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AOPP > Summary > Flashcards

Summary Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of nozzle is effective in fighting a fire in a basement or cellar

A

Distributer nozzle

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2
Q

If the inlet pressure to the inductor is too high

A) the foam will have too much air
B) the foam will have too much water
C) The foam will be too rich
D) the foam will not reach the nozzle

A

C) The foam will be too rich

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3
Q

When lowering a barrel strainer into the water, it should have how many inches of water in all directions

A) 12
B) 16
C) 22
D) 24

A

D) 24

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4
Q

Pump discharge pressure is equal to

A) NP + FL
B) NP - FL
C) NP \ FL
D) NP x FL

A

A) NP + FL

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5
Q

If the power take off has been properly activated the pump is engaged vehicle speedometer should show a speed of

A

Slightly over 0 MPH

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6
Q

The maximum height water can be drafted is approximately how many feet

A) 15
B) 20
C) 25
D) 20

A

C) 25

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7
Q

You should switch from pressure to volume when

A

More than half of the rated capacity of the pump will be required

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8
Q

When using foam to extinguish a fire the separating method

A

Creates a barrier between the fuel and the fire

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9
Q

What are controlled by monitoring The water flow and controlling the speed of a positive displacement foam concentrate pump

A

Variable flow , variable rate direct injection systems

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10
Q

Pumper connected within relay that receives water from source pumper or another relay pumper, raises the pressure and supplies water to next apparatus

A) Tandem pumping
B) Drafting
C) Fire attack pumper
D) Relay (in line) pumper

A

D) Relay (In-line) Pumper

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11
Q

Pumping apparatus located at the fire scene that receives water from the relay and is responsible for supplying the attack lines and appliances required for fire suppression.

A) Fire Attack Pumper
B) Relay (In-line) Pumper
C) Tandem pumper
D) Drafting

A

A) Fire Attack Pumper

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12
Q

What appliances may assist with relay pumping operations?

A

Large Diameter Hose, Intake Pressure Relief Valves, Bleeder Valves, In-line Relay Valves, Discharge Manifold

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13
Q

Used to reduce possibility of damage to pump and discharge hoselines caused by water hammer.

A) Intake Pressure Relief Valves
B) Bleeder Valves
C) Discharge Manifold
D) In Line Relay Valves

A

A) Intake Pressure Relief Valves

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14
Q

If the incoming pressure exceeds preset level on an intake pressure relief valve what will it do?

A

The valve dumps excess pressure/water until the water entering the pump is at the preset level.

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15
Q

What allows late arriving pumpers to hook up after the relay is operating and boost the pressure without interrupting relay operation.

A) Intake Pressure Relief Valves
B) Bleeder Valves
C) Discharge Manifold
D) In Line Relay Valves

A

D) In-line relay valves

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16
Q

Used if a LDH relay pumping operation is intended to support more than one attack pumper at the fire scene.

A) Intake Pressure Relief Valves
B) Bleeder Valves
C) Discharge Manifold
D) In Line Relay Valves

A

C) Discharge Manifold

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17
Q

How is Discharge Manifold used

A

Breaks LDH into two or more hoselines that may be then connected to attack pumpers.

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18
Q

What are the two operational considerations for relay pumping?

A

Amount of water required and Distance from emergency scene to water source.

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19
Q

What are 3 ways you can increase the amount of flow in a relay?

A

Increase size/number of hoselines, Increase pump discharge pressure, Increase number of pumpers in relay.

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20
Q

A method that involves flowing a predetermined volume of water for the maximum distance that it can be pumped through a particular hose lay.

A) Maximum Distance Relay Method
B) Constant Pressure Relay Method

A

A) Maximum Distance Relay Method

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21
Q

The number of pumpers needed to relay a given amount of water can be determined how?

A) Variations in pumper spacing, Extreme elevation differences, Increases in needed fire flow, LDH.
B) Relay Distance/Given Distance + 1

A

B) Relay Distance/Given Distance + 1

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22
Q

A method that provides the maximum flow available from a particular relay setup by using a constant pressure in the system; Dependent on consistent flow

A) Maximum Distance Relay Method
B) Constant Pressure Relay Method

A

B) Constant Pressure Relay Method

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23
Q

When might pressure be modified in a constant pressure relay?

A) Variations in pumper spacing, Extreme elevation differences, Increases in needed fire flow, LDH.
B) Relay Distance/Given Distance + 1

A

A) Variations in pumper spacing, Extreme elevation differences, Increases in needed fire flow, LDH.

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24
Q

As long as intake pressure does not drop below ____ kPa or increase above ____ kPa, no action should be required.

A) 30, 300
B) 70, 700
C) 90, 900
D) 40, 400

A

B) 70, 700

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25
Q

The act of mixing water with foam concentrate to form a foam solution is called:
Select one:
a. aeration.
b. eduction.
c. hydrolization.
d. proportioning.

A

d. proportioning.

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26
Q

Why might fuel and fire consume a portion or the entire foam blanket?
Select one:
a. Presence of polar solvents
b. Presence of thermal drafts
c. Inconsistent application time
d. Incorrect type or concentration used

A

c. Inconsistent application time

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27
Q

Class B synthetic foam concentrate is made from:
Select one:
a. animal proteins.
b. film forming fluoroprotein.
c. a mixture of gelling agents.
d. a mixture of fluorosurfactants.

A

d. a mixture of fluorosurfactants.

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28
Q

Which is a basic foam proportioner that is designed to be attached directly to the pump panel discharge or connected at some point in the hose lay?
Select one:
a. In-line foam eductors
b. Foam nozzle eductors
c. Jet ratio controller (JRC)
d. Self-educting master stream nozzle

A

a. In-line foam eductors

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29
Q

High-energy foam generating systems/CAFS differ from other methods because:
Select one:
a. the flow of concentrate matches the pressure demand better.
b. the concentrate is supplied from atmospheric pressure foam tanks on the apparatus.
c. they introduce compressed air into the foam solution prior to discharge into the hoseline.
d. they introduce compressed air into the foam solution after discharge into the hoseline

A

c. they introduce compressed air into the foam solution prior to discharge into the hoseline

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30
Q

Due to the low eduction rates on a CAFS apparatus, what is required to supply the fire stream at the rate of 0.1 to 1.0 percent?
Select one:
a. A handline nozzle
b. Gelling agents in the foam solution
c. Film forming fluoroprotein foam (FFFP)
d. A variable flow rate sensing proportioner

A

d. A variable flow rate sensing proportioner

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31
Q

Which piece of equipment injects the correct amount of foam concentrate into the water stream to make the foam solution?
Select one:
a. Venturi device
b. Aerating nozzle
c. Mechanical blower
d. Foam proportioner

A

d. Foam proportioner

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32
Q

What is the smallest type of foam storage container?
Select one:
a. Pails
b. Totes
c. Barrels
d. Apparatus tanks

A

A. Pails

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33
Q

In some installed in-line eductor systems, a(an) _____ proportioner is installed to reduce the friction loss across the eductor.
Select one:
a. bypass
b. injection
c. expansion
d. around-the-pump

A

a. bypass

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34
Q

Which of the following has a pickup tube that is located in the center bore of the nozzle and uses a modified Venturi design to draw concentrate into its water stream?
Select one:
a. Jet ratio controller
b. Foam nozzle eductors
c. In-line foam eductors
d. Self-educting master stream foam nozzle

A

d. Self-educting master stream foam nozzle

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35
Q

Which is a proportioner used on large mobile apparatus installations, such as ARFF vehicles, and is one of the most accurate methods of foam proportioning?
Select one:
a. Around-the-pump proportioner
b. Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner
c. Variable-flow variable-rate direct injection proportioner
d. Variable-flow demand-type balanced pressure proportioner

A

b. Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner

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36
Q

In what way are durable agents similar to Class A foam?
Select one:
a. Both products are used in a similar fashion.
b. Both products are water absorbent polymers.
c. Both products are inexpensive and easily stored.
d. Both products form small bubbles filled with water.

A

a. Both products are used in a similar fashion.

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37
Q

Low energy foam systems impart pressure on the foam solution with the use of the:
Select one:
a. main fire pump.
b. mechanical blower.
c. self-educting pickup tube.
d. variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system.

A

a. main fire pump

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38
Q

What are the two basic types of medium- and high-expansion foam generators?
Select one:
a. Water aspirating and hydrolyzed
b. Hydrolyzed and burnback resistant
c. Water aspirating and mechanical blower
d. Burnback resistant and mechanical blower

A

Water aspirating and mechanical blower

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39
Q

In order to eliminate using pails or barrels to supply a foam eductor, fire apparatus equipped with onboard foam proportioning systems usually have _____ piped directly to the delivery system.
Select one:
a. in-line eductors
b. jet ratio controllers
c. in-line proportioners
d. foam concentrate tanks

A

d. foam concentrate tanks

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40
Q

Which is a common handline nozzle used for foam application?
Select one:
a. Fog nozzle
b. Jet ratio nozzle
c. Mechanical nozzle
d. Balanced pressure nozzle

A

a. Fog nozzle

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41
Q

A type of in-line eductor that may be used to supply foam concentrate to a self-educting master stream foam nozzle is called a:
Select one:
a. handline eductor.
b. jet ratio controller.
c. mechanical blower.
d. fog nozzle eductor.

A

b. jet ratio controller

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42
Q

Which variable affects a foam’s rate of application?
Select one:
a. Environmental considerations
b. The type of foam proportioner used
c. Whether the fuel is contained or uncontained
d. The ambient temperature at the incident site

A

c. Whether the fuel is contained or uncontained

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43
Q

Which is a limitation of CAFS?
Select one:
a. CAFS requires closer proximity to the fire.
b. In the event of a hose burst, compressed air will intensify the reaction of the hoseline.
c. Foam produced by a CAFS does not adhere to a fuel surface as well as low energy foam.
d. Hoselines containing high energy foam solution weigh more than those containing plain water

A

b. In the event of a hose burst, compressed air will intensify the reaction of the hoseline.

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44
Q

Which statement is true about the adequate and/or inadequate production of foam when an in-line proportioner is used?
Select one:
a. A nozzle placed too far above the eductor will result in excessive foaming.
b. Too long an attack line on the discharge side of the eductor will diminish the Venturi effect.
c. A partially closed nozzle will result in a flow rate that will not allow the creation of a Venturi effect.
d. It is acceptable to mix foam concentrates from different manufacturers as long as they are the same class.

A

c. A partially closed nozzle will result in a flow rate that will not allow the creation of a Venturi effect.

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45
Q

Which proportioning method uses an external pump to force foam concentrate into the fire stream at the proper ratio in comparison to the flow?
Select one:
a. Injection
b. Induction
c. Premixing
d. Batch mixing

A

a. Injection

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46
Q

The minimum amount of foam solution that must be used on a fire per minute per square foot (square meter) of fire is called the:
Select one:
a. eduction rate.
b. injection rate.
c. application rate.
d. proportioning rate.

A

c. application rate.

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47
Q

Which statement about batch mixing is accurate?
Select one:
a. It is very complex.
b. It is potentially inaccurate.
c. It is most effective during large incidents.
d. It uses the pressure of a water stream to draft foam

A

b. It is potentially inaccurate.

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48
Q

Which statement about variable-flow demand-type balanced pressure proportioners is MOST accurate?
Select one:
a. It is the simplest method of proportioning foam.
b. It is a method compatible only with high energy foam systems.
c. It consists of a variable speed mechanism driven electrically or hydraulically that operates a foam concentrate pump.
d. It features the ability to monitor the demand for foam concentrate and adjust the amount of concentrate supplied.

A

c. It consists of a variable speed mechanism driven electrically or hydraulically that operates a foam concentrate pump.

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49
Q

For a portable foam application device, once foam concentrate and water have mixed to form a foam solution, the solution must be:
Select one:
a. aerated.
b. pre-mixed.
c. hydrolyzed.
d. proportioned

A

A. Aerated

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50
Q

Because it forms a rigid coating that adheres well and is slow to drain, the best consistency of Class A foam for vertical surfaces is:
Select one:
a. dry foam.
b. wet foam.
c. hard foam.
d. medium foam.

A

A. Dry foam

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51
Q

Regardless of the type of tank, what is one characteristic that all foam storage containers share?
Select one:
a. Oxygenation
b. Refrigeration
c. Airtight storage
d. Room for expansion

A

c. Airtight storage

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52
Q

When operating an in-line foam eductor, which of the following operating guidelines must be followed to achieve properly proportioned finished foam?
Select one:
a. The inlet pressure should be decreased as much as possible in order to create the Venturi effect.
b. Back pressure should be increased as much as possible in order to create the best foam induction.
c. The flow in gallons per minute (L/min) through the eductor must not exceed its rated capacity.
d. The pressure at the discharge side of the eductor must not be less than 70 percent of the eductor inlet pressure.

A

c. The flow in gallons per minute (L/min) through the eductor must not exceed its rated capacity

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53
Q

Which are designed to work in conjunction with proportioners to produce the best possible foam?
Select one:
a. Pickup tubes
b. Foam nozzles
c. In-line eductors
d. Jet ratio controllers

A

b. Foam nozzles

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54
Q

Direct application is a method of attack that is BEST used with:
Select one:
a. Class A foam.
b. Class B foam.
c. aqueous film forming foam.
d. film forming fluoroprotein foam

A

A. Class A foam

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55
Q

Which kind of nozzle allows firefighters the option of operating fixed flow, selective flow, or automatic flow when applying a low expansion, short duration foam blanket?
Select one:
a. Fog nozzles
b. Smooth bore nozzles
c. Air-aspirating foam nozzles
d. Master stream foam nozzles
Feedback

A

A

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56
Q

Why is it important to avoid direct application of Class A foam to natural bodies of water?
Select one:
a. It can harm aquatic life.
b. It will lose its effectiveness.
c. It is oil-based and will not mix with water.
d. Water increases the ambient temperature of the foam.

A

A

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57
Q

Which factor is MOST likely to affect the degree of expansion in a foam solution:?
Select one:
a. Biodegradability
b. Rate of application
c. Method of aeration
d. Decomposition rate

A

C

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58
Q

Installed in-line eductors are most commonly used to proportion which class of foam?
Select one:
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class K

A

b. Class B

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59
Q

What are Mil-Spec concentrates?
Select one:
a. Experimental foams still in the development phase
b. Foam concentrates used only in U.S. Military operations
c. Foam concentrates manufactured to U.S. Military specifications
d. Foam concentrates manufactured by the Milhouse Specialty Company

A

c. Foam concentrates manufactured to U.S. Military specifications

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60
Q

Which foam consists of fluorochemical and hydrocarbon surfactants combined with solvents to create a high boiling point?
Select one:
a. Fluoroprotein foam
b. High-expansion foam
c. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF)
d. Film forming fluoroprotein foam (FFFP)

A

c. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF)

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61
Q

The formula of Class A form includes _____ that reduce the surface tension of water in the foam solution.
Select one:
a. gelling agents
b. polar solvents
c. hydrocarbon surfactants
d. protein foam concentrates

A

c. hydrocarbon surfactants

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62
Q

Batch mixing is generally only used with which types of foam concentrates?
Select one:
a. Class A and regular AFFF concentrates
b. Class B and regular AFFF concentrates
c. Class A and alcohol resistant AFFF concentrates
d. Class B and alcohol resistant AFFF concentrates

A

a. Class A and regular AFFF concentrates

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63
Q

Viscosity, or the thickness and ability of a liquid to flow freely, is MOST likely to be affected by:
Select one:
a. humidity.
b. elevation.
c. temperature.
d. nozzle pressure

A

C. Temperature

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64
Q

When using the batch mixing proportioning method, frothing can be avoided by:
Select one:
a. using a lower proportion of foam.
b. slowly circulating water in the tank.
c. draining and refilling the water tank.
d. removing lubricants from pump seals.
Feedback

A

b. slowly circulating water in the tank.

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65
Q

In which situation is it acceptable to mix together different manufacturers’ foam concentrates?
Select one:
a. If they are Class A CAFS foams
b. If they are mil-spec concentrates
c. If they are not mil-spec concentrates
d. If they are Class B polar solvent foams

A

b. If they are mil-spec concentrates

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66
Q

be used to combat concealed space fires in cellars or other subterranean spaces?
Select one:
a. Fluoroprotein foam
b. High-expansion foam
c. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF)
d. Film forming fluoroprotein foam (FFFP)

A

B

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67
Q

Both of the basic types of medium- and high-expansion foam generators produce foam containing:
Select one:
a. low air content.
b. high air content.
c. low water content.
d. high water content

A

B

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68
Q

The process of foam decomposition results in the consumption of:
Select one:
a. oxygen.
b. aquatic life.
c. fresh water.
d. carbon dioxide

A

A

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69
Q

What is a disadvantage of durable agents?
Select one:
a. The products are not biodegradable and can be toxic to the environment.
b. These products do not retain their fire retarding properties as long as Class A foam.
c. These products can only be batch mixed and may result in discarding expensive product.
d. Once applied, surfaces coated with these products become very slippery for walking or driving.

A

d. Once applied, surfaces coated with these products become very slippery for walking or driving.

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70
Q

What is released as fire fighting foam breaks down, providing a cooling effect on the fuel and suppressing the process of heat-producing oxidation?
Select one:
a. Gel
b. Water
c. Proteins
d. Polar solvents

A

B

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71
Q

Which are examples of polar solvent fuels requiring the use of special polymeric fire fighting foam?
Select one:
a. Water and acetone
b. Alcohol and ketones
c. Esters and cooking oils
d. Kerosene and crude oils

A

b. Alcohol and ketones

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72
Q

In order to produce fire fighting foam, what three items must be educted or injected in correct ratios?
Select one:
a. Foam concentrate, water, and air
b. Hydrocarbons, foam solution, and air
c. Foam solutions, gelling agent, and water
d. Polar solvents, foam concentrate, and water

A

a. Foam concentrate, water, and air

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73
Q

Driver/operators calculate the application rate available from a specific nozzle by:
Select one:
a. dividing the area of the fire by the flow rate.
b. dividing the flow rate by the area of the fire.
c. multiplying the flow rate by the area of the fire.
d. multiplying nozzle pressure by the area of the fire.

A

b. dividing the flow rate by the area of the fire.

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74
Q

Which method for Class B foam application involves directing the foam onto a vertical surface and allowing it to run down and spread across pooled fuel product?
Select one:
a. Roll-on method
b. Rain-down method
c. Bank-down method
d. Direct application method

A

C

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75
Q

Which is the most common apparatus-mounted foam proportioner and consists of a small return (bypass) water line connected from the discharge side of the pump back to the intake side of the pump?
Select one:
a. Around-the-pump proportioner
b. Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner
c. Variable-flow variable-rate direct injection proportioner
d. Variable-flow demand-type balanced pressure proportioner

A

A

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76
Q

Class A foam solutions do not retain their foaming properties when mixed in water for more than:
Select one:
a. 2 hours.
b. 24 hours.
c. one week.
d. one month.

A

B

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77
Q

Which proportioning method uses premeasured portions of water and foam concentrate that are mixed in a container?
Select one:
a. Injection
b. Induction
c. Premixing
d. Batch mixing

A

C

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78
Q

A smooth bore nozzle is limited to application of which classification of foam?
Select one:
a. Any Class A foam
b. Any Class B foam
c. Class A foam from a CAFS
d. Class B foam from a CAFS

A

c. Class A foam from a CAFS

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79
Q

Which statement about regular protein foams is MOST accurate?
Select one:
a. They are more fluid than most other low expansion foams.
b. They degrade more quickly and are becoming increasingly rare.
c. They are a combination of protein-based foam and synthetic foam.
d. They are derived from animal protein and contain no additives or chemicals.

A

b. They degrade more quickly and are becoming increasingly rare.

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80
Q

Which kind of nozzle inducts air into foam solution by a Venturi action and is the only nozzle that should be used with protein and fluoroprotein concentrates?
Select one:
a. Fog nozzles
b. Smooth bore nozzles
c. Air-aspirating foam nozzles
d. Master stream foam nozzles

A

c. Air-aspirating foam nozzles

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81
Q

What is determined by the rate at which natural bacteria can degrade foam?
Select one:
a. Hydrolization
b. Decomposition
c. Biodegradability
d. Burnback resistance

A

c. Biodegradability

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82
Q

a principal pipe in a system of pipes for conveying water, especially one installed underground.
underground water mains are generally made of cast iron, ductile iron, asbestos cement, steel, polyvinyl chloride (PVC) plastic, or concrete.

A) Primary feeders
B) Secondary feeders
C) Water main
D) Grid network

A

C) Water main

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83
Q

the interlocking network of water mains that compose a water distribution system. consists of three main types of water mains: primary feeders, secondary feeders and distributors

A) Primary feeders
B) Secondary feeders
C) Water main
D) Grid or gridiron

A

D) grid or gridiron

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84
Q

large pipes, also known as arterial mains, with relatively widespread spacing. these mains convey large quantities of water to various points in the distribution system and supply smaller secondary feeder mains.
can be very large. ranging from 16in to 72in in diameter
fire hydrants are rarely attached directly to these mains

A) Primary feeders
B) Secondary feeders
C) Water main
D) Grid network

A

A) primary feeders

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85
Q

intermediate pipes that interconnect with the primary feeder lines to create a grid. they are 12 to 14 inches in diameter. control valves can be used to isolate each secondary feeder

A) Primary feeders
B) Secondary feeders
C) Water main
D) Grid network

A

B) secondary feeders

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86
Q

small water mains, 6 to 8 inches in diameter, that serve individual fire hydrants and commercial and residential consumers. distributors may form an intermediate grid between the secondary feeders or may be dead-end lines with the hydrant or supplied property at the end of the line.
-today, 8in pipe is often the minimum size used, although some communities are allowing 6in pipes in residential subdivisions

A) Primary feeders
B) Secondary feeders
C) Distributors
D) Grid network

A

C) distributors

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87
Q

elevated gravity storage tanks are usually constructed of steel or concrete. gravity tank capacities range from 5,000 gallons to over a million gallons

A

storage tanks

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88
Q

water supply systems contain valves to interrupt water flow to: individual hydrants or properties, distribution lines, secondary feeders, primary feeders, and entire water systems
most valves are constructed of brass, steel or cast iron
two types of valves:

A) control and butterfly valve
B) isolation and gate valve
C) gate valve and butterfly valve
D) isolation and control valves

A

D) isolation and control valves

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89
Q

control valve with a solid plate operated by a handle and screw mechanism; rotating the handle moves the plate into or out of the waterway

A) gate valve
B) discharge manifold
C) bleeder valve
D) in line relay valve

A

A) gate valve

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90
Q

control valve that uses a a flat circular plate in a pipe that rotates 90 degrees across the cross section of the pipe to control the flow of water

A) gate valve
B) discharge manifold
C) bleeder valve
D) butterfly valve

A

D) Butterfly valve

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91
Q

also located between public water supply distribution systems and private water supply distribution systems.
typical types of control valves include: pressure-reducing, pressure-sustaining, pressure-relief valves, flow-control valves, throttling valves, float valves, check valves.

A) gate valve
B) control valves
C) butterfly valve
D) relief valve

A

B) control valves

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92
Q

receive water from more than one direction and are said to have circulating feed or a looped system.
circulating feed - fire hydrant that receives water from two or more directions
loop system - water main arranged in a complete circuit so that water will be supplied to a given point from more than one direction

A) dry-barrel hydrant
B) circulating hydrants
C) street hydrant
D) wet barrel hydrant

A

B) circulating hydrants

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93
Q

fire hydrant that has its operating valve located at the base or foot of the hydrant rather than in the barrel of the hydrant. when operating properly, there is no water in the barrel of the hydrant when it is not in use. these barrels are used in areas where freezing may occur. any water remaining in a closed dry-barrel hydrant drains through a small drain valve that opens at the bottom of the hydrant when the main valve approaches a closed position.

