Succinylcholine Flashcards

1
Q

A T4:T1 ratio of 1 is characteristic of neuromuscular blockade, following a single dose of SCh (true or false).

A

True. The T4:T1 ratio remains 1 with a single dose of SCh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Post-synaptic antagonist at nicotinic receptors is characteristic of neuromuscular blockade, following a single dose of SCh (true or false).

A

False. SCh is an agonist at post-junctional nicotinic receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

‘Fade’ with a tetanic stimulus is characteristic of neuromuscular blockade, following a single dose of SCh (true or false).

A

False. There is no fade of the tetanic response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Phase II block is characteristic of neuromuscular blockade, following a single dose of SCh (true or false).

A

False. Phase I block is characteristic of a single dose of SCh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pre-junctional inhibition of nicotinic receptors is characteristic of neuromuscular blockade, following a single dose of SCh (true or false).

A

False. SCh does not inhibit pre-junctional nicotinic receptors after a single dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A T4:T1 ratio of 1 is characteristic of neuromuscular blockade, following a single dose of vecuronium (true or false).

A

False. The T4:T1 ratio is less than 1 with non-depolarising relaxants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Post-synaptic antagonist at nicotinic receptors is characteristic of neuromuscular blockade, following a single dose of vecuronium (true or false).

A

True. There is competitive inhibition. Vecuronium acts as a post-synaptic antagonist at nicotinic receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

‘Fade’ with a tetanic stimulus is characteristic of neuromuscular blockade, following a single dose of vecuronium (true or false).

A

True. ‘Fade’ with a tetanic stimulus is a characteristic of neuromuscular blockade following a single dose of vecuronium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Post-tetanic potentiation is characteristic of neuromuscular blockade, following a single dose of vecuronium (true or false).

A

True. Post-tetanic potentiation is a characteristic of neuromuscular blockade following a single dose of vecuronium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pre-junctional inhibition of nicotinic receptors is characteristic of neuromuscular blockade, following a single dose of vecuronium (true or false).

A

True. Pre-junctional inhibition of nicotinic receptors can prevent fasciculations with SCh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the neonatal dose of succinylcholine?

A

2 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the infant and young child dose of succinylcholine?

A

1.5 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the older child and adult dose of succinylcholine?

A

1 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following muscles are blocked first by succinylcholine?

A. Adductor pollicis
B. Diaphragm
C. Glottic muscles

A

Glottic muscles before diaphragm, before adductor policis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following muscles recovers first after a dose of succinylcholine?

A. Adductor pollicis
B. Diaphragm
C. Glottic muscles

A

Diaphragm, followed by glottic muscles, followed by adductor policis. Thus recovery of neuromuscular function at the end of any procedure is best reflected at the adductor pollicis muscle where neuromuscular transmission is last restored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is suxamethonium use associated with hyperkalaemia?

A

Opening of the cation channel at the NMJ allows the entry of sodium ions but potassium ions can also move out through the channel. After a normal intubating dose, a rise in plasma potassium concentration up to 0.5 mmol/L may occur. This rarely causes problems in adults, but arrhythmias can be seen more frequently in patients with renal failure. In those patients where extrajunctional receptors are present, hyperkalaemia can be much greater and cardiac arrest can occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hypernatraemia may be associated with SCh use (true or false).

A

False. No change seen in plasma sodium when SCh is used.

18
Q

Hyperkalaemia may be associated with SCh use (true or false).

A

True

19
Q

Reduced intragastric pressure may be associated with SCh use (true or false).

A

False. Intra-abdominal and hence intragastric pressure is raised by SCh.

20
Q

Hyperthermia may be associated with SCh use (true or false).

A

True

21
Q

Raised intracranial pressure may be associated with SCh use (true or false).

A

True

22
Q

SCh should be avoided in patients with (true or false):

Guillain-Barré syndrome

A

True. Sch should be avoided for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome.

23
Q

SCh should be avoided in patients with (true or false):

Alzheimer’s disease

A

False. There is no NMJ abnormality with Alzheimer’s disease.

24
Q

SCh should be avoided in patients with (true or false):

Acute spinal cord transection, day 1

A

False. Extra-junctional receptor proliferation is not significant so early.

25
Q

SCh should be avoided in patients with (true or false):

Day 10 of ICU admission in severe sepsis

A

True. Immobility is associated with significant extra-junctional receptors.

26
Q

SCh should be avoided in patients with (true or false):

Disseminated pancreatic carcinoma

A

False. Plasma cholinesterase activity may be reduced, but not significantly.

27
Q

The following drug is associated with plasma cholinesterase inhibition (true or false):

Neostigmine

A

True

28
Q

The following drug is associated with plasma cholinesterase inhibition (true or false):

Mivacurium

A

False. Mivacurum is a substrate for plasma cholinesterase.

29
Q

The following drug is associated with plasma cholinesterase inhibition (true or false):

Rivastigmine

A

True

30
Q

The following drug is associated with plasma cholinesterase inhibition (true or false):

Memantine

A

False. Memantine is used in the treament of Alzheimer’s disease, but is not a cholinesterase inhibitor.

31
Q

The following drug is associated with plasma cholinesterase inhibition (true or false):

Cocaine

A

False. Cocaine is a substrate for plasma cholinesterase.

