stuff i cant remember Flashcards

1
Q

side effects of aluminum hydroxide? 4

A

constipation
hypophosphatemia
weakness, osteodystrophy
seizures/encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SE of calcium carbonate? 3

A

hypercalcemia
rebound acid
calcium stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SE of Mg hydroxide? 3

A

diarrhea
hyporeflexia
hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

contraindications for bismuth/sucralfate?

A

severe renal failure

antiplateletes/coags

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

absolute contras for bismuth?

A

GI bleeds salicylate hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what 5HT3 antiemetic si the worst cuase QT thing?

A

dolasetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what 5HT3 has the longest half life so its good for CINV?

A

palonosetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What occurs in serotonin syndrome?

A

neuromuscular hyperacitivy, agitation,

autonomic stimulation hyperthermia, diaphoresis, diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Best use for aprepitant?

A

post op

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what H1 receptor agonist combo is good for prengant ladies with NV of P?

A

doxylamine + pyridoxine (b6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what 3 antiemetics have anticholinergic SE?

A

H1 blockers
D2 blockers
M1 blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the 3 D2 antagonists that arent metoclopramide?

A

chlopromazine, perphenazine, prochlorperazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the two weed drugs?

A

dronabinol

nabilone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

whats youe 3 drug antiemetic regiment?

A

5ht3 + NK1 + roid

D2 next

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Whats the black box warning for alostetron?

A

ischemic colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

whats the dragons blood called and whats its MOA?

A

crofelemer

inhibits CFTR –> no cAMP –> blocks Cl channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the constipation tx that arent laxatives?

A

guanylate cyclase C agonists

periph opiod antagoinst

selective chloride channel (C2) activators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the Guanylate cyclase C agonist learned? use? MOA?

A

linaclotide

IBS-c

activates GCC –> increases cGMP –> increases chloride thru CFTR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the peripheral opiod antagonists? 3

whats bad bout the 3rd?

A

methylnaltrexone
naloxegol
alvimopan –> MI risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what os the selective chloride channel activator? MOA?

A

lubiprostone

activates CIC 2 channels –> more secretion

21
Q

use for lubiprostone?

A

IBS-c
CIC
OIC

22
Q

interactions with osmotic saline laxatives?

A

diuretics, CHF, HTN, renal disease

23
Q

what are the non senna irritants?

A

bisacodyl
castor oil
glycerin
sodium picosulfate

24
Q

what are bad things about irritants?

A

go into boob milk, GI obstruction/ileus

25
Q

what is procolonoscopty only?

A

perpopik

26
Q

what 4 drugs are UC?

A

5-ASA
JAK stat inhibitors
TNF-a inhibitors
4a-intigren inhibitors

27
Q

what are the 4 5-ASA drugs?

A
-sala-
mesalamine
balsalazide
osalazine
sulfasalasizne
28
Q

what is the JAK inhibitor?

A

tofacitinib

UC ONLY

29
Q

what are the TNF-a inhibitors?

which are CD, UC, both?

A

adalimumab (both)
infliximab (both)
golimumab (UC)
certolizumab (CD)

30
Q

SE of TNF-a inhibotrs?

A

liver toxicity, infecitons

31
Q

what are the 2 a-4 integrin inhibitors? which is used for which

A

vedolizumab (BOTH)

natalizumab (CD)

32
Q

whats the big side effect with natalizumab?

A

JC reactivation –> PML

33
Q

whats the IL-12/23 inhibitor?

A

ustekinumab

34
Q

what is fidaxomicin? MOA?

A

macrolide

binds and inhuibits 50s subunit

35
Q

what is the MOA for iodoquinol?

A

halogenated hydroxyguinoline, unknown

36
Q

MOA of nitazoxanide?

A

inhibits ferredoxin idioreductase

37
Q

SE of nitazoxanide?

A

large salivary glands

yellow eyes and yellower pee

38
Q

what is niclosamide used for? whats its MOA?

A

cestode fair

inhibitrs oxphos and ATPase activity

39
Q

praziquantel MOA?

A

increases membrane permeability to Ca

40
Q

what is the MOA of ledipasvir?

A

viral NS5A inhibitor –> virus cant replicated

HEP C

41
Q

what is the MOA for ribavirin? contras?

A

inhibitrs synth of guanin nucleotides by inhibitirng monophosphate dehydrogenase

pregnancy, anemia

42
Q

what is the MOA for simeprevir?

A

HCV protease inhibitor (NS35/4A inhibitor) –> no replication

43
Q

what is the MOA for sofosbuvir?

A

inhibitrs HCV RNA dependant RNA polymerase (NS5B)

HEP C

44
Q

when can you not use INF-a for hepatitis?

A

decompensated cirrhosis

45
Q

what are the nucleoSIDES for hep B? 3

A

entecavir (1)
lamivudine
telbivudine

46
Q

what are the nucleoTIDES for Hep B? 2

A

tenofovir (1)

adefovir

47
Q

what are the other Hep C t protease inhibitors? that arent simeprevir

A

telaprevir

boceprevir

48
Q

what are the other NS5A inhibitors that arent ledipasvir?

A

elbasvir

velpatasfvir