A) dry-barrel hydrant
B) circulating hydrants
C) wet barrel hydrant
D) street hydrant

A

A) dry-barrel hydrant

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94
Q

fire hydrant that has water all the way up the discharge outlets; may have separate valves for each discharge or one valve for all the discharges. this type of hydrant is only used in areas where there is no danger of freezing weather conditions

A) dry-barrel hydrant
B) circulating hydrants
C) wet barrel hydrant
D) street hydrant

A

C) wet barrel hydrant

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95
Q

Which foam has a surfactant added that makes it more fluid

A

Fluoroprotein

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96
Q

What are controlled by monitoring The water flow and controlling the speed of a positive displacement foam concentrate pump

A

Variable flow , variable rate direct injection systems

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97
Q

The purpose of the what is to provide circulating feed from several mains

A) Primary feeders
B) Secondary feeders
C) Air Primer
D) Grid system

A

D) Grid system

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98
Q

When used in a relay pumping operation the relay pumper

A) Acts as a Direct pump
B) Acts as a Fire pump
C) Acts as a Booster pump
D) Acts as a Supply pump

A

C) Acts as the booster pump

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99
Q

To achieve rated capacity of a pump it must be operated in the what position

A) Laterally
B) Across
C) Parallel
D) Front to back

A

C) Parallel

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100
Q

An operator obtains a reading of 17 inches of mercury on the intake gauge while drafting and flowing water

A

This indicates a lift of approximately 19 feet

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101
Q

The actual maximum height which water will be lifted when the intake gauge reads 9 inches of mercury is

A) 10
B) 10.17
C) 11
D) 11.17

A

B) 10.17

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102
Q

A foam proportioner is the

A

Device that injects the correct amount of foam concentrate

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103
Q

Which foam can be used on both hydrocarbon and polar solvents

A

AR-AFFF

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104
Q

The barrel strainer must be submerged at least how many feet below the water of a pump or service test

A) 2 feet
B) 4 feet
C) 6 feet
D 8 feet

A

A) 2 feet

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105
Q

Relay pumping always begins with the

A) Supply pumper
B) Booster pumper
C) Direct pumper
D) Fire pumper

A

A) Supply pumper

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106
Q

Provider of extinguishing Agent flow and pressure dedicated to fire protection is the

A) Fire pump
B) Booster pump
C) Direct pump
D) Supply pump

A

A) Fire pump

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107
Q

In a water distribution grid the what supplies individual hydrants and users

A) Primary feeders
B) Secondary feeders
C) Distributors
D) Gridiron

A

C) Distributors

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108
Q

Finished mechanical foam is a

A

Mixture of foam concentrate and water after air is introduced

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109
Q

Flow meters should be accurate to a tolerance of what percent

A) +\ - 6
B) +\ - 3
C) +\ - 10
D) +\ - 24

A

B) +/- 3

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110
Q

When using foam to extinguish the fire the cooling method

A

Reduces the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces

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111
Q

Relay pumping operations are based on

A

Distance and hose diameter

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112
Q

Centrifugal fire pumps may make use of

A

Positive intake pressures

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113
Q

The _____ enables apparatuses to move and discharge water at the same time

A

Power take off

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114
Q

When used in a relay pumping operation the attack pumper

A

determines the amount of water flow needed

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115
Q

Using the condensed Q method as a rule of thumb, the friction loss in 500 feet of 3 inch fire hose flowing 300 gpm is?

A

45 psi

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116
Q

a limitation of compressed air foam system is that

A

a hose reaction can be erratic

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117
Q

the selections of a proportioner depends on

A

the foam solution flow requirements and type of product burning

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118
Q

In drafting operations, pumping ability decreases when

A) atmospheric pressure decreases
B) atmospheric pressure increases
C) residual pressure decreases
D) residual pressure increases

A

A) atmospheric pressure decreases

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119
Q

Master stream nozzles are:

A) capable of flows 300 GPM or above
B) capable of flows 250 GPM or above
C) capable of flows 350 GPM or above
D) capable of flows 450 GPM or above

A

C) capable of flows 350 GPM or above

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120
Q

Winter conditions stopping distance

A) 1 to 2 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.
B) 3 to 5 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.
C) 3 to 15 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.
D) 5 to 10 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.

A

C) 3 to 15 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.

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121
Q

pressure control devices must operate within

A) 5-10 seconds after the discharge pressure rises and must not allow the pressure to exceed 30 PSI above the set level.
B) 3-10 seconds after the discharge pressure rises and must not allow the pressure to exceed 30 PSI above the set level.
C) 3- 5 seconds after the discharge pressure rises and must not allow the pressure to exceed 30 PSI above the set level.
D) 10-15 seconds after the discharge pressure rises and must not allow the pressure to exceed 30 PSI above the set level.

A

3-10 seconds after the discharge pressure rises and must not allow the pressure to exceed 30 PSI above the set level.

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122
Q

Why might fuel and fire consume a portion or the entire foam blanket?
Select one:
a. Presence of polar solvents
b. Presence of thermal drafts
c. Inconsistent application time
d. Incorrect type or concentration used

A

c. Inconsistent application time

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123
Q

Due to the low eduction rates on a CAFS apparatus, what is required to supply the fire stream at the rate of 0.1 to 1.0 percent?
Select one:
a. A handline nozzle
b. Gelling agents in the foam solution
c. Film forming fluoroprotein foam (FFFP)
d. A variable flow rate sensing proportioner

A

d. A variable flow rate sensing proportioner

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124
Q

Which of the following has a pickup tube that is located in the center bore of the nozzle and uses a modified Venturi design to draw concentrate into its water stream?
Select one:
a. Jet ratio controller
b. Foam nozzle eductors
c. In-line foam eductors
d. Self-educting master stream foam nozzle

A

d. Self-educting master stream foam nozzle

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125
Q

Which is a proportioner used on large mobile apparatus installations, such as ARFF vehicles, and is one of the most accurate methods of foam proportioning?
Select one:
a. Around-the-pump proportioner
b. Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner
c. Variable-flow variable-rate direct injection proportioner
d. Variable-flow demand-type balanced pressure proportioner

A

b. Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner

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126
Q

Batteries produce explosive ____ when being charged

A

Hydrogen

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127
Q

Shutting down a diesel engine immediately after full load operation may result in

A) Engine Overload
B) Turbo seizure
C) Overthrottling
D) Capsizing

A

B) Turbo seizure

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128
Q

A fully loaded pumper must be able to come to a complete stop from 20 mph with?

A) 20 feet
B) 30 feet
C) 35 feet
D) 25 feet

A

C) 35 feet

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129
Q

If a jurisdiction is above 2000 feet elevation a _____ test must be preformed

A) Engine Overload
B) Turbo seizure
C) Overthrottling
D) Capsizing

A

A) Engine overload

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130
Q

In an acceptance test a fully loaded pumper must be able to accelerate to _____ mph in 25 seconds

A

35

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131
Q

Before turning corners, or approaching curbs you should?

A

Shift transmission into a lower gear

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132
Q

The angle from the rear point of the ground contact of the rear tire to any projection of the apparatus behind the rear axle is considered

A) Angle of approach
B) Serpentine angle
C) Angle of departure
D) Parking angle

A

C) Angle of departure

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133
Q

The purpose of serpentine course is to simulate?

A

Maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners

134
Q

When responding to an emergency were all lanes of traffic are blocked the apparatus should

A

Drive in the opposing lane at a reduced speed

135
Q

Many accidents of an apparatus are caused by

A

Misunderstanding the capabilities of the apparatus

136
Q

Being aware of what is happening and what is likely to happen when driving an apparatus is

A

Defensive driving

137
Q

A ____ valve is used to relieve pressure in hose lines after discharge gates are closed

A) bleeder
B) drain
C) relief
D) in line relay valve

A

B) Drain

138
Q

A _____ gauge is calibrated to read both positive and negative pressure

A) Pressure
B) Pilot
C) Compound
D) Water

A

C) Compound

139
Q

“0” psi reading on most pressure gauges is actually ____ psi pressure at sea level

A) 3
B) 12.6
C) 14.7
D) 16.1

A

C) 14.7

140
Q

Dry hydrants should be open completely because

A

The drain valve is completely closed

141
Q

___ is considered the minimum size pipe to be used in residential areas

A) 8 inches
B) 6 inches
C) 4 inches
D) 2 inches

A

B) 6 inches

142
Q

A water level reservoir is 150 ft above a hydrant. What is the static reading?

A) 65.1
B) 73.2
C) 66.1
D) 84.6

A

A) 65.1

143
Q

The goal of the uniform traffic control devices is?

A

guide traffic movement, control vehicle speeds and warn of potentially haz- ardous conditions.

