
Q

Innervation of the Posterior Compartment of the Leg:

A

Tibial N

151
Q

Tarsal tunnel syndrome causes compression of which nerve?

A

Tibial N

152
Q

The intrinsic muscles of the foot are all innervated by the Lateral Plantar N, except for which muscles?

What are they innervated by?

A

Flexor Digitorum Brevis, Flexor Hallucis Brevis, Abductor Hallucis and 2 Lumbricals.

Innervated by the Medial Plantar N

153
Q

Muscles of the Dorsal Foot are innervated by:

A

Deep Fibular N

154
Q

Blood Supply to Anterior Compartment of the Leg:

A

Anterior Tibial A

155
Q

Blood Supply to Posterior Compartment of the Leg:

A

Posterior Tibial A

156
Q

Blood Supply to Lateral Compartment of the Leg:

A

Perforators of the Fibular A

157
Q

__________ from the paraxial mesoderm will give rise to axial bones.

A

SCLEROTOME from the paraxial mesoderm will give rise to axial bones.

158
Q

____________ from the paraxial mesoderm will give rise to all skeletal muscles.

A

MYOTOME from the paraxial mesoderm will give rise to all skeletal muscles.

159
Q

________ _______ ________ mesoderm will develop into the appendicular skeleton.

A

SOMATIC LATERAL PLATE mesoderm will develop into the appendicular skeleton.

160
Q

_________ ossification: how most bones (except flat bones) are formed.

A

ENDOCHONDRAL ossification: how most bones (except flat bones) are formed.

161
Q

Endochondral ossification begins with a _______ model.

A

Endochondral ossification begins with a CARTILAGE model.

162
Q

Myotomes from somitic mesoderm will differentiate into two populations:

________ gives rise to the true back muscles
________ will form all other skeletal muscle

A

Myotomes from somitic mesoderm will differentiate into two populations:

EPIMERE gives rise to the true back muscles
HYPOMERE will form all other skeletal muscle

163
Q

Hypomere will further differentiate into _______ muscles (typically ventral, flexors, adductors, and pronators) and _________ muscles (typically dorsal, extensors, abductors, and supinators).

A

Hypomere will further differentiate into PREAXIAL muscles (typically ventral, flexors, adductors, and pronators) and POSTAXIAL muscles (typically dorsal, extensors, abductors, and supinators).

164
Q

The upper limb bud appears in the ______ (early mid or late) __(number) week.

A

The upper limb bud appears in the MID 4th week.

165
Q

The lower limb bud appears in the ______ (early mid or late) ___ (number) week.

A

The lower limb bud appears in the LATE 4th week.

166
Q

Limbs are fully developed by the ______ (beginning, middle, or end) of week __.

A

Limbs are fully developed by the END of week 8.

167
Q

Limbs grow along what 3 axes?

A

Cranial-caudal
Proximal-Distal
Dorsal-Ventral

168
Q

What is required for proximodistal growth?

A

Apical Ectodermal Ridge (AER)

169
Q

AER is thickened _______ at the apex of the limb bud. This thickening is induced by _______ ________.

A

AER is thickened ECTODERM at the apex of the limb bud. This thickening is induced by UNDERLYING MESENCHYME.

170
Q

AER produces _______ _______ _______ which induces the proliferation of __________.

A

AER produces FETAL GROWTH FACTOR (FGF) which induces the proliferation of MESENCHYME.

171
Q

During this proliferation, the distal mesenchyme (right underneath AER) does what?

The proximal mesenchyme (which is located away from AER) does what?

A

Distal Mesenchyme continues proliferating and remains unchanged.

Proximal mesenchyme begins developing into defined limb structures.

172
Q

Fgf is ________ for limb outgrowth.

A

Fgf is CRITICAL for limb outgrowth.

173
Q

Disruption of fgf/AER can cause:

A

Distal deletions

174
Q

__________ which is the complete lack of limb occurs when disruption of AER is _______ (early or late) in development.

A

AMELIA which is the complete lack of limb occurs when disruption of AER is EARLY in development.

175
Q

__________ which is the lack of a portion of the limb, occurs when the disruption of AER is _____ (early or late) in development.

A

MEROMELIA which is the lack of a portion of the limb, occurs when the disruption of AER is LATE in development.

176
Q

What defines the shape of limbs and determines proximodistal patterning?

A

HOX genes

177
Q

Disruption of ______genes can result in _________. This is when something gets attached to the wrong thing
(ex: shoulder goes straight to hand, no arm in between).

A

Disruption of HOX genes can result in PHOCOMELIA. This is when something gets attached to the wrong thing
(ex: shoulder goes straight to hand, no arm in between).

178
Q

What drives craniocaudal differentiation?

A

Zone of Polarizing Activity (ZPA)

179
Q

What does the zone of polarizing activity express to achieve craniocaudal differentiation?

A

Sonic Hedge Hog (Shh)

180
Q

Sonic hedge hog makes a _______ ______ which is what causes the differentiation of digits.

A

Sonic hedge hog makes a CONCENTRATION GRADIENT which is what causes the differentiation of digits.

181
Q

What plays a permissive role in the differentiation of digits by ZPA and shh?

A

Retinoid Acid

182
Q

Disruption of _________ or _______ can cause cleft hands or feet.

A

Disruption of AER or ZPA can cause cleft hands or feet.

183
Q

What two genes drive dorsoventral patterning?

A

Lmx1b and Wnt

184
Q

The presence of Lmx1b and Wnt7a drive ________ (dorsalization or ventralization?)

A

The presence of Lmx1b and Wnt7a drive DORSALIZATION.

185
Q

En1 inhibits Lmx1b/Wnt7a which permits ________ (dorsalization or ventralization?)

A

En1 inhibits Lmx1b/Wnt7a which permits VENTRALIZATION.

186
Q

Disruption to Lmx1b and Wnt can cause what?

A

Nail-Patella Syndrome

187
Q

Digital rays are defined through ________.
Condensed mesenchyme maintains _____ at distal ends to form digital rays. Interdigital zones lose _______ which causes _________ to separate digits.

A

Digital rays are defined through APOPTOSIS.
Condensed mesenchyme maintains AER at distal ends to form digital rays. Interdigital zones lose AER which causes APOPTOSIS to separate digits.

188
Q

Disruption of _____ or ___________ can lead to polydactyly or syndactyly.

A

Disruption of ZPA or DIGITAL RAYS can lead to polydactyly or syndactyly.

189
Q

What is syndactyly?

A

Not enough digits

(insufficient apoptosis, some digits still connected)

190
Q

What is polydactyly?

A

Too many digits

191
Q

The upper limb rotates _________ during development and the lower limb rotates ___________ during development.

A

The upper limb rotates LATERALLY during development and the lower limb rotates MEDIALLY during development.

192
Q

Amniotic band syndrome results from ____ ______ within the amniotic sack that forms a ________ _______ of tissue resulting in _________ of limb development.

A

Amniotic band syndrome results from SCAR TISSUE within the amniotic sack that forms a RESTRICTIVE BAND of tissue resulting in INHIBITION of limb development.

Human Structure (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions