study these

Question 1

what license must a physician have to dispense, prescribe, or administer controlled substances?

a) . lawyers
b) . narcotics
c) . business
d) . occupational

Answer 1

b). narcotics

Question 2

physicians with a narcotic license are required to register on June 30 of each year with______.

a) . food and drug agency
b) . drug enforcement agency
c) . american red cross
d) . american medical association

Answer 2

b). drug enforcement agency

Question 3

a drug that causes urination is called a(n)_____.

a) . diuretic
b) . emectic
c) . cirrhotic
d) .esculent

Answer 3

a). diuretic

Question 4

a drug used to relieve cough is called a(n)___.

a) . antitussive
b) . bronchodilator
c) . antiseptic
d) . antitoxin

Answer 4

a). antitussive

Question 5

a drug that neutralizes acidity is called a(n)______.

a) . antidiarrheic
b) . antinauseant
c) . antacid
d) . placebo

Answer 5

c). antacid

Question 6

a drug that controls appetite is called a(n)____

a) . appetite suppressor
b) . appetite stimulant
c) . antispasmodic
d) . appetite placebo

Answer 6

b). appetite stimulant

Question 7

a drug use to prevent blood from clotting is called a(n)____.

a) . anticholinergic
b) . anticoagulant
c) .antidote
d) .placebo

Answer 7

b). anticoaguant

Question 8

a drug used to control temperature is called an_____

a) . antipyetic
b) . antidote
c) . anticoagulant
d) . analgesic

Answer 8

a). antipyretic

Question 9

a drug that reduces anxiety is called a(n)____

a) . diuretic
b) . tranquilizer
c) . vaccine
d) . ointment

Answer 9

b). tranquilizer

Question 10

a drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a ______.

a) . vasodilator
b) . vasoconstrictor
c) . sedative
d) . laxative

Answer 10

a). vasodilator

Question 11

a drug that decreases congestion is called a______.

a) . suppressant
b) . decongestant
c) . diuretic
d) . sedative

Answer 11

b). decongestant

Question 12

a drug that causes the pupil of the eye to dilate is called a _____.

a) . myotic
b) . mydriatic
c) . placebo
d) . vaccine

Answer 12

b). mydriatic

Question 13

a date on the bottle of medication that provides a “ use until” date is the _____.

a) . manufacture’s date
b) . outdated or expiration date
c) . “sell by” date
d) . ingredient half-life date

Answer 13

b). outdated or expiration date

Question 14

a drug that increases urinary output is called a(n)_____.

a) . miotic
b) . diuretic
c) . cytotoxin
d) . expectorant

Answer 14

b). diuretic

Question 15

a liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n)____.

a) . solution
b) . emulsion
c) . elixir
d) . tinctures

Answer 15

b). emulsions

Question 16

nitroglycerine is used for _____.

a) . narcotic overdose
b) . inflammatory conditions
c) . treatment of angina pectoris
d) . anti-anxiety muscle relaxant treatment

Answer 16

c). treatment of angina pectoris

Question 17

hydrocortisone is a drug used to supress____.

a) . inflammation
b) . appetite
c) . swelling
d) . excretion of urine

Answer 17

a). inflammation

Question 18

schedule I drug include_____.

a) . miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs
b) . substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
c) . minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
d) . no correct answer

Answer 18

b). substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

Question 19

schedule IV drugs include______.

a) . includes various narcotics such as opium
b) . substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
c) . minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
d) . no correct answer

Answer 19

c). minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

Question 20

a small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n)____

a) . transdermal system
b) . reservoir system
c) . ointment system
d) . epidermis system

Answer 20

a). transdermal system

Question 21

the buccal method of administering a drug is done by____.

a) . placing the medication between the gum and cheek
b) . inhalation
c) . intramuscular injection
d) . intravenous solution

Answer 21

a). placing the medication between the gum and cheek

Question 22

oxygen is ordered as percentage of oxygen concentration and its rate of delivery is written as _____.

a) . liters per minute
b) . volume per minute
c) . degrees per minute
d) . percentage per minute

Answer 22

a). liters per minute

Question 23

a drug that produces sleep is called a(n)_____.

a) . placebo
b) . hypnotic
c) . antispasmodic
d) . diaphoretic

Answer 23

b). hypnotic

Question 24

an inactive substance substituted in place of the actual drug to satisfy the patient is called a(n)_____.

a) . sedative
b) . stimulant
c) . placebo
d) .antiseptic

Answer 24

c). placebo

Question 25

the abbreviation for elixir is ________.

a) . elix
b) . exr
c) . elx
d) . EX

Answer 25

a). elix

Question 26

the abbreviation for emulsion is _____.

a) . emul
b) .eml
c) . els
d) . EML

Answer 26

a). emul

Question 27

the abbreviation for fluid is ____.

a) . fl and fld
b) . wet
c) . flud
d) . fuid

Answer 27

a). fl and fld

Question 28

the abbeviation for ointment is _____.

a) . ont
b) .oint,ung
c) . ONT
d) . cream

Answer 28

b).oint,ung

Question 29

the abbreviation for soulution is _____.

a) . sol
b) . slt
c) . stn
d) . SSN

Answer 29

a). sol

Question 30

the abbreviation for suppository is____.

a) . supp
b) . syr
c) . SSUP
d) . SPT

Answer 30

a). supp

Question 31

the abbreviation for syrup is _____.

a) . sup
b) . syr
c) . spp
d) . syp

Answer 31

b). syr

Question 32

the abbreviation for tablet is _____.

a) .tbb
b) . tsp
c) . tbl
d) . tab

Answer 32

d). tab

Question 33

the abbreviation for tincture is______.

a) . tcc
b) . tinc
c) . tct
d) . tcr

Answer 33

b). tinc

Question 34

the abbreviation for intramuscular is____.

a) . IM
b) . ims
c) . IMSC
d) . imul

Answer 34

a). IM

Question 35

the abbreviation for injection

a) . in
b) . inj
c) . ing
d) .ij

Answer 35

b). inj

Question 36

the abbreviation for right ear is_________.

a) . AD
b) . RE
c) . re
d) . rter

Answer 36

a). AD

Question 37

the abbreviation for both ears is ____.

a) . AU
b) . BE
c) . bthe
d) . BERS

Answer 37

a). AU

Question 38

the abbreviation for drops is _____.

a) . gtt
b) . dtt
c) . gts
d) . dts

Answer 38

a). gtt

Question 39

the abbreviation for two times a day is _____.

a) . tid
b) . bid
c) . qid
d) . qh

Answer 39

b). bid

Question 40

when mixing reagents always read the label _____.

a) . with the doctor
b) . with a nurse
c) . with a magnifying glasses
d) . twice

Answer 40

d). twice

Question 41

the ____ pages of the physician’s desk reference is where a medical assistant would be able to locate a medication by brand or generic name.

a) . white
b) . blue
c) . pink
d) . gray

Answer 41

c). pink

Question 42

medications can be located in the physciian’s drug reference under all of the following catergories except_____.

a) . manufacturer
b) . generic name
c) . classification
d) . composition

Answer 42

d). composition

Question 43

the physciain’s has ordered 500 mg. of medication the amount on hand is 400 mg tabs. how many tablets will be given?

a) . 0.5 tab
b) . 1 tab
c) . 2 tab
d) . 2.5 tab

Answer 43

a). 0.5 tab

Question 44

the physician has ordered 50 mg of demerol be given to a patient. the amount of hand is 100mg/ml. how many cc’s of dermerol will be injected?

a) . 0.5 cc
b) . 1 cc
c) . 1.5 cc
d) . 0.25 cc

Answer 44

a). 0.5 cc

Question 45

the suffix -emia means_____.

a) . blood
b) . erudite
c) . hematemesis
d) . condition of the urine

Answer 45

a). blood

Question 46

the abbreviation for urinalysis is ____.

a) . UA
b) . UN
c) . hystero
d) .urino

Answer 46

a). UA

Question 47

the medical term for groups of cells, with the same function is ____.

a) . hormone
b) . artery
c) . system
d) . tissue

Answer 47

d). tissue

Question 48

the medical term for the basic unit of body structure is ____.

a) . vein
b) . tissue
c) . cell
d) . organ

Answer 48

c). cell

Question 49

the abbreviation for belowor low is _____.

a) . HUC
b) . hyper
c) . hypo
d) . post or p

Answer 49

c). hypo

Question 50

the medial term for the time when menstruation begins is_____.

a) . menopause
b) . puberty
c) . menarche
d) . period

Answer 50

c). menarche

Question 51

the medical term for the time when menstruation stops is _____.

a) . reflex
b) . growth
c) . menopause
d) . menarche

Answer 51

c). menopause

Question 52

the abbreviation for gastrointestinal is ____.

a) . Gtt or G.T.T
b) . yn. or G.Y.N
c) . GI or G.I.
d) . abd

Answer 52

c). GI or G.I.

