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what license must a physician have to dispense, prescribe, or administer controlled substances?
a) . lawyers
b) . narcotics
c) . business
d) . occupational
b). narcotics
physicians with a narcotic license are required to register on June 30 of each year with______.
a) . food and drug agency
b) . drug enforcement agency
c) . american red cross
d) . american medical association
b). drug enforcement agency
a drug that causes urination is called a(n)_____.
a) . diuretic
b) . emectic
c) . cirrhotic
d) .esculent
a). diuretic
a drug used to relieve cough is called a(n)___.
a) . antitussive
b) . bronchodilator
c) . antiseptic
d) . antitoxin
a). antitussive
a drug that neutralizes acidity is called a(n)______.
a) . antidiarrheic
b) . antinauseant
c) . antacid
d) . placebo
c). antacid
a drug that controls appetite is called a(n)____
a) . appetite suppressor
b) . appetite stimulant
c) . antispasmodic
d) . appetite placebo
b). appetite stimulant
a drug use to prevent blood from clotting is called a(n)____.
a) . anticholinergic
b) . anticoagulant
c) .antidote
d) .placebo
b). anticoaguant
a drug used to control temperature is called an_____
a) . antipyetic
b) . antidote
c) . anticoagulant
d) . analgesic
a). antipyretic
a drug that reduces anxiety is called a(n)____
a) . diuretic
b) . tranquilizer
c) . vaccine
d) . ointment
b). tranquilizer
a drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a ______.
a) . vasodilator
b) . vasoconstrictor
c) . sedative
d) . laxative
a). vasodilator
a drug that decreases congestion is called a______.
a) . suppressant
b) . decongestant
c) . diuretic
d) . sedative
b). decongestant
a drug that causes the pupil of the eye to dilate is called a _____.
a) . myotic
b) . mydriatic
c) . placebo
d) . vaccine
b). mydriatic
a date on the bottle of medication that provides a “ use until” date is the _____.
a) . manufacture’s date
b) . outdated or expiration date
c) . “sell by” date
d) . ingredient half-life date
b). outdated or expiration date
a drug that increases urinary output is called a(n)_____.
a) . miotic
b) . diuretic
c) . cytotoxin
d) . expectorant
b). diuretic
a liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n)____.
a) . solution
b) . emulsion
c) . elixir
d) . tinctures
b). emulsions
nitroglycerine is used for _____.
a) . narcotic overdose
b) . inflammatory conditions
c) . treatment of angina pectoris
d) . anti-anxiety muscle relaxant treatment
c). treatment of angina pectoris
hydrocortisone is a drug used to supress____.
a) . inflammation
b) . appetite
c) . swelling
d) . excretion of urine
a). inflammation
schedule I drug include_____.
a) . miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs
b) . substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
c) . minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
d) . no correct answer
b). substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
schedule IV drugs include______.
a) . includes various narcotics such as opium
b) . substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
c) . minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
d) . no correct answer
c). minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
a small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n)____
a) . transdermal system
b) . reservoir system
c) . ointment system
d) . epidermis system
a). transdermal system
the buccal method of administering a drug is done by____.
a) . placing the medication between the gum and cheek
b) . inhalation
c) . intramuscular injection
d) . intravenous solution
a). placing the medication between the gum and cheek
oxygen is ordered as percentage of oxygen concentration and its rate of delivery is written as _____.
a) . liters per minute
b) . volume per minute
c) . degrees per minute
d) . percentage per minute
a). liters per minute
a drug that produces sleep is called a(n)_____.
a) . placebo
b) . hypnotic
c) . antispasmodic
d) . diaphoretic
b). hypnotic
an inactive substance substituted in place of the actual drug to satisfy the patient is called a(n)_____.
a) . sedative
b) . stimulant
c) . placebo
d) .antiseptic
c). placebo
the abbreviation for elixir is ________.
a) . elix
b) . exr
c) . elx
d) . EX
a). elix
the abbreviation for emulsion is _____.
a) . emul
b) .eml
c) . els
d) . EML
a). emul
the abbreviation for fluid is ____.
a) . fl and fld
b) . wet
c) . flud
d) . fuid
a). fl and fld
the abbeviation for ointment is _____.
a) . ont
b) .oint,ung
c) . ONT
d) . cream
b).oint,ung
the abbreviation for soulution is _____.
a) . sol
b) . slt
c) . stn
d) . SSN
a). sol
the abbreviation for suppository is____.
a) . supp
b) . syr
c) . SSUP
d) . SPT
a). supp
the abbreviation for syrup is _____.
a) . sup
b) . syr
c) . spp
d) . syp
b). syr
the abbreviation for tablet is _____.
a) .tbb
b) . tsp
c) . tbl
d) . tab
d). tab
the abbreviation for tincture is______.
a) . tcc
b) . tinc
c) . tct
d) . tcr
b). tinc
the abbreviation for intramuscular is____.
a) . IM
b) . ims
c) . IMSC
d) . imul
a). IM
the abbreviation for injection
a) . in
b) . inj
c) . ing
d) .ij
b). inj
the abbreviation for right ear is_________.
a) . AD
b) . RE
c) . re
d) . rter
a). AD
the abbreviation for both ears is ____.
a) . AU
b) . BE
c) . bthe
d) . BERS
a). AU
the abbreviation for drops is _____.
a) . gtt
b) . dtt
c) . gts
d) . dts
a). gtt
the abbreviation for two times a day is _____.
a) . tid
b) . bid
c) . qid
d) . qh
b). bid
when mixing reagents always read the label _____.
a) . with the doctor
b) . with a nurse
c) . with a magnifying glasses
d) . twice
d). twice
the ____ pages of the physician’s desk reference is where a medical assistant would be able to locate a medication by brand or generic name.
a) . white
b) . blue
c) . pink
d) . gray
c). pink
medications can be located in the physciian’s drug reference under all of the following catergories except_____.
a) . manufacturer
b) . generic name
c) . classification
d) . composition
d). composition
the physciain’s has ordered 500 mg. of medication the amount on hand is 400 mg tabs. how many tablets will be given?