144
Q

When properly maintained, what has proven to be the most effective means of protecting life & property

A

Automatic sprinklers

145
Q

What is the minimum size supply lines for a Fire Department Connection (FDC)?

A) Two lines of 2.5 inches
B) One line of 2.5 inches
C) Two lines of 3 inches
D) Two lines of 3 inches

A

A) Two lines of 2.5 inches

146
Q

How long should the FDC sprinkler supply line be?

A) Longer than 100 ft
B) Shorter than 100 ft
C) As short as possible
D) Close to the fire scene

A

C) As short as possible

147
Q

Sprinkler psi at fdc

A) 100 psi
B) 150 psi
C) 200 psi
D) 25 psi

A

B) 150 psi

148
Q

In regards to smoke, what is a problem produced by sprinklers?

A

Fires in sprinklered buildings are often more smoky than those in unsprinklered buildings.

149
Q

List the five 5 types of Sprinkler Systems:

A
  1. Automatic Wet System
  2. Automatic Dry (dry-pipe) System
  3. Deluge System
  4. Pre-action System
  5. Nonautomatic System
150
Q

The most common & simplest type of sprinkler system

A) Automatic Wet System
B) Automatic Dry (dry-pipe) System
C) Deluge System
D) Pre-action System

A

A) Automatic Wet System

151
Q

The second most common sprinkler system

A) Pre-action System
B) Automatic Wet System
C) Deluge System
D) Automatic dry system

A

D) Automatic dry (dry pipe) System

152
Q

All sprinkler heads are open, and attached to the piping. The heads have no heat sensing, and when a separate fire detection system trips and opens the valve, ALL heads discharge water.

A) Pre-action System
B) Automatic Wet System
C) Deluge System
D) Automatic dry system

A

C) Deluge system

153
Q

Auxiliary cooling heat is transferred to

A

directly to the ambient air passing over their fins

154
Q

What is the function of the relief valve on a fire pump?

A

keep dangerous pressure surges from injuring firefighters on hoselines

155
Q

The pressure remaining once water is done flowing is

A

Residual

156
Q

How does a pressure relief valve work

A

directs water from the discharge of the pump back into the intake of the pump when pressure surges occur.

157
Q

After the driver/operator perceives the need to stop the vehicle, the distance the apparatus travels while the driver/operator transfers his or her foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal is:
Select one:
a. braking distance.
b. reaction distance.
c. total stopping distance.
d. complete stopping distance.

A

Reaction distance

158
Q

Which term refers to the distance that the vehicle travels from the time brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop?
Select one:
a. Braking distance
b. Reaction distance
c. Total stopping distance
d. Complete stopping distance

A

a. Braking distance

159
Q

Why should diesel engines not be idled unnecessarily?
Select one:
a. May interfere with communications systems
b. May cause hearing damage to those in the cab
c. May cause damage to internal engine components and emission systems
d. May cause the electrical system components to turn on and off intermittently

A

C. May cause damage to internal engine components and emission systems

160
Q

When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, they should travel:
Select one:
a. at least 50 to 150 feet (15 to 45 m) apart.
b. at least 100 to 300 feet (30 to 90 m) apart.
c. at least 300 to 500 feet (90 to 150 m) apart.
d. at least 700 to 900 feet (210 to 270 m) apart.

A

c. at least 300 to 500 feet (90 to 150 m) apart.

161
Q

When loading fire hose while driving the apparatus, the safety observer to the operation:
Select one:
a. can be the driver/operator.
b. must be the first firefighter loading hose.
c. can be any member of the hose loading team.
d. must be a member, other than driver/operator and the firefighters loading the hose.

A

d. must be a member, other than driver/operator and the firefighters loading the hose

162
Q

On an aerial apparatus, which of the following refers to the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus?
Select one:
a. Breakover angle
b. Angle of approach
c. Angle of departure
d. Angle of culmination

A

b. Angle of approach

163
Q

What generally accounts for a significant percentage of all damage repair costs for a fire department?
Select one:
a. Parking accidents
b. Backing accidents
c. Dumping operations
d. Maintenance mishaps

A

b. Backing accidents

164
Q

Apparatus should be weighed after loading it with all equipment and personnel to ensure that axle loading is balanced:
Select one:
a. within 2 percent from side to side.
b. within 7 percent from side to side.
c. within 15 percent from side to side.
d. within 21 percent from side to side.

A

b. within 7 percent from side to side.

165
Q

What is the MOST likely reason for a locked wheel skid?
Select one:
a. Braking too hard at high speed
b. Braking intermittently at low speed
c. Braking while turning the wheels more than twenty degrees
d. Braking while turning the wheels more than forty-five degrees

A

a. Braking too hard at high speed

166
Q

On apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF), which of the following lights up when the exhaust system is very hot, usually due to an active regeneration in process?
Select one:
a. DPF indicator
b. Regeneration inhibit switch
c. Manual regeneration switch
d. High Exhaust System Temperature indicator

A

d. High Exhaust System Temperature indicator

167
Q

NFPA® 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, requires a placard in every apparatus, listing:
Select one:
a. vehicle height and weight in feet and tons.
b. the year apparatus was initially put into service.
c. vehicle width and the distance from undercarriage to roadway.
d. maximum allowed combined passenger and equipment weight.

A

a. vehicle height and weight in feet and tons.

168
Q

When should the mirrors be adjusted on an apparatus?
Select one:
a. During weekly inspections
b. During monthly inspections
c. Whenever it changes from day to night
d. Any time driving responsibility changes from one individual to another

A

d. Any time driving responsibility changes from one individual to another

169
Q

Tiller operators must be particularly aware of:
Select one:
a. poor gas mileage.
b. proper overhead clearance.
c. excessive wear on apparatus tires.
d. improper storage of items on apparatus.

A

b. proper overhead clearance.

170
Q

Which stability control system applies brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction the operator positions the steering wheel?
Select one:
a. Roll stability control
b. Electronic stability control
c. Axle differential stability control
d. Automatic sensor stability control

A

b. Electronic stability control

171
Q

On an aerial apparatus, which of the following refers to the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at wheelbase midpoint?
Select one:
a. Breakover angle
b. Angle of approach
c. Angle of departure
d. Angle of culmination

A

a. Breakover angle

172
Q

What is the primary reason for daily pretrip inspections?
Select one:
a. Minimize mechanical failure
b. Justify additional shift hours
c. Keep warranties from lapsing
d. Maintain discipline in the department

A

a. Minimize mechanical failure

173
Q

Which is a guideline IFSTA recommends when backing apparatus?
Select one:
a. Sound horn in a series with as many blasts as possible in thirty seconds
b. Sound one long blast of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus
c. Sound two short blasts of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus
d. Sound four short blasts of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus

A

c. Sound two short blasts of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus

174
Q

Which stability control system becomes active when the antilock braking system computer senses an imminent roll over condition?
Select one:
a. Roll stability control
b. Electronic stability control
c. Axle differential stability control
d. Automatic sensor stability control

A

a. Roll stability control

175
Q

Kerescene

A

Hydrocarbon

176
Q

On a sharp curve or when turning corners apparatus, driver should shift standard transmission into a _____ gear_____ entering the curve or intersection.

A

Lower, before

177
Q

The use of warning devices is essential when responding to an alarm and in doing so

A

Does not allow the driver to disregard other drivers

178
Q

priming water enters the pump because

A

Atmospheric pressure forces it into the pump

179
Q

A device used to indicate water pressure in psi is a ____ gauge

A) Force
B) Pressure

A

B) Pressure

180
Q

Available flow from hydrants is estimated by determining the percent drop between the ___ and ____ pressures

A

Static and residual

181
Q

____ denotes a force per unit area with the measurement of force in pounds and the measurement of area in square inches

A) Pressure
B) Force

A

A) Pressure

182
Q

Solid bore hand line nozzle pressure

A

50 psi

183
Q

Solid bore master stream nozzle pressure

A

80 psi

184
Q

All fog nozzle pressure

A

100 psi

185
Q

Theoretically, the maximum distance, a pump can lift water at sea level is

A) 33.8 feet
B) 45.7 feet
C) 66.1 feet
D) 88.4 feet

A

A) 33.8 feet

186
Q

A device that can be used to determine pressure at the opening of a smooth bore is

A

Pilot tube

187
Q

Which primer utilizes the Venturi principle

A) Oil less primer
B) Exhaust primer
C) Vacuum primer
D) Air primer

A

B) Exhaust primer

188
Q

For drafting purposes lift is measured from the ____ of the pump

A

Surface of water to center

189
Q

A relief valve bypasses excess water from the discharge side of the pump to the

A

Pump intake

190
Q

During an effective water, shuttle operation requiring two pumpers the pumps that are located near the emergency scene is called the

A) booster pumper
B) fire pumper
C) supply pumper
D) dump site pumper

A

D) Dump site pumper

191
Q

In a fire, which apparatus has the highest priority for position?