Question 53

the medical term for an involuntary movement is ____.

a) . growth
b) . reflex
c) . puberty
d) . stretching

Answer 53

b). reflex

Question 54

the medial term for paralysis from the waist down is _____.

a) . coma
b) . quadriplegia
c) . disaster
d) . paraplegia

Answer 54

d). paraplegia

Question 55

the medical term for paralysis from the neck down is _____.

a) . paraplegia
b) . quadriplegia
c) . hemiplegia
d) . stroke

Answer 55

b). quadriplegia

Question 56

the medical abbreviation for by mouth is ____.

a) . po
b) . PMC or P.M.C
c) . pc
d) . per

Answer 56

a). po

Question 57

the abbreviation for dressing is ____.

a) . dsg
b) . ds
c) . DSM
d) . DSS

Answer 57

a). dsg

Question 58

the medical term for paralysis on one side of the body is____.

a) . paraplegia
b) . coma
c) . hemiplegia
d) . quadriplegia

Answer 58

c). hemiplegia

Question 59

the medical term for circular movement around a central point is ______.

a) . extension
b) . rotation
c) . abduction
d) . dorsiflexion

Answer 59

b). rotation

Question 60

the medical term for turning the palm forward, as applied to the hand is _______.

a) . extension
b) . flexion
c) . supination
d) . adduction

Answer 60

c). supination

Question 61

the medical term for a decrease in size or a wasting is _____.

a) . pronation
b) . atrophy
c) . plantar flexion
d) . abduction

Answer 61

b). atrophy

Question 62

the medical term for straightening of a body part is _____.

a) . extension
b) . flexion
c) . dorsiflexion
d) . pronation

Answer 62

a). extension

Question 63

the abbrevition for postprandial blood sugar is ____.

a) . PP
b) . pre
c) . PPBS
d) . post or p

Answer 63

c). PPBS

Question 64

the medical term for moving a body part away from the body is ____.

a) . rotation
b) . abduction
c) . dorsiflexion
d) . pronation

Answer 64

b). abduction

Question 65

the medical term for bending a body part is ____.

a) . dorsiflexion
b) . external rotation
c) . flexion
d) . range-of-motion

Answer 65

c). flexion

Question 66

the medial term for turning the palm backward is ____.

a) . pronation
b) . adduction
c) . external rotation
d) . supination

Answer 66

a). pronation

Question 67

the medical term for bending backward is _____.

a) . contracture
b) . dorsiflexion
c) . hyperextension
d) . extension

Answer 67

b). dorsiflexion

Question 68

the medical term for the abnormal shortening of a muscle is _____.

a) . adduction
b) . extension
c) . contracture
d) . flexion

Answer 68

c). contracture

Question 69

the medical term for moving a body part toward the midline of the body is ______.

a) . flexion
b) . adbuction
c) . adduction
d) . contracture

Answer 69

c). adduction

Question 70

the abbreviation for laboratory is______.

a) . lab
b) . L
c) . lbb
d) . lbt

Answer 70

a). lab

Question 71

the abbreviation for discontinue is _____.

a) . DD
b) . D.&C. or D&C
c) . DX
d) . d/c

Answer 71

d). d/c

Question 72

the abbreviation for bedtime or hour of sleep is___.

a) . hyper
b) . b.m. or B.M.
c) . hs
d) . BSC or bsc

Answer 72

c). hs

Question 73

the abbreviation for above or high is____.

a) . hyper
b) . approx
c) . hypo
d) . HS or hs

Answer 73

a). hyper

Question 74

the abbreviation for hour is ____.

a) . ht
b) . HS or hs
c) . ord
d) . hr or h

Answer 74

d). hr or h

Question 75

the abbreviation for electroencephalogram is_____.

a) . EEG
b) . EKG
c) . ECG
d) . E

Answer 75

a). EEG

Question 76

the abbreviation for Papanicolaou smear is____.

a) . pap smear
b) . PS
c) . PPSM
d) . P smear

Answer 76

a). pap smear

Question 77

the abbreviation for cancer is ____.

a) . cc or c.c
b) . CCU or C.C.U.
c) . CA
d) . C/O or c/o

Answer 77

c). CA

Question 78

the medical term for loss of appetite is ____.

a) . dehydration
b) . edema
c) . anorexia
d) . nutrient

Answer 78

c). anorexia

Question 79

the medical term for tube feeding is____.

a) . IV
b) . gavage
c) . IVN
d) . esophageal introduction

Answer 79

b). gavage

Question 80

the medical erm for sugar in the urine is ____.

a) . glucosuria
b) . ketone body
c) . acetone
d) . catheter

Answer 80

a). glucosuria

Question 81

the common term for a decubitus ulcer, a pressure sore is_____.

a) . blister
b) . pimple
c) . fever blister
d) . bedsore

Answer 81

d). bedsore

Question 82

the abbreviation for temperature, pluse, and repiration is _____.

a) . temp
b) . TPR
c) . trfc
d) . vtls

Answer 82

b). TPR

Question 83

the word element phlebo means_____.

a) . vein
b) . breathing
c) . air, lungs
d) . alongside of

Answer 83

a). vein

Question 84

the word element pneumo means ____.

a) . diease
b) . air, lungs
c) . eye
d) . fear, dread

Answer 84

b). air, lungs

Question 85

the word adeno means____.

a) . pain
b) . both
c) . gland
d) . anus

Answer 85

c). gland

Question 86

the word element algia, algesia, refer to____.

a) . artery
b) . pain
c) . against
d) . air

Answer 86

b). pain

Question 87

the word element cardio means______.

a) . gall
b) . colon
c) . heart
d) . cut

Answer 87

c). heart

Question 88

the word element cranio means____.

a) . skull
b) . blood
c) . common bile duct
d) . cartilage

Answer 88

a). skull

Question 89

the word ectomy means______.

a) . air
b) . outer, on the outside
c) . surgical removal
d) . no correct answer

Answer 89

c). surgical removal

Question 90

the word element emesis means____.

a) . vomiting
b) . kill
c) . weakness
d) . no correct answer

Answer 90

a). vomiting

Question 91

the abbreviation for chief complaint is _____.

a) . CC
b) . ccom
c) . chf
d) . CCFD

Answer 91

a). CC

Question 92

the abbreviation for grain is_____.

a) . gr
b) . g
c) . gn
d) . grn

Answer 92

a). gr

Question 93

the abbreviation carb means_____.

a) . carbolic
b) . computer aided sleep system
c) . carbohydrate
d) . no correct answer

Answer 93

c). carbohydrate

Question 94

neoplasm refers to____.

a) . above
b) . new growth
c) . cut into
d) . liver

Answer 94

b). new growth

Question 95

high blood pressure is referred to as_______.

a) . palpitation
b) . hypertension
c) . bradycardia
d) . tachycardia

Answer 95

b). hypertension

Question 96

the opposite of deep is____.

a) . superficial
b) . low
c) . proximal
d) . no correct answer

Answer 96

a). superficial

Question 97

erythema refers to___.

a) . blue skin
b) . red skin
c) . gray skin
d) . yellow skin

Answer 97

b). red skin

Question 98

the abbreviation for toxic shock syndrome is____.

a) . TSS
b) . tox
c) . tsx
d) . txs

Answer 98

a). TSS

Question 99

the word element super means____.

a) . great
b) . above
c) . study of
d) . no correct answer

Answer 99

b). above

Question 100

the word element cise means_____.

a) . colon
b) . cut
c) . tumor, swelling, hernia, sac
d) . no correct answer

Answer 100

b). cut

Question 101

the word element centesis means____.

a) . slow
b) . common bile duct
c) . cell
d) . puncture

Answer 101

c). cell

Question 102

the word element renal means_____.