a) . 0.5 tab
b) . 1 tab
c) . 2 tab
d) . 2.5 tab
a). 0.5 tab
the physician has ordered 50 mg of demerol be given to a patient. the amount of hand is 100mg/ml. how many cc’s of dermerol will be injected?
a) . 0.5 cc
b) . 1 cc
c) . 1.5 cc
d) . 0.25 cc
a). 0.5 cc
the suffix -emia means_____.
a) . blood
b) . erudite
c) . hematemesis
d) . condition of the urine
a). blood
the abbreviation for urinalysis is ____.
a) . UA
b) . UN
c) . hystero
d) .urino
a). UA
the medical term for groups of cells, with the same function is ____.
a) . hormone
b) . artery
c) . system
d) . tissue
d). tissue
the medical term for the basic unit of body structure is ____.
a) . vein
b) . tissue
c) . cell
d) . organ
c). cell
the abbreviation for belowor low is _____.
a) . HUC
b) . hyper
c) . hypo
d) . post or p
c). hypo
the medial term for the time when menstruation begins is_____.
a) . menopause
b) . puberty
c) . menarche
d) . period
c). menarche
the medical term for the time when menstruation stops is _____.
a) . reflex
b) . growth
c) . menopause
d) . menarche
c). menopause
the abbreviation for gastrointestinal is ____.
a) . Gtt or G.T.T
b) . yn. or G.Y.N
c) . GI or G.I.
d) . abd
c). GI or G.I.
the medical term for an involuntary movement is ____.
a) . growth
b) . reflex
c) . puberty
d) . stretching
b). reflex
the medial term for paralysis from the waist down is _____.
a) . coma
b) . quadriplegia
c) . disaster
d) . paraplegia
d). paraplegia
the medical term for paralysis from the neck down is _____.
a) . paraplegia
b) . quadriplegia
c) . hemiplegia
d) . stroke
b). quadriplegia
the medical abbreviation for by mouth is ____.
a) . po
b) . PMC or P.M.C
c) . pc
d) . per
a). po
the abbreviation for dressing is ____.
a) . dsg
b) . ds
c) . DSM
d) . DSS
a). dsg
the medical term for paralysis on one side of the body is____.
a) . paraplegia
b) . coma
c) . hemiplegia
d) . quadriplegia
c). hemiplegia
the medical term for circular movement around a central point is ______.
a) . extension
b) . rotation
c) . abduction
d) . dorsiflexion
b). rotation
the medical term for turning the palm forward, as applied to the hand is _______.
a) . extension
b) . flexion
c) . supination
d) . adduction
c). supination
the medical term for a decrease in size or a wasting is _____.
a) . pronation
b) . atrophy
c) . plantar flexion
d) . abduction
b). atrophy
the medical term for straightening of a body part is _____.
a) . extension
b) . flexion
c) . dorsiflexion
d) . pronation
a). extension
the abbrevition for postprandial blood sugar is ____.
a) . PP
b) . pre
c) . PPBS
d) . post or p
c). PPBS
the medical term for moving a body part away from the body is ____.
a) . rotation
b) . abduction
c) . dorsiflexion
d) . pronation
b). abduction
the medical term for bending a body part is ____.
a) . dorsiflexion
b) . external rotation
c) . flexion
d) . range-of-motion
c). flexion
the medial term for turning the palm backward is ____.
a) . pronation
b) . adduction
c) . external rotation
d) . supination
a). pronation
the medical term for bending backward is _____.
a) . contracture
b) . dorsiflexion
c) . hyperextension
d) . extension
b). dorsiflexion
the medical term for the abnormal shortening of a muscle is _____.
a) . adduction
b) . extension
c) . contracture
d) . flexion
c). contracture
the medical term for moving a body part toward the midline of the body is ______.
a) . flexion
b) . adbuction
c) . adduction
d) . contracture
c). adduction
the abbreviation for laboratory is______.
a) . lab
b) . L
c) . lbb
d) . lbt
a). lab
the abbreviation for discontinue is _____.
a) . DD
b) . D.&C. or D&C
c) . DX
d) . d/c
d). d/c
the abbreviation for bedtime or hour of sleep is___.
a) . hyper
b) . b.m. or B.M.
c) . hs
d) . BSC or bsc
c). hs
the abbreviation for above or high is____.
a) . hyper
b) . approx
c) . hypo
d) . HS or hs
a). hyper
the abbreviation for hour is ____.
a) . ht
b) . HS or hs
c) . ord
d) . hr or h
d). hr or h
the abbreviation for electroencephalogram is_____.
a) . EEG
b) . EKG
c) . ECG
d) . E
a). EEG
the abbreviation for Papanicolaou smear is____.
a) . pap smear
b) . PS
c) . PPSM
d) . P smear
a). pap smear
the abbreviation for cancer is ____.
a) . cc or c.c
b) . CCU or C.C.U.
c) . CA
d) . C/O or c/o
c). CA
the medical term for loss of appetite is ____.
a) . dehydration
b) . edema
c) . anorexia
d) . nutrient
c). anorexia
the medical term for tube feeding is____.
a) . IV
b) . gavage
c) . IVN
d) . esophageal introduction
b). gavage
the medical erm for sugar in the urine is ____.
a) . glucosuria
b) . ketone body
c) . acetone
d) . catheter
a). glucosuria
the common term for a decubitus ulcer, a pressure sore is_____.
a) . blister
b) . pimple
c) . fever blister
d) . bedsore
d). bedsore
the abbreviation for temperature, pluse, and repiration is _____.
a) . temp
b) . TPR
c) . trfc
d) . vtls
b). TPR
the word element phlebo means_____.
a) . vein
b) . breathing
c) . air, lungs
d) . alongside of
a). vein
the word element pneumo means ____.
a) . diease
b) . air, lungs
c) . eye
d) . fear, dread
b). air, lungs
the word adeno means____.
a) . pain
b) . both
c) . gland
d) . anus
c). gland
the word element algia, algesia, refer to____.