A

Aerial apparatus

192
Q

When determining the size of a water tanker, a Fire Department should consider

A

Bridge, weight restrictions

193
Q

When calculating the time for water shuttle operation timing starts when

A

The dump valve is opened on the tender

194
Q

Which of the following is not a consideration or factor in determining the usability of a static water source?

A) silt and debris
B) depth of water
C) water pressure
D) freezing weather

A

C) water pressure

195
Q

When making a connection at a hydrant, the intake hose should

A

Have a slight curve

196
Q

Once supplying a sprinkler system a minimum of ____ should be used

A) One 2.5” line
B) Two 2.5” lines
C) One 3” line
D) Two 3” lines

A

C) One 3” line

197
Q

Pump discharge pressure in excess of ____ psi may damage the standpipe system and result in breaks

A) 150 psi
B) 250 psi
C) 200 psi
D) 400 psi

A

C) 200 psi

198
Q

Most alcohol resistant foams are effective and controlling hydrocarbon fires when used at ____ concentration

A) 3%
B) 6%
C) .5%
D) 1%

A

A) 3 %

199
Q

When using foam selection of the proportioner depends on

A

The foam solution requirements and available water pressure

200
Q

The high cost of foam has prompted departments to use water instead of foam during testing because of the difference in ___ the rate of pickup is slightly different

A

Viscosity

201
Q

You are trying to generate foam using an in-line eductor and a 5 gallon bucket of foam. The foam is a very poor quality. What is a common cause

A

Eductor and nozzle do not match

202
Q

The process that causes foam concentrate to move through the device and into the water stream is called the ___ principle

A

Venturi

203
Q

When using an in-line eductor the back pressure must not exceed

A) 70-80 percent of the inlet
B) 40-50 percent of the inlet
C) 30-40 percent of the inlet
D) 60-70 percent of the inlet

A

D) 60-70 percent of the inlet

204
Q

An example of a polar solvent is

A

Acetone

205
Q

Fire fighting foam consists of approximately ___ percent of water

A) 6-10
B) 3-6
C) 94-99.9
D) 40-60

A

C) 94-99.9

206
Q

The most efficient way to unload a tanker/tender is to

A) dump water into tanks using gravity
B) dump water into jet using tank, assisted dump valve
C) pump the water into a dump using two 3” lines
D) a and b are equally efficient

A

D) a and b are equally efficient

207
Q

The formula for calculating the GPM flow rate for a tender is?

A

Tank size - 10% divided by trip time

208
Q

The residual pressure reading at the intake gauge of the pumped in a relay pumping operation should not fall below ____ psi

A) 20
B) 40
C) 25
D) 30

A

A) 20

209
Q

PDP is equal to

A

NP + TPL

210
Q

Dual pumping operation is

A

Placing the second pumper at a hydrant and connecting both pumpers intake to intake

211
Q

In a relay pumping operation any adjustment of pressure at the source of the pumper is made to maintain the minimum ___ pressure at the next pumper in line.

A

Intake pressure

212
Q

If an apparatus and crew arrive on scene where no fire conditions are evident, it is advisable to position the apparatus ___

A

Near the front entrance

213
Q

The minimum depth of water required to pull draft is

A) 6 ft
B) 10 ft
C) 8 ft
D) 4 ft

A

D) 4 ft

214
Q

NFPA requires that a pumper must pump it’s rated capacity at ___ of the lift

A) 15 ft
B) 12 ft
C) 10 ft
D) 20 ft

A

C) 10 ft

215
Q

When using 2.5“ or 3” hose lines to supply the pumper directly off the hydrant pressure, it is recommended that the lines be no longer than?

A) 200 ft
B) 300 ft
C) 400ft
D) 150 ft

A

B) 300 ft

216
Q

In a shuttle operation what is the available GPM if

Tanker A 3,000 tank, trip time 12 minutes
Tanker B 2,500 tank, trip time 10 minutes
Tanker C 1,000 tank, trip time 10 minutes

A

203 GPM

217
Q

The following methods can be used to operate a dump site. Which of the following choices is not a method of operation?

A) direct pumping
B) relay pumping
C) Nurse tender
D) portable water tank

A

B) relay pumping

218
Q

The Driver Operator must always make sure the ____ is completely open when filling or dumping is taking place to prevent damage to the tank.

A) drains
B) vents
C) valves
D) gauges

A

B) Vents

219
Q

In large defensive operations, the main positioning factor is to:

A) be close enough to operate pre-connects efficiently
B) avoid parking in an area of high radiated heat
C) avoid area of possible flying embers
D) both b and c are correct

A

D) both b and c are correct

220
Q

On a working Fire, if the apparatus must position up a long narrow driveway it is best if?

A

The apparatus lay the supply hose in as it moves into position

221
Q

The left side of an apparatus is also known as the:

A

Street side

222
Q

Which driving skill would not require using a spotter

A

Diminishing clearance

223
Q

How many cones are used during the serpentine driving skill?

A

3

224
Q

Which is a result of over-throttling?

A) capsizing
B) loss of power
C) fluid leaks
D) transmission malfunction

A

B) Loss of power

225
Q

When stopping an apparatus, it is necessary to consider the:

A

Condition of the brakes

226
Q

The purpose of the diminishing clearance driving skill is to measure a driver’s ability to:

A

maneuver apparatus in a straight line

227
Q

Which best describers a wet-barrel hydrant?

A

Does not require drainage after use

228
Q

When responding to a vehicle fire you should position the apparatus at least_______feet from the involved vehicle.

A) 25
B) 20
C) 30
D) 35

A

C) 30

229
Q

Many accidents involving apparatus are caused by the operator:

A

misunderstanding the capabilities of the apparatus

230
Q

What is the minimum amount of 2-1/2” hose to be carried of a water tender?

A) 150 ft
B) 200 ft
C) 300 ft
D) 400 ft

A

B) 200 feet

231
Q

if an evasive maneuver is required, the apparatus driver should:

A

always leave a way out

232
Q

Before shutdown the apparatus engine temperature should be allowed to stabilize by idling it for_______minutes.

A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 4
C) 5 to 10
D) 3 to 5

A

D) 3 to 5

233
Q

Which is a valid exception to the recommendation that all riders must be seat belted while apparatus is in motion?

A

While loading hose

234
Q

During a test of the parking brake, the apparatus should come to a complete stop within about

A) 26 feet (8 m)
B) 20 feet (6 m)
C) 33 feet (10 m)
D) 17 feet (5 m)

A

B) 20 feet (6 m)

235
Q

The standard that gives direction for establishing a driver/operator training program is National Fire Protection Association:

A) 1582
B) 1951
C) 1451
D) 1002

A

C) 1451

236
Q

Apparatus with air brakes should be equipped with an air pressure protection valve which prevents the operation of air horns when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below_______psi(kPa).

A) 60 psi
B) 80 psi
C) 45 psi
D) 120 psi

A

B) 80 psi

237
Q

Most driving regulations pertain to environmental conditions that are:

A) wet or dry
B) wet and clear
C) dry and clear
D) dry and visible

A

C) dry and clear

238
Q

When is it acceptable to be in a moving apparatus without wearing a seat belt?

A

Loading hose, providing medical care, and tiller training

239
Q

To be considered a quint, an apparatus must have a minimum tank size of:

A) 350 gal
B) 500 gal
C) 300 gal
D) 700 gal

A

C) 300 gal

240
Q

The speedometer on an apparatus is primarily used to show speed of the vehicle, but may also indicate:

A

the pump is turning

241
Q

At what pressure will the audible alarm sound on the air brake system?