a) . kidney
b) . flow
c) . nose
d) . no correct answer

Answer 102

a). kidney

Question 103

the word element post means____.

a) . pus
b) . before
c) . after
d) . to few

Answer 103

c). after

Question 104

the word element osis means____.

a) . tumor
b) . eye
c) . condition of
d) . ear

Answer 104

c). condition of

Question 105

the word element rhino means____.

a) . ear
b) . nose
c) . throat
d) . eye

Answer 105

b). nose

Question 106

the word element stomato means____.

a) . mouth or the ostium uteri
b) . upper intestine
c) . psychogenic sysptoms
d) . gallstones

Answer 106

a). mouth or the ostium uteri

Question 107

inflammation of the mucous lining of the vagina is called_____.

a) . phlegmon
b) . vaginitis
c) . pyorrhea
d) . thrush

Answer 107

b). vaginitis

Question 108

inflammation of the gums is called_____.

a) . stomatitis
b) . gingivitis
c) . dental inflammation
d) . thrush

Answer 108

b). gingivitis

Question 109

lesions of the mucous membrane of the stomach are called______ ulcers.

a) . gastric
b) . intestinal
c) . duodenal
d) . follicular

Answer 109

a). gastric

Question 110

a serious chronic disease of the liver is called_____.

a) . hiatal hernia
b) . cirrhosis
c) . cholecystitis
d) . pancreatitis

Answer 110

b). cirrhosis

Question 111

chronic inflammation of the colon is called_____.

a) . colitis
b) . colonitis
c) . pancreatitis
d) . no correct answer

Answer 111

a). colitis

Question 112

inflammation of the gallbladder is called_____.

a) . cystitis
b) . colitis
c) . diverticulitis
d) . cholecystitis

Answer 112

d). cholecystitis

Question 113

inflammation of the pancreas is called_____.

a) . pancreatitis
b) . colitis
c) . diverticulitis
d) . cholecystitis

Answer 113

a). pancreatitis

Question 114

inflammation of the appendix is called_____.

a) . pancreatitis
b) . appendicitis
c) . cholecystitis
d) . diverticulitis

Answer 114

b). appendicitis

Question 115

dilated veins that occur in the rectum are known as______.

a) . hemorrhoids
b) . hepatitis
c) . hernias
d) . no correct answer

Answer 115

a). hemorrhoids

Question 116

an instrument called a centrifuge______.

a) . freezes specimens
b) . heats specimens
c) . is used for incubation
d) . separates the cellular and liquid portion of the blood

Answer 116

d). separates the cellular and liquid portion of the blood

Question 117

rubber sleeves on an evacuated tube system make it possible for____.

a) . sterilization
b) . slower draw of blood
c) . multiple use
d) . faster draw of blood

Answer 117

c). multiple use

Question 118

preparing for a glucose tolerance test ______hours before or during the test, the patient should not eat, smoke, drink, coffee or alcohol.

a) . one
b) . ten
c) . one half
d) . two

Answer 118

b). ten

Question 119

in the evacuated blood collection system the evacuated glass tubes come in different sizes, and the stoppers are_____ to denote the type of additive or lack of one.

a) . striped
b) . serrated
c) . stamped
d) . color-coded

Answer 119

d). color-coded

Question 120

during a venipuncture, to secure the needle during insertion into te tube stopper, you need a _____.

a) . holder
b) . sleeve
c) . tape
d) . ball of cotton

Answer 120

a). holder

Question 121

which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture?

a) . 24-25
b) . 21-22
c) . 19-20
d) . 16-18

Answer 121

b). 21-22

Question 122

The maximum time a tourniquet should be tied on the upper arm while drawing blood is______.

a) 4 minuets
b) 2 minuets
c) 3 minuets
d) 1 minute

Answer 122

d) 1 minute

Question 123

Arterioles are the smallest type of\_\_\_\_\_.
a) tendons
b) arteries
C) bones 
D) veins

Answer 123

b) arteries

Question 124

Use your index finger when you \_\_\_\_\_\_ for a vein.
A) stick
B) scratch 
C) palpate 
D) inject

Answer 124

C) palpate

Question 125

Which of the following is false? 
A) veins feel like an elastic tube
B) veins pulsate
C) veins give under pressure 
D) veins go different directions

Answer 125

B) veins pulsate

Question 126

When  preforming  a venipuncture, if you have a patient \_\_\_\_ the veins will become more prominent.
A) cough
B) hold their breathe 
C) make a fist
D) take a deep breathe

Answer 126

C) make a fist

Question 127

When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be wrapped around the arm about three to four inches from where you are going to\_\_\_\_\_ for a vein.
A) apply soap
B) scrape
C) tap 
D) feel

Answer 127

D) feel

Question 128

When collecting blood for cholesterol tests use a \_\_\_\_  top evacuated tube. 
A). Red
B). Yellow
C). Blue
D). Lavender

Answer 128

A). Red

Question 129

When collecting blood for a hematocrit test use a\_\_\_\_\_. 
A). Lavender-top evacuated tube
B). Red-top evacuated tube
C). Blue-top evacuated tube
D). Yellow-top evacuated tube

Answer 129

A). Lavender-top evacuated tube

Question 130

When using an evacuated tube for collection of electrolytes use a\_\_\_\_\_. 
A).  Blue-top tube
B). Red-top tube
C). Black-top tube
D). Lavender-top tube

Answer 130

B). Red-top tube

Question 131

The lid to the centrifuge should be kept\_\_\_\_when in use. 
A). Closed
B). Open
C). Ajar
D). Lifted

Answer 131

A). Closed

Question 132

When using a centrifuge, make sure equal weights are\_\_\_\_\_. 
A). Side by side
B).  Liquid
C). Opposite each other 
D). One space apart

Answer 132

C). Opposite each other

Question 133

The venipuncture site should be cleansed with\_\_\_\_. 
A). A damp solution 
B). A paper towel 
C). The back of your hand
D).  An alcohol prep

Answer 133

D). An alcohol prep

Question 134

To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and____.
A). Work in a circle to the periphery
B). Wipe carefully back and fourth
C). Cleanse vigorously for 30 seconds
D). Use a lifting motion to move away from the skin

Answer 134

A). Work in a circle to the periphery

Question 135

the cephalic, medial cubital, and basilic veins are_____ used for venipuncture.

a) . seldom
b) . never
c) . dangerous when
d) . primarily

Answer 135

d). primarily

Question 136

at the location where you are going to feel for a vein, wrap the tourniquet around the arm approximately ____ above the area.

a) . nine to ten inches
b) . one foot
c) . three to four inches
d) . one inch

Answer 136

c). three to four inches

Question 137

the color coding for a stopper of a tube with no additives is (for collection of serum)_____.

a) . reen
b) . black
c) . red
d) . blue

Answer 137

c). red

Question 138

the tube to collect whole blood with an additive in it has a ____ stopper.

a) . red
b) . lavender
c) . reen
d) . yellow

Answer 138

b). lavender

Question 139

sodium citrate is an anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies because it protects certain of the _____.

a) . pro-coagulants
b) . red blood counts
c) . white blood cells
d) . enzyme inhibitors

Answer 139

a). pro-coagulants

Question 140

the primary anticoagulant additive EDTA removes calcium by forming insoluble or un-ionized calcium salts. it has an advantage of preventing platelet clumping and the formation of artifacts, therefore, good for the preparation of_____.

a) . background staining
b) . red cell preservation
c) . clotting
d) . blood films

Answer 140

d). blood films

Question 141

the blood lancet is used for the collection of blood specimens by_____.

a) . injection
b) . suction
c) . cutting
d) . skin puncture

Answer 141

d). skin puncture

Question 142

the standard point of the lancet to be used when collecting blood from a newborn heel is____ in length

a) . 2.4mm
b) . 3.6mm
c) . 4.7mm
d) . 5.5mm

Answer 142

a). 2.4mm

Question 143

the most important step in the performance of a venipuncture is____.

a) . selecting the correct needle gauge
b) . selecting the appropriate cleansing agent
c) . positively identifying the patient
d) . selecting the appropriate tourniquet

Answer 143

c). positively identifying the patient

Question 144

when cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to:

a) . wipe the site back and forth quickly with an alcohol prep
b) . blow on the alcohol to dry it so it doesn’t burn
c) . cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry
d) . have the patient wave the arm in the air to dry it faster