a) . artery
b) . pain
c) . against
d) . air
b). pain
the word element cardio means______.
a) . gall
b) . colon
c) . heart
d) . cut
c). heart
the word element cranio means____.
a) . skull
b) . blood
c) . common bile duct
d) . cartilage
a). skull
the word ectomy means______.
a) . air
b) . outer, on the outside
c) . surgical removal
d) . no correct answer
c). surgical removal
the word element emesis means____.
a) . vomiting
b) . kill
c) . weakness
d) . no correct answer
a). vomiting
the abbreviation for chief complaint is _____.
a) . CC
b) . ccom
c) . chf
d) . CCFD
a). CC
the abbreviation for grain is_____.
a) . gr
b) . g
c) . gn
d) . grn
a). gr
the abbreviation carb means_____.
a) . carbolic
b) . computer aided sleep system
c) . carbohydrate
d) . no correct answer
c). carbohydrate
neoplasm refers to____.
a) . above
b) . new growth
c) . cut into
d) . liver
b). new growth
high blood pressure is referred to as_______.
a) . palpitation
b) . hypertension
c) . bradycardia
d) . tachycardia
b). hypertension
the opposite of deep is____.
a) . superficial
b) . low
c) . proximal
d) . no correct answer
a). superficial
erythema refers to___.
a) . blue skin
b) . red skin
c) . gray skin
d) . yellow skin
b). red skin
the abbreviation for toxic shock syndrome is____.
a) . TSS
b) . tox
c) . tsx
d) . txs
a). TSS
the word element super means____.
a) . great
b) . above
c) . study of
d) . no correct answer
b). above
the word element cise means_____.
a) . colon
b) . cut
c) . tumor, swelling, hernia, sac
d) . no correct answer
b). cut
the word element centesis means____.
a) . slow
b) . common bile duct
c) . cell
d) . puncture
c). cell
the word element renal means_____.
a) . kidney
b) . flow
c) . nose
d) . no correct answer
a). kidney
the word element post means____.
a) . pus
b) . before
c) . after
d) . to few
c). after
the word element osis means____.
a) . tumor
b) . eye
c) . condition of
d) . ear
c). condition of
the word element rhino means____.
a) . ear
b) . nose
c) . throat
d) . eye
b). nose
the word element stomato means____.
a) . mouth or the ostium uteri
b) . upper intestine
c) . psychogenic sysptoms
d) . gallstones
a). mouth or the ostium uteri
inflammation of the mucous lining of the vagina is called_____.
a) . phlegmon
b) . vaginitis
c) . pyorrhea
d) . thrush
b). vaginitis
inflammation of the gums is called_____.
a) . stomatitis
b) . gingivitis
c) . dental inflammation
d) . thrush
b). gingivitis
lesions of the mucous membrane of the stomach are called______ ulcers.
a) . gastric
b) . intestinal
c) . duodenal
d) . follicular
a). gastric
a serious chronic disease of the liver is called_____.
a) . hiatal hernia
b) . cirrhosis
c) . cholecystitis
d) . pancreatitis
b). cirrhosis
chronic inflammation of the colon is called_____.
a) . colitis
b) . colonitis
c) . pancreatitis
d) . no correct answer
a). colitis
inflammation of the gallbladder is called_____.
a) . cystitis
b) . colitis
c) . diverticulitis
d) . cholecystitis
d). cholecystitis
inflammation of the pancreas is called_____.
a) . pancreatitis
b) . colitis
c) . diverticulitis
d) . cholecystitis
a). pancreatitis
inflammation of the appendix is called_____.
a) . pancreatitis
b) . appendicitis
c) . cholecystitis
d) . diverticulitis
b). appendicitis
dilated veins that occur in the rectum are known as______.
a) . hemorrhoids
b) . hepatitis
c) . hernias
d) . no correct answer
a). hemorrhoids
an instrument called a centrifuge______.
a) . freezes specimens
b) . heats specimens
c) . is used for incubation
d) . separates the cellular and liquid portion of the blood
d). separates the cellular and liquid portion of the blood
rubber sleeves on an evacuated tube system make it possible for____.
a) . sterilization
b) . slower draw of blood
c) . multiple use
d) . faster draw of blood
c). multiple use
preparing for a glucose tolerance test ______hours before or during the test, the patient should not eat, smoke, drink, coffee or alcohol.
a) . one
b) . ten
c) . one half
d) . two
b). ten
in the evacuated blood collection system the evacuated glass tubes come in different sizes, and the stoppers are_____ to denote the type of additive or lack of one.
a) . striped
b) . serrated
c) . stamped
d) . color-coded
d). color-coded
during a venipuncture, to secure the needle during insertion into te tube stopper, you need a _____.
a) . holder
b) . sleeve
c) . tape
d) . ball of cotton
a). holder
which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture?
a) . 24-25
b) . 21-22
c) . 19-20
d) . 16-18
b). 21-22
The maximum time a tourniquet should be tied on the upper arm while drawing blood is______.
a) 4 minuets
b) 2 minuets
c) 3 minuets
d) 1 minute
d) 1 minute
Arterioles are the smallest type of\_\_\_\_\_. a) tendons b) arteries C) bones D) veins
b) arteries
Use your index finger when you \_\_\_\_\_\_ for a vein. A) stick B) scratch C) palpate D) inject
C) palpate
Which of the following is false? A) veins feel like an elastic tube B) veins pulsate C) veins give under pressure D) veins go different directions
B) veins pulsate
When preforming a venipuncture, if you have a patient \_\_\_\_ the veins will become more prominent. A) cough B) hold their breathe C) make a fist D) take a deep breathe
C) make a fist
When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be wrapped around the arm about three to four inches from where you are going to\_\_\_\_\_ for a vein. A) apply soap B) scrape C) tap D) feel
D) feel
When collecting blood for cholesterol tests use a \_\_\_\_ top evacuated tube. A). Red B). Yellow C). Blue D). Lavender
A). Red
When collecting blood for a hematocrit test use a\_\_\_\_\_. A). Lavender-top evacuated tube B). Red-top evacuated tube C). Blue-top evacuated tube D). Yellow-top evacuated tube
A). Lavender-top evacuated tube
When using an evacuated tube for collection of electrolytes use a\_\_\_\_\_. A). Blue-top tube B). Red-top tube C). Black-top tube D). Lavender-top tube
B). Red-top tube
The lid to the centrifuge should be kept\_\_\_\_when in use. A). Closed B). Open C). Ajar D). Lifted
A). Closed
When using a centrifuge, make sure equal weights are\_\_\_\_\_. A). Side by side B). Liquid C). Opposite each other D). One space apart
C). Opposite each other
The venipuncture site should be cleansed with\_\_\_\_. A). A damp solution B). A paper towel C). The back of your hand D). An alcohol prep
D). An alcohol prep
To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and____.