A) 60 psi
B) 80 psi
C) 120 psi
D) 40 psi

A

A) 60 psi

242
Q

_______should be checked by a mechanic on a periodic basis?

A) Differential fluid
B) Liquid surge
C) Oil
D) Dev fluid

A

A) Differential fluid

243
Q

The confined space turnaround maneuver allows an operator to turn the apparatus_______degrees.

A) 360
B) 540
C) 90
D) 180

A

D) 180

244
Q

When faced with a situation requiring evasive tactics, you should attempt to pass on:

A

the left side

245
Q

Engine brakes are activated when:

A

pressure is released from the accelerator

246
Q

steering wheel play should be no more than approximately ____ degrees in either direction

A

10

247
Q

the air pressure on apparatus equipped with air brakes should build to a sufficient level in order for the vehicle to operate within ____ seconds of starting

A) 45
B) 30
C) 10
D) 60

A

A) 45

248
Q

the oil pressure control device must operate within ____ seconds after the discharge pressure rises and restricts the pressure from exceeding 30 psi above the set level

A) 3 to 5 seconds
B) 3 to 10 seconds
C) 4 to 5 seconds
D) 3 to 6 seconds

A

B) 3 to 10 seconds

249
Q

once an automatic transmission apparatus is ready to move, your next step is to:

A

place the transmission into a gear for normal operation

250
Q

on which port would you inspect the screens for rocks or debris?

A

intakes

251
Q

the device that introduces foam concentrate into the water stream to make the foam solution is:

A) eductor
B) foam proportioner
C) water tanks
D) pump

A

B) foam proportioner

252
Q

one of the functions of apparatus maintenance records is to:

A

document recurrent repairs

253
Q

which statement regarding overheating of brakes is correct?

A

loss of braking function that occurs because of excessive use of brakes is brake fade

254
Q

you encounter a school bus with flashing signal lights while responding to a call. you must stop and proceed when?

A

only after a proper signal was given by the bus driver

255
Q

while traveling in the center lane of a multiple lane highway on an emergency call, the vehicle in front of you stops. you should:

A

brake to reduce speed and pass on the left side of the vehicle

256
Q

you have responded to an emergency on a limited access highway. your apparatus is not being used: you should

A

use the apparatus as a barrier between the traffic flow and the responders on the scene

257
Q

in adverse weather, you can find out how slippery the road is and determine your approximate stopping distance by:

A

carefully applying the brakes in an area free of traffic

258
Q

the weight transfer of ____ can be hazardous when driving fire apparatus

A) Differential fluid
B) Dev fluid
C) Liquid surge
D) Water

A

C) liquid surge

259
Q

at an intersection, if you cannot account for all lanes of traffic, then you should:

A

stop, check the lanes of traffic, then proceed

260
Q

a nonemergency response during normal operations would be:

A

no lights or sirens

261
Q

when driving an apparatus, remain in the highest gear that allows the apparatus to____ and still have some power in the reserve for acceleration

A

keep up with traffic

262
Q

the purpose of the confined space turnaround is to simulate:

A

reversing the direction of travel of a vehicle in a narrow street

263
Q

the purpose of the diminishing clearance driving skill is to measure the driver’s ability to:

A

maneuver apparatus in a straight line

264
Q

to effectively judge the ability of a vehicle to pass through areas of restricted horizontal and vertical openings, the operator must know:

A) vehicle weight
B) vehicle dimensions
C) vehicle height
D) vehicle length

A

B) vehicle dimensions

265
Q

studies have shown that an emergency vehicle is going faster than ____ mph can possibly outrun its own audible warning devices

A) 45
B) 50
C) 25
D) 35

A

B) 50

266
Q

at a wild land fire, the safest place for an attack to begin is from the:

A) staging area
B) warm zone
C) burned area
D) cold zone

A

C) burned area

267
Q

In relay operations, elevation pressure:
Select one:
a. is less than simple friction loss when water must be pumped uphill.
b. is greater than simple friction loss if water must be pumped downhill.
c. is affected both by the amount of water being moved and by the topography.
d. is not affected by the amount of water being moved, only by the topography.

A

d. is not affected by the amount of water being moved, only by the topography.

268
Q

Which of the following can be done if the amount of flow through a relay operation needs to be increased?
Select one:
a. Transition to a different water source
b. Decrease the time spent on relay operations
c. Increase the time spent on relay operations
d. Increase the diameter of the supply hose or the number of hoselines

A

d. Increase the diameter of the supply hose or the number of hoselines

269
Q

Which is MOST likely a factor in determining the need for relay pumping operations?
Select one:
a. Number of personnel available at the scene
b. Likelihood of nearby exposures catching fire
c. Whether or not fire is a multiple-alarm incident
d. Distance between incident scene and the water source

A

d. Distance between incident scene and the water source

270
Q

Placing additional pumpers in the system will increase flow during a relay operation because it shortens the length of hose each pumper must supply and allows pumpers to:
Select one:
a. periodically take breaks and check all equipment.
b. vary the amount of water provided by each pumper.
c. operate at higher pressures and maximum flows within the relay operation.
d. operate at lower pressures and maximum flows within the relay operation.

A

d. operate at lower pressures and maximum flows within the relay operation.

271
Q

Attack pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve should be set:
Select one:
a. at exactly 50 psi (350 kPa) to establish a stable operating condition.
b. at exactly 75 psi (525 kPa) to establish a stable operating condition.
c. between 50 and 75 psi (350 and 525 kPa) to establish a stable operating condition.
d. between 75 and 100 psi (525 and 700 kPa) to establish a stable operating condition.

A

c. between 50 and 75 psi (350 and 525 kPa) to establish a stable operating condition.

272
Q

The open relay method consists of:
Select one:
a. multiple pumpers of exactly the same size operating in a relay.
b. using a natural water source for supplying relay pumpers.
c. only one source pumper, relay pumper and fire attack pumper.
d. deploying portable folding drop tanks at each intake for pumpers in the relay operation.

A

d. deploying portable folding drop tanks at each intake for pumpers in the relay operation.

273
Q

When drafting from a static source, the source pumper:
Select one:
a. must have the same pump discharge pressure as other pumpers in the relay operation.
b. may need to develop a higher pump discharge pressure than other pumpers in the relay operation.
c. may need to develop a lower pump discharge pressure than other pumpers in the relay operation.
d. must vary pump discharge pressure to within a range used by other pumpers in the relay operation.

A

b. may need to develop a higher pump discharge pressure than other pumpers in the relay operation.

274
Q

Which valves allow later arriving pumpers to tie into the relay and boost pressure and volume after it has already started flowing, without interrupting the water supply?
Select one:
a. Gate valves
b. Bleeder valves
c. Inline relay valves
d. Periphery relay valves

A

c. Inline relay valves

275
Q

Which is the purpose of relay relief valves?
Select one:
a. Enhance firefighter safety
b. Require fewer personnel for the system
c. Allow equipment to exceed recommendations
d. Allow faster operation of the parts of the relay

A

a. Enhance firefighter safety

276
Q

As a relay pumper, it is advisable for driver/operators to maintain an intake pressure of:
Select one:
a. 10 to 20 psi (70 to 140 kPa).
b. 20 to 30 psi (140 to 210 kPa).
c. 30 to 40 psi (210 to 280 kPa).
d. 40 to 50 psi (280 to 350 kPa).

A

b. 20 to 30 psi (140 to 210 kPa).

277
Q

When relaying long distances:
Select one:
a. equalize spacing between pumpers as much as possible.
b. spacing between pumpers should be determined by most convenient location.
c. pumpers in the front of the relay should be further apart than pumpers toward the end of the relay.
d. pumpers in the front of the relay should be closer together than pumpers toward the end of the relay.

A

a. equalize spacing between pumpers as much as possible.

278
Q

When would a discharge manifold be used to break down the large diameter hose (LDH) into two or more hoselines that may then be connected to different pumpers?
Select one:
a. During LDH relay operations with limited water supply
b. During LDH relay operations in which personnel are limited
c. During LDH relay operations in which the attack pumper is of large capacity
d. During LDH relay operations that must supply more than one attack pumper

A

d. During LDH relay operations that must supply more than one attack pumper

279
Q

Which is an advantage when operating in an open relay?
Select one:
a. Requires less experienced personnel
b. Decreases operational costs of incidents
c. Eliminates pressure surges and inconsistent supply
d. Increases amount of water available for fire suppression

A

c. Eliminates pressure surges and inconsistent supply

280
Q

Many screw-on intake pressure relief valves are also equipped with a gate valve that allows the:
Select one:
a. pump to be manually shut off.
b. water supply to the pump to be shut off.
c. water supply to the pump to be doubled.
d. pump to signal when water is no longer required

A

b. water supply to the pump to be shut off.