Answer 144

c). cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry

Question 145

to determine the size of the needle remember that the higher the gauge number the _____ needle

a) . longer
b) . smaller
c) . larger
d) . shorter

Answer 145

b). smaller

Question 146

_____ values are increased in infections and inflammatory disease,

a) . glucose
b) . hematocrit
c) . erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) . coagulation studies

Answer 146

c). erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 147

what type of blood sample will be needed to perform a hemoglobin test?

a) . EDTA added
b) . serum only
c) . white blood cells
d) . no correct answer

Answer 147

a). EDTA added

Question 148

how many hematocrit tubes should be collected from the patient?

a) . 1
b) . 2
c) . 3
d) . 5

Answer 148

b). 2

Question 149

what type of blood sample is needed when performing a PKU?

a) . venipuncture
b) . capillary
c) . either one is acceptable
d) . no correct answer

Answer 149

b). capillary

Question 150

a____ is a small, sterlie, needle-like piece of metal used to make small punctures in the dermis

a) . scarificator
b) . chain of custody
c) . person in charge
d) . local law enforcement

Answer 150

b). chain of custody

Question 151

in drug testing the ____ regulates describe how evidence is to be collected and handled.

a) . chain of command
b) . chain of custody
c) . person in charge
d) . local law enforcement

Answer 151

b). chain of custody

Question 152

a(n) ____ requires the patient to be fasting and then blood is taken every hour for a predetermined time.

a) . cholesterol test
b) . white blood cell count
c) . differential
d) . glucose tolerance test

Answer 152

d). glucose tolerance test

Question 153

right and wrong conduct is known as____.

a) . empathy
b) . criminal law
c) . ethics
d) . licensure

Answer 153

c). ethics

Question 154

the most common type of medical tort liability is____.

a) . negligence
b) . breach of contract
c) . breach of confidence
d) . fraud and deceit

Answer 154

a). negligence

Question 155

a person being sued is called the ____.

a) . plaintiff
b) . tort
c) . defendant
d) . criminal law

Answer 155

c). defendant

Question 156

the withdrawal of a physician from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of such discharge from the case by the patient is_____.

a) . contract
b) . reasonable care
c) . negligence
d) . abandonment

Answer 156

d). abandonment

Question 157

an unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injured to another is _____.

a) . litigation
b) . assault
c) . crime
d) . libel

Answer 157

b). assault

Question 158

the_____ form is used by non- institutional providers and suppliers to bill Medicare, part B covered services

a) . HCPA-1000
b) . CPT
c) . CMS-1500
d) . UB92

Answer 158

c). CMS-1500

Question 159

which codes can modifiers be added to, to indicate that a procedure or service has been altered in some way?

a) . CPT
b) . ICD-9-CM
c) . ICD-10-CM
d) . all of the choices

Answer 159

a). CPT

Question 160

the health worker is protected by law if it can be determined that he or she acted reasonable as compared with fellow workers. this is called_____.

a) . respondeat superior
b) . reasonable care
c) . duty of care
d) . statute

Answer 160

b). reasonable care

Question 161

negligence by a professional person is called_____.

a) . invasion of privacy
b) . slander
c) . malpractice
d) . tort

Answer 161

c). malpractice

Question 162

an act that violates criminal law is called______.

a) . defamation
b) . crime
c) . libel
d) . slander

Answer 162

b). crime

Question 163

the breaking of a law, promise, or duty is called_____.

a) . statute
b) . breach
c) . consent
d) . incompetent

Answer 163

b). breach

Question 164

the ability to see things from another person’s point of view is____.

a) . consent
b) . respondeat superior
c) . empathy
d) . ethics

Answer 164

c). empathy

Question 165

the time established for filin law suits is____.

a) . civil law
b) . statute of limitations
c) . contract
d) . no correct answer

Answer 165

b). statute of limitations

Question 166

one who institutes a lawsuit is______.

a) . defendant
b) . plaintiff
c) . litigation
d) . respondeat superior

Answer 166

b). plaintiff

Question 167

a major crime for which greater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is_____.

a) . licensure
b) . civil law
c) . tort
d) . felony

Answer 167

d). felony

Question 168

a violation of a person’s right not to have his or her name, photograph, or private affairs exposed of made public without giving consent is______.

a) . false imprisonment
b) . malpractice
c) . invasion of privacy
d) . statute

Answer 168

c). invasion of privacy

Question 169

holding or detaining a person against his will is____.

a) . false imprisonment
b) . crime
c) . incompetent
d) . duty of care

Answer 169

a). false imprisonment

Question 170

a wrong committed against another person or the person’s property is a ____.

a) . defamation
b) . libel
c) . tort
d) . plaintiff

Answer 170

c). tort

Question 171

a writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and to give testimony is a(n)____.

a) . habeas corpus
b) . tort of appearance
c) . subpoena
d) . tort et a travers

Answer 171

c). subpoena

Question 172

A legal statement of how an individual’s property is to be distributed after death is\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A) contract 
B). Tort
C).  Will 
D). Judgement

Answer 172

C). Will

Question 173

Information given by a patient to medical personnel which cannot be disclosed without consent of the person who gave it is\_\_\_\_. 
A). Duty of care
B). Respondent superior 
C). Judgement 
D).  Privilege communication

Answer 173

D). Privilege communication

Question 174

A rule of conduct made by government body is\_\_\_. 
A). Tort
B). Law
C). Will 
D). Contract

Answer 174

B). Law

Question 175

Failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or a person’s property is\_\_\_\_. 
A). Malpractice 
B). Negligence 
C). Slander
D). Defamation

Answer 175

B). Negligence

Question 176

Permission granted by a person voluntarily and in his right mind is\_\_\_. 
A). Consent 
B). Litigation 
C). Breach 
D). Duty of care

Answer 176

A). Consent

Question 177

Injuring the name and reputation of another person by making false statements to a third person is\_\_\_\_. 
A). Empathy 
B). Negligence 
C). Defamation 
D). Ethics

Answer 177

C). Defamation

Question 178

An agreement between two or more parties for the doing or not doing of some definite thing is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A). Contract 
B). Litigation 
C). Statute 
D). Felony

Answer 178

A). Contract

Question 179

Lack of physical or mental fitness is known as\_\_\_\_\_.  
A).  Breach of contract 
B). Abandonment 
C). Competence
D). Incompetence

Answer 179

D). Incompetence

Question 180

The final decision of a court in an action or suit is \_\_\_\_\_. 
A). Consent
B). Contract 
C). Judgement 
D). Licensure

Answer 180

C). Judgement

Question 181

The central middle area of the abdomen is called the\_\_\_\_  
A). Hypogastric region 
B). Epigastric region
C). Umbilical region
D).  NO correct answer

Answer 181

C). Umbilical region

Question 182

The humerus is located in the \_\_\_\_.  
A). Leg
B). Arm
C). Back
D). Neck

Answer 182

B). Arm

Question 183

The pubis is located in the \_\_\_\_\_\_.  
A). Pelvis
B). Chest
C).  Neck
D). Foot

Answer 183

A). Pelvis

Question 184

The femur is located in the\_\_\_. 
A). Leg
B). Arm
C). Foot
D). Neck

Answer 184

A). Leg

Question 185

The patella is located in the \_\_\_. 
A). Knee
B). Elbow
C). Neck
D). Head

Answer 185

A). Knee

Question 186

The ulna is located in the \_\_\_\_\_. 
A). Back
B). Foot
C). Leg
D). Arm

Answer 186

D). Arm

Question 187

The tibia is located in the \_\_\_\_. 
A). Foot
B). Arm
C). Back
D). Leg

Answer 187

D) leg

Question 188

The fibula is located in the \_\_\_\_\_.  
A). Leg
B). Arm
C). Foot
D). Hand

Answer 188

A). Leg

Question 189

The radius is located in the \_\_\_. 
A). Arm
B). Leg
C). Foot 
D). Hand

Answer 189

A). Arm

Question 190

The maxilla is located in the \_\_\_\_\_. 
A). Head
B). Foot
C). Chest
D). Arm

Answer 190

A). Head

Question 191

The metatarsal are located in the\_\_\_\_. 
A). Foot
B). Hand
C). Back
D). Chest

Answer 191

A). Foot

Question 192

The metacarpals are located in the \_\_\_\_.  
A). Foot
B). Hand
C). Back 
D).  Chest