A). Work in a circle to the periphery
B). Wipe carefully back and fourth
C). Cleanse vigorously for 30 seconds
D). Use a lifting motion to move away from the skin
A). Work in a circle to the periphery
the cephalic, medial cubital, and basilic veins are_____ used for venipuncture.
a) . seldom
b) . never
c) . dangerous when
d) . primarily
d). primarily
at the location where you are going to feel for a vein, wrap the tourniquet around the arm approximately ____ above the area.
a) . nine to ten inches
b) . one foot
c) . three to four inches
d) . one inch
c). three to four inches
the color coding for a stopper of a tube with no additives is (for collection of serum)_____.
a) . reen
b) . black
c) . red
d) . blue
c). red
the tube to collect whole blood with an additive in it has a ____ stopper.
a) . red
b) . lavender
c) . reen
d) . yellow
b). lavender
sodium citrate is an anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies because it protects certain of the _____.
a) . pro-coagulants
b) . red blood counts
c) . white blood cells
d) . enzyme inhibitors
a). pro-coagulants
the primary anticoagulant additive EDTA removes calcium by forming insoluble or un-ionized calcium salts. it has an advantage of preventing platelet clumping and the formation of artifacts, therefore, good for the preparation of_____.
a) . background staining
b) . red cell preservation
c) . clotting
d) . blood films
d). blood films
the blood lancet is used for the collection of blood specimens by_____.
a) . injection
b) . suction
c) . cutting
d) . skin puncture
d). skin puncture
the standard point of the lancet to be used when collecting blood from a newborn heel is____ in length
a) . 2.4mm
b) . 3.6mm
c) . 4.7mm
d) . 5.5mm
a). 2.4mm
the most important step in the performance of a venipuncture is____.
a) . selecting the correct needle gauge
b) . selecting the appropriate cleansing agent
c) . positively identifying the patient
d) . selecting the appropriate tourniquet
c). positively identifying the patient
when cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to:
a) . wipe the site back and forth quickly with an alcohol prep
b) . blow on the alcohol to dry it so it doesn’t burn
c) . cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry
d) . have the patient wave the arm in the air to dry it faster
c). cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry
to determine the size of the needle remember that the higher the gauge number the _____ needle
a) . longer
b) . smaller
c) . larger
d) . shorter
b). smaller
_____ values are increased in infections and inflammatory disease,
a) . glucose
b) . hematocrit
c) . erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) . coagulation studies
c). erythrocyte sedimentation rate
what type of blood sample will be needed to perform a hemoglobin test?
a) . EDTA added
b) . serum only
c) . white blood cells
d) . no correct answer
a). EDTA added
how many hematocrit tubes should be collected from the patient?
a) . 1
b) . 2
c) . 3
d) . 5
b). 2
what type of blood sample is needed when performing a PKU?
a) . venipuncture
b) . capillary
c) . either one is acceptable
d) . no correct answer
b). capillary
a____ is a small, sterlie, needle-like piece of metal used to make small punctures in the dermis
a) . scarificator
b) . chain of custody
c) . person in charge
d) . local law enforcement
b). chain of custody
in drug testing the ____ regulates describe how evidence is to be collected and handled.
a) . chain of command
b) . chain of custody
c) . person in charge
d) . local law enforcement
b). chain of custody
a(n) ____ requires the patient to be fasting and then blood is taken every hour for a predetermined time.
a) . cholesterol test
b) . white blood cell count
c) . differential
d) . glucose tolerance test
d). glucose tolerance test
right and wrong conduct is known as____.
a) . empathy
b) . criminal law
c) . ethics
d) . licensure
c). ethics
the most common type of medical tort liability is____.
a) . negligence
b) . breach of contract
c) . breach of confidence
d) . fraud and deceit
a). negligence
a person being sued is called the ____.
a) . plaintiff
b) . tort
c) . defendant
d) . criminal law
c). defendant
the withdrawal of a physician from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of such discharge from the case by the patient is_____.
a) . contract
b) . reasonable care
c) . negligence
d) . abandonment
d). abandonment
an unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injured to another is _____.
a) . litigation
b) . assault
c) . crime
d) . libel
b). assault
the_____ form is used by non- institutional providers and suppliers to bill Medicare, part B covered services
a) . HCPA-1000
b) . CPT
c) . CMS-1500
d) . UB92
c). CMS-1500
which codes can modifiers be added to, to indicate that a procedure or service has been altered in some way?
a) . CPT
b) . ICD-9-CM
c) . ICD-10-CM
d) . all of the choices
a). CPT
the health worker is protected by law if it can be determined that he or she acted reasonable as compared with fellow workers. this is called_____.
a) . respondeat superior
b) . reasonable care
c) . duty of care
d) . statute
b). reasonable care
negligence by a professional person is called_____.
a) . invasion of privacy
b) . slander
c) . malpractice
d) . tort
c). malpractice
an act that violates criminal law is called______.
a) . defamation
b) . crime
c) . libel
d) . slander
b). crime
the breaking of a law, promise, or duty is called_____.
a) . statute
b) . breach
c) . consent
d) . incompetent
b). breach
the ability to see things from another person’s point of view is____.