281
Q
  1. Which type of valve is opened or closed by rotating a handle a quarter turn?

A) Discharge Manifold
B) In Line Relay Valve
C) Butterfly Valve
D) Bleeder Valve

A

C) Butterfly

282
Q

Direct the stream on the ground near the front edge of a burning liquid pool. The foam will roll across the surface of the fuel. This is used only on a pool of liquid fuel that is on open ground

A) Rain down
B) Roll on
C) Bank off

A

B) Roll on method

283
Q

Used when the other two are not feasible. This method directs the stream into the air above the fire or spill and allows the phone to float gently down onto the surface of the fuel.

A) Rain down
B) Roll on
C) Bank off

A

A) Rain down method

284
Q

Coefficients

A

1”: 150
1 1/4”: 80
1 1/2”: 24
1 3/4”: 15.5
2”: 8
2 1/2”: 2
2 3/4”: 1.5
3”: .8
5”. .08

285
Q

Nozzle reaction for smooth bore

A

NR=1.57 x d(sq) x NP

286
Q

Nozzle reaction for combination

A

NR= 0.0505 X Q X √NP

287
Q

Friction loss

A

FL= C x Q2 x L

288
Q

Rate of flow

A

29.7 x d2 x square root of NP

289
Q

What nozzle is used for attic or void spaces?

A) piercing
B) fog
C) distributor
D) cellar

A

D) Cellar nozzle

290
Q

What nozzle is used for aircraft or car fires?

A) piercing
B) fog
C) distributor
D) cellar

A

A) Piercing nozzle

291
Q

Hydrant colors

A

Red: 0-499
Orange: 499-999
Green: 1000-1499
Blue: 1500+

292
Q

Backing a vehicle into a restricted area

A) Diminishing clearance
B) Alley dock
C) Confined space
D) Serpentine

A

B) Alley dock

293
Q

Primer that most new pumpers are equipped with. Constructed of materials that do not require lubrication; therefore oil is not required in the priming process.

A) Oil-Less primers
B) Exhaust primers
C) Vacuum primers
D) Air primers

A

A) Oil-less primers

294
Q

Found on skid mounted pumps or older apparatus. Uses the same principle as a foam eductor. Utilizes the Venturi effect.

A) Oil-less primers
B) Exhaust primers
C) Vacuum primers
D) Air primers

A

B) Exhaust primers

295
Q

Simple device that makes use of the vacuum already present in the intake manifold. In order to prime the pump, a line is connected to the intake manifold of the engine to the intake of the fire pump with a float valve connected in the line to control it. This pump also works best at low engine RPM.

A) Oil-less primer
B) Exhaust primer
C) Vacuum primer
D) Air primer

A

C) Vacuum primer

296
Q

Becoming an increasingly more popular method of priming pumps on modern fire apparatus. Virtually all pumpers are equipped with an air brake system using a compressor that is not needed for braking while the vehicle is parked and pumping. Creates a Venturi Effect by using the compressor to supply an airline to a jet pump using no moving parts or lubricant.

A) Oil-less primer
B) Exhaust primer
C) Vacuum primer
D) Air primer

A

D) Air primer

297
Q

In a large defensive operation the main positioning factor is to:

A

Both:
-avoid parking in an area of high radiant heat
-avoid areas of possible flying embers

298
Q

According to NFPA 1901, what are the minimum capacities for a tank and pump to be in service?

A

Tank: 300 gal (1200 L)
Pump: 750 GPM (3,000 L / min)

299
Q

What is the general guideline for PSI to discharge at an FDC?

A

150 PSI

300
Q

Small fire apparatus with pump rating less than 500 GPM. Advantage is speed and mobility.

A

Mini Pumper

301
Q

Apparatus sized between mini and full sized pumper. Gross weight of 12,000 LBS (6,000 KG) and pump rating not greater than 1,000 GPM (4,000 L / min)

A

Midi pumper

302
Q

Walls in a tank to keep water in small compartments to prevent excessive water shift.

A

Baffles

303
Q

What class of foam is considered a wetting agent?

A

Class A

304
Q

Apparatus inspections

A

Circle or walk around
Operational readiness
Pretrip road worthiness
Functional check

305
Q

Brake test

A

Air pressure should build to 85-100 PSI in 45 seconds

306
Q

Loading 5” hose

A

Pulling forward at 5 MPH with a spotter

307
Q

Law pertaining to pumper

A

Law of Inertia

308
Q

Guideline to Avoid Potential Collision

A

Aim high, get the big picture, keep your eyes moving, leave yourself an out, maintain enough distance, and make sure others can see and hear you.

309
Q

At what range may apparatuses outrun audible warnings?

A

50 MPH

310
Q

Overhaul for wildland fire

A

Mop Up

311
Q

How many feet must be maintained between an apparatus and railroad?

A

30 feet

312
Q

Lift equation

A

L = 1.13 x maximum lift

313
Q

Fire attack pump mode

A

Pressure mode

314
Q

Drafting pump mode

A

RPM mode

315
Q

How often must pumps be tested?

A

Annually

316
Q

Standpipes PSI

A

Must not exceed 185 PSI

317
Q

Maximum lift variables

A

Atmospheric pressure
Condition of fire pump and primer
Intake hose, gaskets, and valves.

318
Q

The apparatus inspection should begin by approaching the vehicle and looking beneath the vehicle for spots that indicate:

A) a leaning device
B) leaking vehicle fluids
C) poor cleaning procedures
D) poor ventilation equipment

A

B) leaking fluids

319
Q

Disobeying traffic laws and department regulations makes you:

A) protected under the Good Samaritan law.
B) subject only to criminal prosecution.
C) exempt from any prosecution
D) subject to criminal and civil prosecution.

A

D) subject to criminal and civil prosecution.

320
Q

Unless specifically exempt, you are subject to:
A) NFPA 1901 guidelines
B) statues, rules, regulations, and ordinances
C) National Emergency Vehicle Response Commission Guidelines
D) Department of Motor Vehicle registration rules

A

B) statues, rules, regulations and ordinances

321
Q

When approaching unguarded railroad crossings, the driver shall:

A) use caution
B) proceed at a maximum of 5 mph
C) come to a complete stop
D) stop only when the train is in sight

A

C) come to a complete stop

322
Q

Which is correct when responding to an incident?

A) Pass on the right side of the vehicle when possible.
B) Come to a complete stop if obstructions block your view
C) There is no need to slow down for a green light intersection
D) Always have a backup person

A

B) Come to a complete stop if obstructions block your view

323
Q

Due to the size of an apparatus, or clearance needed when backing, you should:

A) back up very slowly
B) assign a spotter
C) place traffic cones around the area
D) turn on all emergency lights

A

B) assign a spotter

324
Q

Knowing what is happening around the apparatus while driving is?

A

Situational awareness

325
Q

When fire is operating with _____ it is engaged in a code 2 response.

A

Just lights

326
Q

The purpose of an inverter on an apparatus is to transform:

A

DC to AC

327
Q

An Auxiliary cooling device:

A) causes pump water to mix with radiator fluid.
B) can cause over pressurization of radiator.
C) gets its water from the intake side of the pump.
D) cools engine when the apparatus pump is engaged.

A

D) cools engine when the apparatus pump is engaged.

328
Q

The recommended method of determining the exact friction loss of any appliance is to:

A) check NFPA 1091
B) run tests with each appliance used by the department
C) review manufacturer’s specifications
D) check NFPA 1901

A

B) run tests with each appliance used by the department

329
Q

How often should the primer pump oil reservoir be checked?

A

Daily

330
Q

If an apparatus begins to skid, the driver should?

A) gradually apply brakes, bringing the apparatus to a halt.
B) turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid.
C) turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction opposite of the skid.
D) quickly release pressure from the accelerator.

A

B) turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid.

AOPP (4 decks)

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