Answer 192

B). Hand

Question 193

The name for collar bone is\_\_\_. 
A). Carpals
B). Clavicle 
C). Fossa
D). Femur

Answer 193

B). Clavicle

Question 194

The smaller of the lower leg bones is called\_\_\_\_\_.  
A). Fibula 
B). Tibia 
C). Patella
D). Femur

Answer 194

A). Fibula

Question 195

Whooping cough is another name for\_\_\_. 
A). Croup
B). Pertussis 
C). Pleurisy 
D). Pneumonia

Answer 195

B). Pertussis

Question 196

in the positioning of the electrodes, if the electrodes are placed too close together, the amplitude will be_____

a) . small
b) . large
c) . round
d) . square

Answer 196

a). small

Question 197

the large squares on the ECG paper are equal to_____

a) 0.10 sec
b) . 20 sec
c) . 0.04 sec
d) . 0.09 sec

Answer 197

b). 0.20 sec

Question 198

a “V wave” will______ be seen in a normal EKG.

a) . always
b) . sometimes
c) . never
d) . usually

Answer 198

c). never

Question 199

the \_\_\_ switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG. 
A). major
b). sensitivity
c), red
d). thicker

Answer 199

b). sensitivity

Question 200

when preparing for lead placement you should first care for____.

a) . skin preparation
b) . application of electrode wire
c) . application of electrodes
d) . positioning of electrodes

Answer 200

a). skin preparation

Question 201

the sebaceous glands, skin, hair, and nails make up the _____ system.

a) . nervous
b) . cardiovascular
c) . sensory
d) . integumentary

Answer 201

d). integumentary

Question 202

the heart, lymphatic organs, and blood vessels are in the _____ system.

a) . respiratory
b) . sensory
c) . digestive
d) . muscular

Answer 202

c). digestive

Question 203

the lower middle area of the abdomen is called the_____.

a) . hypogastric region
b) . epigastric region
c) . umbilical region
d) . no correct answer

Answer 203

a). hypogastric region

Question 204

the upper middle area of the abdomen is called the ____.

a) . hypogastric region
b) . epigastric region
c) . umbilical region
d) . no correct answer

Answer 204

b)> epigastric region

Question 205

tendons, joints, and cartilages are in the___ system.

a) . skeletal
b) . integumentary
c) . muscular
d) . endocrine

Answer 205

a). skeletal

Question 206

the trachea, nose, lungs, and pharynx are in the ____ system.

a) . skeletal
b) .respiratiory
c) . sensory
d) . endocrine

Answer 206

b). respiratory

Question 207

the brain, nerves, and spinal cord are in the____ system.

a) . skeletal
b) . nervous
c) . sensory
d) .endocrine

Answer 207

b). nervous

Question 208

in the hman body, the senses include all of the following except

a) . ears
b) . eyes
c) . teeth
d) . nose

Answer 208

c). teeth

Question 209

the bladder, urethra, kidneys, and uterus are in the____ system.

a) . urinary
b) . reproductive
c) . respiratory
d) . muscular

Answer 209

a). urinary

Question 210

every medical facility is required by OSHA to have an exposure control plan.

a) . true
b) . false

Answer 210

a). true

Question 211

the exposure control plan shall be made available to the assistant secretary and the director OSHA upon request for examination and copying.

a) . true
b) . false

Answer 211

a). true

Question 212

HIV means

a) . hepatitis b virus
b) . hepatitis c virus
c) . human immunodeficiency virus
d) . human infectious virus

Answer 212

c). human immunodeficiency virus

Question 213

___ means any contaminated objects that can penetrate the skin including, but not limited to needles, scalpels, broken glass, broken capillary tubes, and exposed ends of dental wires.

a) . contaminated devices
b) . disposable devices
c) . contaminated sharps
d) . dangerous incisor

Answer 213

c). contaminated sharps

Question 214

reasonable anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parental contact with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that may result from the performance of an employee’s duties is called____.

a) . occupational exposure
b) . daily risk
c) . occupational risk
d) . professional threat

Answer 214

a). occupational exposure

Question 215

any individual, living or dead, whose blood, or other potentially infectious materials may be a source of occupational exposure to the employee is called a(n).___

a) . hazardous individual
b) . source individual
c) . infected specimen
d) . quarantined source

Answer 215

b). source individual

Question 216

to use a physical-chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospores is to___

a) . eradicate
b) . detoxify
c) . sterilize
d) . acid wash

Answer 216

c). sterilize

Question 217

_____ is the single most important source of HIV and HBV in the workplace

a) . seman
b) . saliva in dental procedures
c) . pleural fluid
d) . blood

Answer 217

d). blood

Question 218

the risk of infection with HIV following one needle-stick exposure to blood from a patient known to be infected with HIV is approximately____.

a) . 0.01%
b) . 0.50%
c) .1.00%
d) . 5.00%`

Answer 218

b).0.50%

Question 219

general infection-control procedures are designed to prevent transmission of a wide range of _____ and to provide a wide margin of safety in the varied situations encountered in the health-care environment

a) . diseases
b) . conditions
c) . microbiological
d) . sickness

Answer 219

c). microbiological

Question 220

contact with blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply through percutaneous inoculation, or contact with an open wound, non-intact skin, or mucous membrane during the performance of normal duties this definition applies to

a) . human exposure
b) . exposed worker
c) . worker stress
d) . stressed worker

Answer 220

a). human exposure

Question 221

all workers whose job involves participation in tasks, or activities with exposure to blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply, should be vaccinated with ____ vaccine.

a) . human immunodeficiency
b) . hepatitis c
c) . smallpox
d) . hepatitis b

Answer 221

d). hepatitis b

Question 222

_____ testing should be made available by the employer to all workers who maybe concerned they have been infected with HIV through an occupational exposure.

a) . serologic
b) . blood
c) . immediate
d) . bacterial

Answer 222

a). serologic

Question 223

studies suggest that the potential for salivary transmission of HIV is____.

a) . frequent
b) . 25%
c) . remote
d) . as frequent as blood transmission

Answer 223

c). remote

Question 224

after they are used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpels blades, and other sharp items should be placed in _____ containers for disposal.

a) . biodegradable
b) . puncture-resistant
c) . OSHA
d) . sanitized

Answer 224

b). puncture-resistant

Question 225

broken glassware which may be contaminated shall not be picked up directly with the hands, but mechanical means, such as____.

a) . by a lab technician
b) . an evacuated tube
c) . a brush and dustpan
d) . gloved hands

Answer 225

c). a brush and dust pan

Question 226

contaminated laundry shall be _____ where it was soiled.

a) . destroyed at the location
b) . transported away from the location
c) . disinfected or discarded at the location
d) . bagged or containerized at the location

Answer 226

d). bagged or containerized at the location

Question 227

all spills of blood-contaminated fluids should be promptly cleaned up using ____ approved germicide, or a 1:10 solution of household bleach.

a) . an OSHA
b) . an EPA
c) . a hospital or clinic
d) . a consumer

Answer 227

b). an EPA

Question 228

in cases of blood contamination shoe coverings and gloves should be disposed of in ____ biohazard plastic bags

a) . black
b) . clearly marked
c) . orange-red
d) . transparent

Answer 228

c). orange-red

Question 229

it is recommended that protective masks and eye wear, or face shields, be worn by laboratory technicians, or housekeeping personnel______.

a) . when cleaning up blood or body fluids
b) . at all times in the laboratory
c) . when routinely cleaning equipment
d) . when scrubbing laboratory floors

Answer 229

a). when cleaning up blood or body fluids

Question 230

blood from all individuals should be considered____.

a) . decontaminated
b) . infective or infectious
c) . biodegradable
d) . chemically hazardous

Answer 230

b). infective or infectious

Question 231

when taking vital signs, a medical assistant must wear gloves, gowns, and eye wear.

a) . true
b) . false

Answer 231

b). false

Question 232

a specific eye, mouth, other mucous membranes, non-intact skin, or parental contact with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employees duties is called_____.

a) . unfortunate incident
b) . hazardous exposure
c) . occupational hazard
d) . exposure incident

Answer 232

d). exposure incident

Question 233

the term universal precautions is an ____.