a) . consent
b) . respondeat superior
c) . empathy
d) . ethics
c). empathy
the time established for filin law suits is____.
a) . civil law
b) . statute of limitations
c) . contract
d) . no correct answer
b). statute of limitations
one who institutes a lawsuit is______.
a) . defendant
b) . plaintiff
c) . litigation
d) . respondeat superior
b). plaintiff
a major crime for which greater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is_____.
a) . licensure
b) . civil law
c) . tort
d) . felony
d). felony
a violation of a person’s right not to have his or her name, photograph, or private affairs exposed of made public without giving consent is______.
a) . false imprisonment
b) . malpractice
c) . invasion of privacy
d) . statute
c). invasion of privacy
holding or detaining a person against his will is____.
a) . false imprisonment
b) . crime
c) . incompetent
d) . duty of care
a). false imprisonment
a wrong committed against another person or the person’s property is a ____.
a) . defamation
b) . libel
c) . tort
d) . plaintiff
c). tort
a writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and to give testimony is a(n)____.
a) . habeas corpus
b) . tort of appearance
c) . subpoena
d) . tort et a travers
c). subpoena
A legal statement of how an individual’s property is to be distributed after death is\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) contract B). Tort C). Will D). Judgement
C). Will
Information given by a patient to medical personnel which cannot be disclosed without consent of the person who gave it is\_\_\_\_. A). Duty of care B). Respondent superior C). Judgement D). Privilege communication
D). Privilege communication
A rule of conduct made by government body is\_\_\_. A). Tort B). Law C). Will D). Contract
B). Law
Failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or a person’s property is\_\_\_\_. A). Malpractice B). Negligence C). Slander D). Defamation
B). Negligence
Permission granted by a person voluntarily and in his right mind is\_\_\_. A). Consent B). Litigation C). Breach D). Duty of care
A). Consent
Injuring the name and reputation of another person by making false statements to a third person is\_\_\_\_. A). Empathy B). Negligence C). Defamation D). Ethics
C). Defamation
An agreement between two or more parties for the doing or not doing of some definite thing is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A). Contract B). Litigation C). Statute D). Felony
A). Contract
Lack of physical or mental fitness is known as\_\_\_\_\_. A). Breach of contract B). Abandonment C). Competence D). Incompetence
D). Incompetence
The final decision of a court in an action or suit is \_\_\_\_\_. A). Consent B). Contract C). Judgement D). Licensure
C). Judgement
The central middle area of the abdomen is called the\_\_\_\_ A). Hypogastric region B). Epigastric region C). Umbilical region D). NO correct answer
C). Umbilical region
The humerus is located in the \_\_\_\_. A). Leg B). Arm C). Back D). Neck
B). Arm
The pubis is located in the \_\_\_\_\_\_. A). Pelvis B). Chest C). Neck D). Foot
A). Pelvis
The femur is located in the\_\_\_. A). Leg B). Arm C). Foot D). Neck
A). Leg
The patella is located in the \_\_\_. A). Knee B). Elbow C). Neck D). Head
A). Knee
The ulna is located in the \_\_\_\_\_. A). Back B). Foot C). Leg D). Arm
D). Arm
The tibia is located in the \_\_\_\_. A). Foot B). Arm C). Back D). Leg
D) leg
The fibula is located in the \_\_\_\_\_. A). Leg B). Arm C). Foot D). Hand
A). Leg
The radius is located in the \_\_\_. A). Arm B). Leg C). Foot D). Hand
A). Arm
The maxilla is located in the \_\_\_\_\_. A). Head B). Foot C). Chest D). Arm
A). Head
The metatarsal are located in the\_\_\_\_. A). Foot B). Hand C). Back D). Chest
A). Foot
The metacarpals are located in the \_\_\_\_. A). Foot B). Hand C). Back D). Chest
B). Hand
The name for collar bone is\_\_\_. A). Carpals B). Clavicle C). Fossa D). Femur
B). Clavicle
The smaller of the lower leg bones is called\_\_\_\_\_. A). Fibula B). Tibia C). Patella D). Femur
A). Fibula
Whooping cough is another name for\_\_\_. A). Croup B). Pertussis C). Pleurisy D). Pneumonia
B). Pertussis
in the positioning of the electrodes, if the electrodes are placed too close together, the amplitude will be_____
a) . small
b) . large
c) . round
d) . square
a). small
the large squares on the ECG paper are equal to_____
a) 0.10 sec
b) . 20 sec
c) . 0.04 sec
d) . 0.09 sec
b). 0.20 sec
a “V wave” will______ be seen in a normal EKG.
a) . always
b) . sometimes
c) . never
d) . usually
c). never
the \_\_\_ switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG. A). major b). sensitivity c), red d). thicker
b). sensitivity
when preparing for lead placement you should first care for____.
a) . skin preparation
b) . application of electrode wire
c) . application of electrodes
d) . positioning of electrodes
a). skin preparation
the sebaceous glands, skin, hair, and nails make up the _____ system.
a) . nervous
b) . cardiovascular
c) . sensory
d) . integumentary
d). integumentary
the heart, lymphatic organs, and blood vessels are in the _____ system.
a) . respiratory
b) . sensory
c) . digestive
d) . muscular
c). digestive
the lower middle area of the abdomen is called the_____.
a) . hypogastric region
b) . epigastric region
c) . umbilical region
d) . no correct answer
a). hypogastric region
the upper middle area of the abdomen is called the ____.
a) . hypogastric region
b) . epigastric region
c) . umbilical region
d) . no correct answer
b)> epigastric region
tendons, joints, and cartilages are in the___ system.
a) . skeletal
b) . integumentary
c) . muscular
d) . endocrine
a). skeletal
the trachea, nose, lungs, and pharynx are in the ____ system.
a) . skeletal
b) .respiratiory
c) . sensory
d) . endocrine
b). respiratory
the brain, nerves, and spinal cord are in the____ system.