32
Q

You have diagnosed SCh apnoea in a 6-year-old child. He required ventilation on the paediatric intensive care unit for 10 hours. TOF monitoring of neuromuscular function showed return of T1 8 hours after administration of SCh.

Which of these is his most likely genotype?

A. Ea Ea
B. Ea Ef
C. Es Es
D. Eu Ea
E. Eu Ef

A

C. Es Es

These are all abnormal genotypes, but given the very long duration of paralysis, 8-10 hours, the most likely is Es Es.

Eu Ea and Eu Ef do not give significantly prolonged SCh action because there is one normal allele.

33
Q

Which of these are recognised unwanted effects of SCh?

A. Central nervous system excitation
B. Bradycardia
C. Malignant neurolept syndrome
D. Hypokalaemia
E. Myalgia

A

B. Bradycardia and E. Myalgia.

SCh does not cross the blood-brain barrier. Malignant hyperthermia (not malignant neuroleptic syndrome) is triggered by SCh and hyperkalaemia (not hypo) is associated with use of SCh in certain conditions.

34
Q

A 19-year-old female student presents for emergency appendicectomy. She is otherwise well but tells you that her mother had an abnormal reaction under anaesthesia 8 years ago during a Caesarean section and was told to avoid drugs that cause her muscles to relax. None of the rest of the family has had an anaesthetic and your patient did not have any tests following this event. Unfortunately, her mother is not available on the telephone to discuss this and her surgery was in a different hospital.

Which of these is the most likely cause of the abnormal reaction under anaesthesia?

A. A drug interaction between SCh and neostigmine
B. Allergy to vecuronium
C. Malignant hyperthermia
D. SCh anaphylaxis
E. SCh apnoea

A

D. Anaphylaxis is the most likely cause here.

A. Incorrect. The drug interaction is predictable and would not require avoidance of any drug.

B. Incorrect. Anaphylaxis is more common with SCh than with vecuronium and is the most likely cause here.

C. Incorrect. If malignant hyperthermia were suspected, more than one group of drugs should be avoided.

E. Incorrect. If SCh apnoea were the cause, the family would have been tested. There is a small chance your patient may not recall the actual testing. However, she knows her mother had a major problem and recalls her mother was told to avoid one class of drugs. It is therefore unlikely she has simply forgotten she had a blood test. There is cross-reactivity among muscle relaxants, so the whole group of muscle relaxants should be considered possible triggers for anaphylaxis.

35
Q

A 75 kg, 16-year-old boy presents for elective lower limb surgery. There are no medical conditions of note, no particular family history and neither parent has had problems with anaesthetics. You have chosen to induce with propofol (180 mg) and fentanyl (100 μg), intubate on SCh (100 mg) and plan to let the patient breathe spontaneously through an appropriately-sized endotracheal tube. Twenty minutes after administering SCh, spontaneous respiration has not resumed.

Which of these is the most appropriate action to establish the reason for non-return of spontaneous respiration?

A. Take an arterial blood gas
B. Send blood for tryptase and IgE levels
C. Measure serum potassium
D. Give 4 mg of naloxone intravenously
E. Identify the response to a TOF

A

E. Identify the response to a TOF

The opioids may cause delayed return of spontaneous respiration, but the TOF should be back to normal with four equal twitches.

None of the others identify SCh apnoea.

36
Q

Regarding suxamethonium apnoea (true or false):

About 80% of the population carry the normal genotype

A

False. About 96% of the population is homozygous for the normal gene with normal duration of action of suxamethonium.

37
Q

Regarding suxamethonium apnoea (true or false):

Dibucaine number of 70 reliably excludes suxamethonium apnoea

A

False. Dibucaine is a local anaesthetic agent that inhibits plasma cholinesterase. Dibucaine inhibits normal variant of the enzyme by 80% but other variant forms of plasma cholinesterases are inhibited less effectively. Therefore a patient homozygous for the normal variant will have a dibucaine number of 80 or above.
A DN of 30–79 and normal to decreased PChE enzyme activity indicate a variable risk. A patient homozygous for the fluoride-resistant genotype (as opposed to the more common atypical or ‘dibucaine-resistant’ type) may still have a dibucaine number of 70 but with reduced plasma cholinesterase activity.

38
Q

Regarding suxamethonium apnoea (true or false):

Pregnancy may cause prolonged effect by suxamethonium

A

Reduced plasma cholinesterase activity may be acquired and is associated with pregnancy, renal failure, hepatic disease, malignancy and concomitant drug use. In renal failure plasma cholinestrase levels are reduced by haemodilution and reduced liver production.

39
Q

Regarding suxamethonium apnoea (true or false):

The alleles for plasma cholinesterase level are carried on chromosome 19

A

Plasma cholinesterase activity may be reduced due to genetic variability. The alleles are found on chromosome 3. The alleles are usual (normal), atypical (dibucaine-resistant), silent (absent) and fluoride-resistant. About 96% of the population is homozygous for the normal gene with normal duration of action of suxamethonium.

40
Q

Regarding suxamethonium apnoea (true or false):

Renal failure is associated with reduced plasma cholinesterase levels

A

Reduced plasma cholinesterase activity may be acquired and is associated with pregnancy, renal failure, hepatic disease, malignancy and concomitant drug use. In renal failure plasma cholinestrase levels are reduced by haemodilution and reduced liver production.