a) . organization to promote infection control
b) . overall approach to infection control
c) . organizational approach to following EPA guidelines
d) . abbreviation for world health organization standards

Answer 233

b). overall approach to infection control

Question 234

vaccinations against HBV infection provide 90% protection against hepatitis b for _____ or more years following vaccination.

a) . seven
b) . ten
c) . four
d) . twelve

Answer 234

a). seven

Question 235

the first line of defense in preventing disease is____.

a) . wearing a mask
b) . the medical hand wash
c) . wearing gloves
d) . wearing a gown

Answer 235

b). the medical hand wash

Question 236

biohazard labels must be colored ____.

a) . blue
b) . orange-red
c) . green
d) . grey-black

Answer 236

b). orange-red

Question 237

what federal agency requires the use of sharps containers?

a) . occupational safety and health administration
b) . drug enforcement agency
c) . department of defense
d) . law enforcement agency

Answer 237

a). occupational safety and health administration

Question 238

viruses can be reproduced only in ____.

a) . dead cells
b) . living cells
c) . both dead and living cells
d) . no correct answer

Answer 238

b). living cells

Question 239

the process of killing all microorganisms in a certain area is called____.

a) disinfection
b) . washing
c) . serialization
d) . dusting

Answer 239

c). serialization

Question 240

the autoclave sterilizes or completely destroys microorganisms by combining ____.

a) . bleach and water under pressure
b) . acid with steam
c) . heat with steam under pressure
d) . hot water and soap

Answer 240

c). heat with steam under pressure

Question 241

what kind of enviroment do microorganisms grow best in?

a) . cool and light
b) . warm and light
c) . cool and dark
d) > dark and warm

Answer 241

d)> dark and warm

Question 242

a disease state that results from the invasion and growth of microorganisms in the body is ____.

a) . a syndrome
b) . an infection
c) . a laceration
d) . an asepsis

Answer 242

c). a laceration

Question 243

practices to achieve asepsis are know as____.

a) . medical asepsis
b) . contaimination
c) . clean technique
d) . both a and c

Answer 243

d). both a and c

medical asepsis & clean technique

Question 244

the process by which an object or area becomes unclean is ____.

a) . contamination
b) . disinfection
c) >. sterilization
d) . heat

Answer 244

a). contaimination

Question 245

you should wash your hands for approximately _____.

a) . 15 to 20 seconds
b) . 1 to 2 minutes
c) . 10 minutes
d) . 5 minutes

Answer 245

b). 1 to 2 minutes

Question 246

when you wash your hands you should stand____.

a) . up against the sink
b) . five inches from the sink
c) > so your clothes do not touch the sink
d) . no correct answer

Answer 246

b). five inches from the sink

Question 247

the faucet is turned off with ____.

a) . your arm
b) . a paper towel
c) . your hand
d) . no correct answer

Answer 247

b). a paper towe

Question 248

a healthcare worker who unconsciously transports harmful bacteria but is not ill is called a(n) ____.

a) . pre-infected
b) . carrier
c) . infectious
d) . immune

Answer 248

b). carrier

Question 249

groups or clusters of bacteria taken for laboratory study are called _____.

a) . families
b) . fungi
c) . cultures
d) . viruses (viri)

Answer 249

c). cultures

Question 250

the patient with an infection may have ____.

a) . loss of appetite and fatigue
b) . fever, nausea, rash and vomiting
c) . pain, redness, or swelling
d) . all answers are correct

Answer 250

a). loss of appetite and fatigue

Question 251

diseases that can be communicated from one person to another are called _____.

a) . catching
b) . contagious
c) . germicides
d) . decontaminated

Answer 251

b). contagious

Question 252

when using a fire extinguisher the hose should be directed to the ____.

a) . middle of the fire
b) . top of the fire
c) . around the fire
d) . base of the fire

Answer 252

d). base of the fire

Question 253

aerobic bacteria prefer which of these environmental conditions to grow well?

a) . increased nitrogen concentration
b) . an extremely dry environment
c) . oxygen
d) . temperature < 100 Fahrenheit

Answer 253

c). oxygen

Question 254

an obstruction of a coronary artery causing the death of an area of the myocardium due to blockage of blood supply and oxygen supply is called____.

a) . hypertension
b) . myocardial infraction
c) . arteriosclerosis
d) . primary hypertension

Answer 254

b). myocardial infarction

Question 255

deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium of the ____.

a) . vena cava
b) . lung
c) . heart
d) . pharynx

Answer 255

c). heart

Question 256

when the right atrium contracts it forces blood through the tricuspid valve into the ___ ventricle

a) . left
b) . top
c) . right
d) . inner

Answer 256

c). right

Question 257

the right ventricle pumps the blood to the lungs by way of the ____ artery

a) . superior
b) . vena cava
c) . pulmonary
d) . atria

Answer 257

c). pulmonary

Question 258

the use of ultrasound to produce a picture of the structure of the heart is called_____.

a) . cardiac catheterization
b) . a cardiac stress test
c) . echocardiography
d) . electrocardiography

Answer 258

d). electrocardiography

Question 259

digestion begins in the mouth, where food is chewed and mixed with a substance called____.

a) . amino acid
b) . saliva
c) . fatty acid
d) . no correct answer

Answer 259

b). saliva

Question 260

the lining of the duodenum is composed of thousands of tiny finger-like projections called____.

a) . ulcers
b) . villi
c) . hemorrhoids
d) . hernias

Answer 260

b). villi

Question 261

infected pressure sores on the skin are called____.

a) . decubitus ulcers
b) . carbuncles
c) . furuncles
d) . decubitus blisters

Answer 261

a). decubitus ulcers

Question 262

varicose veins of the anal canal or outside of the external sphincter are called _____.

a) . hemorrhoids
b) . villi
c) . peritonitis
d) . diarrhea

Answer 262

a). hemorrhoids

Question 263

carcinogenic means _____ causing.

a) . diarrhea
b) . disease
c) . cough
d) . cancer

Answer 263

d). cancer

Question 264

a weakness in the walls of muscle that allows underlying tissue to push through it is called ___>

a) . an ulcer
b) . a hernia
c) . a hemorrhoid
d) . diarrhea

Answer 264

b). a hernia

Question 265

a gallbladder disorder involving stones in the gallbladder is ____.

a) . cholecystitis
b) . intestinal obstruction
c) . hepatitis
d) . cholelithiasis

Answer 265

d). cholelithiasis

Question 266

inflammation of the retina is ___.

a) . retinitis
b) . peritonitis
c) . colitis
d) . a hernia

Answer 266

a). retinitis

Question 267

foods that are mild in flavor and easy to digest (non-spicy comprise a ___.

a) . clear liquid diet
b) . low-calorie diet
c) . diabetic diet
d) . bland diet

Answer 267

d). bland diet

Question 268

a tube inserted into one of the patient’s nostrils and down the back of the throat, through the esophagus until the end reaches the patient’s stomach is a(n) ____.

a) . test tube
b) . nasogastric tube
c) . irrigation tube
d) . no correct answer

Answer 268

b). nasogastric tube

Question 269

washing out of the stomach through a nasogastric tube is called ____.

a) . gavage
b) . lavage
c) . both a and b
d) . no correct answer

Answer 269

b). lavage

Question 270

the healthy adult excretes daily approximately ____ of urine.

a) . 1000 to 1500 milliliters
b) . 5 to 100 milliliters
c) . 4000 to 6000 milliliters
d) . 100 to 500 milliliters

Answer 270

a). 1000 to 1500 milliliters

Question 271

the inability to control the passage of urine in the bladder is called ____.

a) . specimen
b) . urine analysis
c) . urinary incontinence
d) . dripping

Answer 271

c). urinary incontinence

Question 272

painful voiding is called___.

a) . urine burn
b) . dysuria
c) . hydronephrosis
d) . cystitis

Answer 272

b). dysuria

Question 273

if the septum of the heart has an abnormal opening it is referred to as ___.

a) . stenosis
b) . a septal defect
c) . phlebitis
d) . a heart murmur

Answer 273

b). a septal defect

Question 274

branches of the bundle branches, which transmit the impulses to the walls of the ventricles, causing the ventricles to contract are called ____.

a) . bundle of his
b) . purkinje fibers
c) . left bundle branches
d) . right bundle brances