a) . skeletal
b) . nervous
c) . sensory
d) .endocrine
b). nervous
in the hman body, the senses include all of the following except
a) . ears
b) . eyes
c) . teeth
d) . nose
c). teeth
the bladder, urethra, kidneys, and uterus are in the____ system.
a) . urinary
b) . reproductive
c) . respiratory
d) . muscular
a). urinary
every medical facility is required by OSHA to have an exposure control plan.
a) . true
b) . false
a). true
the exposure control plan shall be made available to the assistant secretary and the director OSHA upon request for examination and copying.
a) . true
b) . false
a). true
HIV means
a) . hepatitis b virus
b) . hepatitis c virus
c) . human immunodeficiency virus
d) . human infectious virus
c). human immunodeficiency virus
___ means any contaminated objects that can penetrate the skin including, but not limited to needles, scalpels, broken glass, broken capillary tubes, and exposed ends of dental wires.
a) . contaminated devices
b) . disposable devices
c) . contaminated sharps
d) . dangerous incisor
c). contaminated sharps
reasonable anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parental contact with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that may result from the performance of an employee’s duties is called____.
a) . occupational exposure
b) . daily risk
c) . occupational risk
d) . professional threat
a). occupational exposure
any individual, living or dead, whose blood, or other potentially infectious materials may be a source of occupational exposure to the employee is called a(n).___
a) . hazardous individual
b) . source individual
c) . infected specimen
d) . quarantined source
b). source individual
to use a physical-chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospores is to___
a) . eradicate
b) . detoxify
c) . sterilize
d) . acid wash
c). sterilize
_____ is the single most important source of HIV and HBV in the workplace
a) . seman
b) . saliva in dental procedures
c) . pleural fluid
d) . blood
d). blood
the risk of infection with HIV following one needle-stick exposure to blood from a patient known to be infected with HIV is approximately____.
a) . 0.01%
b) . 0.50%
c) .1.00%
d) . 5.00%`
b).0.50%
general infection-control procedures are designed to prevent transmission of a wide range of _____ and to provide a wide margin of safety in the varied situations encountered in the health-care environment
a) . diseases
b) . conditions
c) . microbiological
d) . sickness
c). microbiological
contact with blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply through percutaneous inoculation, or contact with an open wound, non-intact skin, or mucous membrane during the performance of normal duties this definition applies to
a) . human exposure
b) . exposed worker
c) . worker stress
d) . stressed worker
a). human exposure
all workers whose job involves participation in tasks, or activities with exposure to blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply, should be vaccinated with ____ vaccine.
a) . human immunodeficiency
b) . hepatitis c
c) . smallpox
d) . hepatitis b
d). hepatitis b
_____ testing should be made available by the employer to all workers who maybe concerned they have been infected with HIV through an occupational exposure.
a) . serologic
b) . blood
c) . immediate
d) . bacterial
a). serologic
studies suggest that the potential for salivary transmission of HIV is____.
a) . frequent
b) . 25%
c) . remote
d) . as frequent as blood transmission
c). remote
after they are used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpels blades, and other sharp items should be placed in _____ containers for disposal.
a) . biodegradable
b) . puncture-resistant
c) . OSHA
d) . sanitized
b). puncture-resistant
broken glassware which may be contaminated shall not be picked up directly with the hands, but mechanical means, such as____.
a) . by a lab technician
b) . an evacuated tube
c) . a brush and dustpan
d) . gloved hands
c). a brush and dust pan
contaminated laundry shall be _____ where it was soiled.
a) . destroyed at the location
b) . transported away from the location
c) . disinfected or discarded at the location
d) . bagged or containerized at the location
d). bagged or containerized at the location
all spills of blood-contaminated fluids should be promptly cleaned up using ____ approved germicide, or a 1:10 solution of household bleach.
a) . an OSHA
b) . an EPA
c) . a hospital or clinic
d) . a consumer
b). an EPA
in cases of blood contamination shoe coverings and gloves should be disposed of in ____ biohazard plastic bags
a) . black
b) . clearly marked
c) . orange-red
d) . transparent
c). orange-red
it is recommended that protective masks and eye wear, or face shields, be worn by laboratory technicians, or housekeeping personnel______.
a) . when cleaning up blood or body fluids
b) . at all times in the laboratory
c) . when routinely cleaning equipment
d) . when scrubbing laboratory floors
a). when cleaning up blood or body fluids
blood from all individuals should be considered____.
a) . decontaminated
b) . infective or infectious
c) . biodegradable
d) . chemically hazardous
b). infective or infectious
when taking vital signs, a medical assistant must wear gloves, gowns, and eye wear.
a) . true
b) . false
b). false
a specific eye, mouth, other mucous membranes, non-intact skin, or parental contact with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employees duties is called_____.
a) . unfortunate incident
b) . hazardous exposure
c) . occupational hazard
d) . exposure incident
d). exposure incident
the term universal precautions is an ____.
a) . organization to promote infection control
b) . overall approach to infection control
c) . organizational approach to following EPA guidelines
d) . abbreviation for world health organization standards
b). overall approach to infection control
vaccinations against HBV infection provide 90% protection against hepatitis b for _____ or more years following vaccination.
a) . seven
b) . ten
c) . four
d) . twelve
a). seven
the first line of defense in preventing disease is____.
a) . wearing a mask
b) . the medical hand wash
c) . wearing gloves
d) . wearing a gown
b). the medical hand wash
biohazard labels must be colored ____.
a) . blue
b) . orange-red
c) . green
d) . grey-black
b). orange-red
what federal agency requires the use of sharps containers?
a) . occupational safety and health administration
b) . drug enforcement agency
c) . department of defense
d) . law enforcement agency
a). occupational safety and health administration
viruses can be reproduced only in ____.
a) . dead cells
b) . living cells
c) . both dead and living cells
d) . no correct answer
b). living cells
the process of killing all microorganisms in a certain area is called____.
a) disinfection
b) . washing
c) . serialization
d) . dusting
c). serialization
the autoclave sterilizes or completely destroys microorganisms by combining ____.
a) . bleach and water under pressure
b) . acid with steam
c) . heat with steam under pressure
d) . hot water and soap
c). heat with steam under pressure
what kind of enviroment do microorganisms grow best in?
a) . cool and light
b) . warm and light
c) . cool and dark
d) > dark and warm
d)> dark and warm
a disease state that results from the invasion and growth of microorganisms in the body is ____.
a) . a syndrome
b) . an infection
c) . a laceration
d) . an asepsis
c). a laceration
practices to achieve asepsis are know as____.
a) . medical asepsis
b) . contaimination
c) . clean technique
d) . both a and c
d). both a and c
medical asepsis & clean technique
the process by which an object or area becomes unclean is ____.
a) . contamination
b) . disinfection
c) >. sterilization
d) . heat
a). contaimination
you should wash your hands for approximately _____.
a) . 15 to 20 seconds
b) . 1 to 2 minutes
c) . 10 minutes
d) . 5 minutes
b). 1 to 2 minutes
when you wash your hands you should stand____.
a) . up against the sink
b) . five inches from the sink
c) > so your clothes do not touch the sink
d) . no correct answer
b). five inches from the sink
the faucet is turned off with ____.
a) . your arm
b) . a paper towel
c) . your hand
d) . no correct answer
b). a paper towe
a healthcare worker who unconsciously transports harmful bacteria but is not ill is called a(n) ____.
a) . pre-infected
b) . carrier
c) . infectious
d) . immune
b). carrier
groups or clusters of bacteria taken for laboratory study are called _____.
a) . families
b) . fungi
c) . cultures
d) . viruses (viri)
c). cultures
the patient with an infection may have ____.
a) . loss of appetite and fatigue
b) . fever, nausea, rash and vomiting
c) . pain, redness, or swelling
d) . all answers are correct
a). loss of appetite and fatigue
diseases that can be communicated from one person to another are called _____.
a) . catching
b) . contagious
c) . germicides
d) . decontaminated
b). contagious
when using a fire extinguisher the hose should be directed to the ____.
a) . middle of the fire
b) . top of the fire
c) . around the fire
d) . base of the fire
d). base of the fire
aerobic bacteria prefer which of these environmental conditions to grow well?
a) . increased nitrogen concentration
b) . an extremely dry environment
c) . oxygen
d) . temperature < 100 Fahrenheit
c). oxygen
an obstruction of a coronary artery causing the death of an area of the myocardium due to blockage of blood supply and oxygen supply is called____.
a) . hypertension
b) . myocardial infraction
c) . arteriosclerosis
d) . primary hypertension
b). myocardial infarction
deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium of the ____.
a) . vena cava
b) . lung
c) . heart
d) . pharynx
c). heart
when the right atrium contracts it forces blood through the tricuspid valve into the ___ ventricle
a) . left
b) . top
c) . right
d) . inner
c). right
the right ventricle pumps the blood to the lungs by way of the ____ artery
a) . superior
b) . vena cava
c) . pulmonary
d) . atria
c). pulmonary
the use of ultrasound to produce a picture of the structure of the heart is called_____.
a) . cardiac catheterization
b) . a cardiac stress test
c) . echocardiography
d) . electrocardiography
d). electrocardiography
digestion begins in the mouth, where food is chewed and mixed with a substance called____.
a) . amino acid
b) . saliva
c) . fatty acid
d) . no correct answer
b). saliva
the lining of the duodenum is composed of thousands of tiny finger-like projections called____.
a) . ulcers
b) . villi
c) . hemorrhoids
d) . hernias
b). villi
infected pressure sores on the skin are called____.
a) . decubitus ulcers
b) . carbuncles
c) . furuncles
d) . decubitus blisters
a). decubitus ulcers
varicose veins of the anal canal or outside of the external sphincter are called _____.
a) . hemorrhoids
b) . villi
c) . peritonitis
d) . diarrhea
a). hemorrhoids
carcinogenic means _____ causing.
a) . diarrhea
b) . disease
c) . cough
d) . cancer
d). cancer
a weakness in the walls of muscle that allows underlying tissue to push through it is called ___>
a) . an ulcer
b) . a hernia
c) . a hemorrhoid
d) . diarrhea
b). a hernia
a gallbladder disorder involving stones in the gallbladder is ____.
a) . cholecystitis
b) . intestinal obstruction
c) . hepatitis
d) . cholelithiasis
d). cholelithiasis
inflammation of the retina is ___.
a) . retinitis
b) . peritonitis
c) . colitis
d) . a hernia
a). retinitis
foods that are mild in flavor and easy to digest (non-spicy comprise a ___.
a) . clear liquid diet
b) . low-calorie diet
c) . diabetic diet
d) . bland diet
d). bland diet
a tube inserted into one of the patient’s nostrils and down the back of the throat, through the esophagus until the end reaches the patient’s stomach is a(n) ____.
a) . test tube
b) . nasogastric tube
c) . irrigation tube
d) . no correct answer
b). nasogastric tube
washing out of the stomach through a nasogastric tube is called ____.
a) . gavage
b) . lavage
c) . both a and b
d) . no correct answer
b). lavage
the healthy adult excretes daily approximately ____ of urine.
a) . 1000 to 1500 milliliters
b) . 5 to 100 milliliters
c) . 4000 to 6000 milliliters
d) . 100 to 500 milliliters
a). 1000 to 1500 milliliters
the inability to control the passage of urine in the bladder is called ____.
a) . specimen
b) . urine analysis
c) . urinary incontinence
d) . dripping
c). urinary incontinence
painful voiding is called___.
a) . urine burn
b) . dysuria
c) . hydronephrosis
d) . cystitis
b). dysuria
if the septum of the heart has an abnormal opening it is referred to as ___.
a) . stenosis
b) . a septal defect
c) . phlebitis
d) . a heart murmur
b). a septal defect
branches of the bundle branches, which transmit the impulses to the walls of the ventricles, causing the ventricles to contract are called ____.