Answer 274

b). purkinje fibers

Question 275

a coronary occlusion causing a condition that produces chest pain which may radiate to the left arm, shoulder, jaw or neck due to lack of blood supply to the heart is called ___.

a) . angina pectoris
b) . arteriolosclerosis
c) . atherosclerosis
d) . hypertension

Answer 275

a). angina pectoris

Question 276

when the internal environment of the body is functioning properly, a condition of ____.

a) . homeostasis
b) . dysfunction
c) . hemorrhage
d) . euphoria

Answer 276

a). homeostasis

Question 277

the science of the function of cells, tissues, and organs of the body is called ___.

a) . physiology
b) . anatomy
c) . histology
d) . gross anatomy

Answer 277

a). physiology

Question 278

the lateral movement of the limbs away from the median plane of the body is called ___.

a) . extension
b) . internal rotation
c) . abduction
d) . supination

Answer 278

c). abduction

Question 279

an extrauterine pregnancy in which the fertilized ovum begins to develop outside the uterus is called ____.

a) . eclampsia
b) . toxemia
c) . ectopic
d) . PIDr

Answer 279

c). ectopic

Question 280

the second portion of the small intestine is called the ___>

a) . decalvant
b) . sigmoid
c) . duodenum
d) . jejunum

Answer 280

d). jejunum

Question 281

one of the vital functions of long bones is the formation of ___>

a) . white blood cells
b) . red blood cells
c) . calcium
d) . cellulite

Answer 281

b). red blood cells

Question 282

a unilateral paralysis that follows damage to the brain is called___.

a) . hemiplegia
b) . quadriplegia
c) . paraplegia
d) . sciatica

Answer 282

a). hemiplegia

Question 283

when providing a patient instructions on the collection of a sample for occult blood testing, which of the following statements is correct?

a) . dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen
b) . the patient should consume 20 oz. of red meat in the four hours prior to the collection of the specimen
c) . the patient should limit dairy
d) . there are no restrictions on medications- the patient should take all medications as prescribed

Answer 283

a). dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen

Question 284

in the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function test it ____.

a) . nebulization
b) . spirometry
c) . sigmoidoscopy
d) . mantoux test

Answer 284

b). spirometry

Question 285

conversion of a dysrhythmia to the normal rhythm by applying the electric shock to the chest is called ___.

a) . cardiac scan
b) . pacemaker implant
c) . defibrillation
d) . endarterectomy

Answer 285

c). defibrillation

Question 286

which of the following is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement?

a) . clean the skin with an alcohol swipe
b) . make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode
c) . shave the hair from the skin
d) . roughen the skin for better dermis contact

Answer 286

b). make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode

Question 287

the electrode site should be ___.

a) . clean, smooth, and dry
b) . hairy
c) . have plenty of skin oil present
d) . moist

Answer 287

a). clean, smooth, and dry

Question 288

an ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the ____ it takes for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.

a) . time
b) . route
c) . waves
d) . lines

Answer 288

a). time

Question 289

in the application of electrodes, secure the electrode by rubbing your finger around the ___ area.

a) . center
b) . gel
c) . adhesive
d) . peripheral

Answer 289

c). adhesive

Question 290

when there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called ___.

a) . irregular with a pattern
b) . absolutely regular
c) . essentially regular
d) . totally irregular

Answer 290

b). absolutely regular

Question 291

ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with 2 components : (1) magnitude or force, and (2) _____.

a) . amplitude
b) . ground electrode
c) . direction or shape
d) . polarization

Answer 291

c). direction or shape

Question 292

a downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the ____

a) . R wave
b) . T wave
c) . Q wave
d) . S wave

Answer 292

c). Q wave

Question 293

a premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called ____.

a) . uniform
b) . maligant
c) . fused
d) . bigeminy

Answer 293

a). uniform

Question 294

when applying leads, apply the VI lead _____.

a) . directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line
b) . the fourth intercostal space right sternal border
c) . lateral to V5 at midaxillary line
d) . fifth intercostal space midclavicular line

Answer 294

b). the fourth intercostal space right sternal border

Question 295

which fact is true about the P wave?

a) . duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 sec
b) . height-deflection is small, not more than 3mm
c) . both a and b
d) . no correct answer

Answer 295

a) . duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 sec
b) . height-deflection is small, not more than 3mm
c) . both a and b

Question 296

when PVC’s fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called ____.

a) . fused
b) . multiform
c) . life threating
d) . uniform

Answer 296

c). life threating

Question 297

which term describes false and malicious writing about another that constitutes defamation of character?

a) . slander
b) . assault
c) . libel
d) . invasion of privacy
e) . battery

Answer 297

c). libel

Question 298

when reviewing a resume, the human resources manager does not consider the applicants:

a) . supplemental education
b) . unexplained gaps in employment
c) . training related to the position
d) . age,sex,and race
e) . previous experience

Answer 298

d). age,sex,and race

Question 299

the standard of professional conduct for a certified medical assistant should be:

a) . in keeping with the AAMA Code of Ethics
b) . outlined by the provider or employer
c) . based on the Hippocratic oath
d) . in keeping with the AMA Principles of Medical Ethics
e) . determined by the state’s medical practice act

Answer 299

a). in keeping with the AAMA Code of Ethics

Question 300

after an interview, the applicant should:

a) . telephone to say thank you
b) . have his or her references call the interviewer
c) . telephone after 3 days to check the status of his or her application
d) . promptly send a follow-up letter
e) . send a lavish thank-you gift

Answer 300

d). promptly send a follow-up letter

Question 301

a medical assistant must never:

a) . perform venipuncture
b) . perform a laboratory test
c) . imply that he or she is a nurse
d) . dispense a medication after a direct order from the provider
e) . give medication after a direct order from the provider

Answer 301

c). imply that he or she is a nurse

Question 302

which legal principle is violated when a medical assistant practices outside his or her training?

a) . public duty
b) . consent
c) . privacy rights
d) . confidentially
e) . standard of care

Answer 302

e). standard of care

Question 303

which manner of dress is appropriate for an interview?

a) . a medical assistant’s uniform
b) . evening makeup
c) . spectacular nail polish
d) . casual clothing
e) . neat business attire

Answer 303

e). neat business attire

Question 304

when a vector travels away from the positive electrode, a ____ deflection results.

a) . positive
b) . variation
c) . T wave
d) . negative

Answer 304

d). negative

Question 305

the combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead #1 is ___.

a) . right arm, left leg
b) . right arm, right leg
c) . left arm, right arm
d) . left arm, left leg

Answer 305

c). left arm, right arm

Question 306

concerning ECG’s, for irregular rhythms, any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is ____.

a) . acceptable
b) . computed using 1/2 as fast: 300/2= 150/minute
c) . unreliable
d) . computed by counting the number of complexes in a span of 30 large boxes

Answer 306

c). unreliable

Question 307

the ___ wave represents atrial depolarization

a) . S
b) . P
c) . R
d) . U

Answer 307

b). P

Question 308

while the duration of the ST segment is not generally of clinical significance, it is an exceedingly important portion of the ECG because of ___.

a) . the fact that it follows the QRS complex
b) . shifts up or down from the baseline
c) . upward deflection from the baseline
d) . the shift away from the ischemic area

Answer 308

b). shifts up or down from the baseline

Question 309

a QRS measurement of less than ___ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker

a) . 0.13
b) . 0.14
c) . 0.16
d) . 0.12

Answer 309

d). 0.12

Question 310

which statements accurately describes ethics?

a) . ethics are a personal moral philosophy of right and wrong
b) . ethics are a code of minimal acceptable behavior
c) . ethics are the state’s legal standards established for a profession
d) . ethics are standards for personal behavior as established by organized religions

Answer 310

a). ethics are a personal moral philosophy of right and wrong

Question 311

when stressed, we may exhibit all of the following except:

a) . anxiety
b) . objective thinking
c) . depression
d) . anger
e) . irrational behavior

Answer 311

b). objective thinking

Question 312

all of the following statements about good samaritan laws are true except:

a) . these laws do not provide legal protection to on-duty emergency care providers
b) . providers must act in a reasonable and prudent manner
c) . the conditions of these laws vary in each state
d) . no matter what their level of training, providers must do everything for the patient
e) . healthcare providers are ethically, not legally obligated to assist in emergency situatons

Answer 312

d). no matter what their level of training, providers must do everything for the patient

Question 313

all of the following cultural influences may affect communication except:

a) . education
b) . sexual orientation
c) . ethnic heritage
d) . geographic location
e) . age

Answer 313

d). geographic location

Question 314

who is the most important member of the healthcare team?

a) . the patient
b) . the provider
c) . the medical assistant
d) . the nurse
e) > the receptionist

Answer 314

a). the patient

Question 315

consent for treatment may usually by given by:

a) . the patient’s closest relative
b) . a patient in a mental institution
c) . any minor over 16
d) . a legally competent patient

Answer 315

d). a legally competent patient

Question 316

what is the purpose of the certification credential for medical assistants?

a) . the certification credential is required for graduation
b) . the certification credential guarantees a job
c) . the certification credential meets states registration requirements

Answer 316

c). the certification credential meets states registration requirements

Question 317

the area between waves is referred to as ___.

a) . backspaces
b) . intervals
c) . segments
d) . cycles

Answer 317

b). intervals

Question 318

a terminal lethal dysrhythmia, a dying heart, is called ___.

a) . agonal
b) . asystole
c) . agonist
d) . agogue

Answer 318

a). agonal

Question 319

when the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ___>

a) . a patent, ductus arteriosus
b) . an arrhythmia
c) . an aneurysm
d) . an embolism

Answer 319

b). an arrhythmia

Question 320

a rapid, irregular succession of chaotic bizarre waves; irregular oscillations of the baseline is called ventricular ____.

a) . fibrillation
b) . standstill
c) . tachycardia
d) . rhythm

Answer 320

a). fibrillation

Question 321

the absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as___.

a) > atrial flutter
b) . sinus arrest
c) . ventricular arrhythmia
d) . sinus wenckebach

Answer 321

b). sinus arrest

Question 322

a special device called a “regulator” or “flow meter” is necessary when using ____.

a) . an electric thermometer
b) . a hot pad
c) . oxygen
d) . a sphygmomanometer

Answer 322

c). oxygen

Question 323

making sure that a tube is correctly labeled with the patient’s complete name and the identification number is part of the facilities ____ plan.

a) . exposure control
b) . incident report
c) . quality control
d) . all choices

Answer 323

c). quality control

Question 324

when performing a venipuncture if no blood flows into the tube how would you correct this?

a) . gently insert the needle a little deeper
b) . gently pull the needle out just a little
c) . remove the needle and tourniquet and prepare another site
d) . all choices are correct

Answer 324

a). gently insert the needle a little deeper
b). gently pull the needle out just a little
c). remove the needle and tourniquet and prepare another site
all choices are correct

Question 325

if during a venipuncture a patient has a syncopal episode what would be your best course of action?

a) . continue the draw, you need the specimen
b) . remove the needle and tourniquet and lower the patient’s head and arms
c) . begin CPR and activate 911
d) . restrain the patient to keep the patient from causing bodily injury

Answer 325

b). remove the needle and tourniquet and lower the patient’s head and arms

Question 326

the most appropriate site for performing a capillary stick to do which one of the following?

a) . wipe away the first drop of blood
b) . to forcefully make the puncture
c) . not use alcohol to clean the site
d) . it is very important to do all of the above

Answer 326

a). wipe away the first drop of blood

Question 327

performing a ____ as part of a complete blood count determines the ratio of the volume packed red blood cells to that of whole blood.

a) . differential
b) . hematocrit
c) . hemoglobin
d) . glucose

Answer 327

b). hematocrit

Question 328

when doing a venipuncture the syringe or tube should be ___ the venipuncture site to prevent back-flow

a) . above
b) . below
c) . moved from side to side
d) . moved in and out

Answer 328

b). below

Question 329

when anticoagulated blood is centrifuged ___ goes to the top of the tube

a) . red blood cells
b) . white blood cells
c) . plasma
d) . water

Answer 329

c). plasma

Question 330

when anticoagulated blood is centrifuged ___ goes to the bottom of the tube.

a) . red blood cells
b) . white blood cells
c) . plasma
d) . water

Answer 330

a). red blood cells

Question 331

when collecting blood by skin puncture on an infant, you should use a ____.

a) . 25 gauge needle
b) . lancet
c) . scalpel
d) . 23 gauge needle

Answer 331

b). lancet

Question 332

the tube to collect a blood sample for a complete blood count (CBC) is ____.

a) . red top, no additive
b) . blue top, sodium citrate additive
c) . lavender top, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additive
d) . green top, lithium heparin additive

Answer 332

c). lavender top, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additive

Question 333

which of these lab tests monitor anticoagulation therapy?

a) . PT and PTT
b) . T3 and T4
c) . Hb and Hct
d) . ABO and Rh

Answer 333

a). PT and PTT

Question 334

which one of the following evacuated tubes would be drawn first?

a) . red
b) , lavender
c) . gray
d) . green

Answer 334

a). red

Question 335

oxygen is administered to the patient by way of a ____.

a) . catheter
b) . cannula
c) . tent
d) . all choices

Answer 335

a). catheter
b). cannula
c). tent
all choices

Question 336

the clean-catch urine specimen is also called ___.

a) . clean-voided specimen
b) . 24-hour urine specimen
c) . mid-stream specimen
d) . both a and c

Answer 336

a). clean-voided specimen
c). mid-stream specimen
both are correct

Question 337

a 24-hour urine specimen should be ___.

a) . kept at body temperature
b) . left open to the air
c) . kept at room temperature
d) . chilled/refrigerated

Answer 337

d). chilled/refrigerated

Question 338

the fresh-fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for ____.

a) . T.B.
b) . pneumonia
c) . sugar
d) . high blood pressure

Answer 338

c). sugar

Question 339

another term for acetone in the urine is ____.

a) . sugar
b) . pus
c) . ketone bodies (ketones)
d) . no correct answer

Answer 339

c). ketone bodies (ketones)

Question 340

which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine?

a) . acetest
b) . clinitest
c) . testape
d) . keto-diastix

Answer 340

d). keto-diastix

Question 341

to help classify bacteria into two groups; gram-positive and gram-negative is special stain called ___.

a) . glass stain
b) . gram stain
c) . germicide
d) . bacteria stain

Answer 341

b). gram stain

Question 342

when preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should ___ the first drop.

a) . collect
b) . use
c) . wipe away
d) . wash off

Answer 342

c). wipe away

Question 343

when you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let them ___.

a) . stand for one-hour
b) . stand for four minutes
c) . air dry
d) . blow on them to dry them

Answer 343

c). air dry

Question 344

when preparing for a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of ___.

a) . foil
b) . steel
c) . plastic
d) . glass

Answer 344

d). glass

Question 345

which of these is crucial in making a blood smear for a differential blood count?

a) . edges should be thicker than the rest
b) . edges should be feathered
c) . smear must be at least 1.5 inches long
d) . edges should not be in a straight line

Answer 345

b). edges should be feathered

Question 346

the glucose tolerance test is a ____- test

a) . saliva
b) . timed
c) . finger stick
d) . dangerous

Answer 346

b). timed

Question 347

while ordering procedures may vary, generally a type and RH are ordered on all pregnant women. this normally is called a ___ screen.

a) . blood
b) . serum
c) . prenatal
d) . postnatal

Answer 347

c). prenatal

Question 348

an agreement between two or more parties for the doing of some definite thing is ___.

a) . contract
b) . litigation
c) . statute
d) . felony

Answer 348

a). contract

Question 349

lack of physical or mental fitness is known as ____.

a) . breach of duty
b) . abondonment
c) . competence
d) . incompetence

Answer 349

d). incompetence

Question 350

the final decision of a court in an action or suit is _____.

a) . consent
b) . contract
c) . judgment
d) . licensure

Answer 350

c). judgment

Question 351

the responsibility of an employer for the acts of an employee ___.

a) . libel
b) . malpractice
c) . respondeat superior
d) . civil law

Answer 351

c). respondeat superior

Question 352

a Latin term signifying that a person is not of sound mind is ____.

a) . emancipated minor
b) . plaintiff
c) . defendant
d) . tort

Answer 352

a). emancipated minor

Question 353

an impartial panel established to listen to and investigate patient’s complaints about medical care or excessive fees is called a ___ committee

a) . medical ethics
b) . medical grievance
c) . civil law
d) . no correct answer

Answer 353

b). medical grievance