a) . bundle of his
b) . purkinje fibers
c) . left bundle branches
d) . right bundle brances
b). purkinje fibers
a coronary occlusion causing a condition that produces chest pain which may radiate to the left arm, shoulder, jaw or neck due to lack of blood supply to the heart is called ___.
a) . angina pectoris
b) . arteriolosclerosis
c) . atherosclerosis
d) . hypertension
a). angina pectoris
when the internal environment of the body is functioning properly, a condition of ____.
a) . homeostasis
b) . dysfunction
c) . hemorrhage
d) . euphoria
a). homeostasis
the science of the function of cells, tissues, and organs of the body is called ___.
a) . physiology
b) . anatomy
c) . histology
d) . gross anatomy
a). physiology
the lateral movement of the limbs away from the median plane of the body is called ___.
a) . extension
b) . internal rotation
c) . abduction
d) . supination
c). abduction
an extrauterine pregnancy in which the fertilized ovum begins to develop outside the uterus is called ____.
a) . eclampsia
b) . toxemia
c) . ectopic
d) . PIDr
c). ectopic
the second portion of the small intestine is called the ___>
a) . decalvant
b) . sigmoid
c) . duodenum
d) . jejunum
d). jejunum
one of the vital functions of long bones is the formation of ___>
a) . white blood cells
b) . red blood cells
c) . calcium
d) . cellulite
b). red blood cells
a unilateral paralysis that follows damage to the brain is called___.
a) . hemiplegia
b) . quadriplegia
c) . paraplegia
d) . sciatica
a). hemiplegia
when providing a patient instructions on the collection of a sample for occult blood testing, which of the following statements is correct?
a) . dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen
b) . the patient should consume 20 oz. of red meat in the four hours prior to the collection of the specimen
c) . the patient should limit dairy
d) . there are no restrictions on medications- the patient should take all medications as prescribed
a). dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen
in the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function test it ____.
a) . nebulization
b) . spirometry
c) . sigmoidoscopy
d) . mantoux test
b). spirometry
conversion of a dysrhythmia to the normal rhythm by applying the electric shock to the chest is called ___.
a) . cardiac scan
b) . pacemaker implant
c) . defibrillation
d) . endarterectomy
c). defibrillation
which of the following is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement?
a) . clean the skin with an alcohol swipe
b) . make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode
c) . shave the hair from the skin
d) . roughen the skin for better dermis contact
b). make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode
the electrode site should be ___.
a) . clean, smooth, and dry
b) . hairy
c) . have plenty of skin oil present
d) . moist
a). clean, smooth, and dry
an ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the ____ it takes for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.
a) . time
b) . route
c) . waves
d) . lines
a). time
in the application of electrodes, secure the electrode by rubbing your finger around the ___ area.
a) . center
b) . gel
c) . adhesive
d) . peripheral
c). adhesive
when there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called ___.
a) . irregular with a pattern
b) . absolutely regular
c) . essentially regular
d) . totally irregular
b). absolutely regular
ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with 2 components : (1) magnitude or force, and (2) _____.
a) . amplitude
b) . ground electrode
c) . direction or shape
d) . polarization
c). direction or shape
a downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the ____
a) . R wave
b) . T wave
c) . Q wave
d) . S wave
c). Q wave
a premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called ____.
a) . uniform
b) . maligant
c) . fused
d) . bigeminy
a). uniform
when applying leads, apply the VI lead _____.
a) . directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line
b) . the fourth intercostal space right sternal border
c) . lateral to V5 at midaxillary line
d) . fifth intercostal space midclavicular line
b). the fourth intercostal space right sternal border
which fact is true about the P wave?
a) . duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 sec
b) . height-deflection is small, not more than 3mm
c) . both a and b
d) . no correct answer
a) . duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 sec
b) . height-deflection is small, not more than 3mm
c) . both a and b
when PVC’s fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called ____.
a) . fused
b) . multiform
c) . life threating
d) . uniform
c). life threating
which term describes false and malicious writing about another that constitutes defamation of character?
a) . slander
b) . assault
c) . libel
d) . invasion of privacy
e) . battery
c). libel
when reviewing a resume, the human resources manager does not consider the applicants:
a) . supplemental education
b) . unexplained gaps in employment
c) . training related to the position
d) . age,sex,and race
e) . previous experience
d). age,sex,and race
the standard of professional conduct for a certified medical assistant should be:
a) . in keeping with the AAMA Code of Ethics
b) . outlined by the provider or employer
c) . based on the Hippocratic oath
d) . in keeping with the AMA Principles of Medical Ethics
e) . determined by the state’s medical practice act
a). in keeping with the AAMA Code of Ethics
after an interview, the applicant should:
a) . telephone to say thank you
b) . have his or her references call the interviewer
c) . telephone after 3 days to check the status of his or her application
d) . promptly send a follow-up letter
e) . send a lavish thank-you gift
d). promptly send a follow-up letter
a medical assistant must never:
a) . perform venipuncture
b) . perform a laboratory test
c) . imply that he or she is a nurse
d) . dispense a medication after a direct order from the provider
e) . give medication after a direct order from the provider
c). imply that he or she is a nurse
which legal principle is violated when a medical assistant practices outside his or her training?
a) . public duty
b) . consent
c) . privacy rights
d) . confidentially
e) . standard of care
e). standard of care
which manner of dress is appropriate for an interview?
a) . a medical assistant’s uniform
b) . evening makeup
c) . spectacular nail polish
d) . casual clothing
e) . neat business attire
e). neat business attire
when a vector travels away from the positive electrode, a ____ deflection results.
a) . positive
b) . variation
c) . T wave
d) . negative
d). negative
the combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead #1 is ___.
a) . right arm, left leg
b) . right arm, right leg
c) . left arm, right arm
d) . left arm, left leg
c). left arm, right arm
concerning ECG’s, for irregular rhythms, any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is ____.
a) . acceptable
b) . computed using 1/2 as fast: 300/2= 150/minute
c) . unreliable
d) . computed by counting the number of complexes in a span of 30 large boxes
c). unreliable
the ___ wave represents atrial depolarization
a) . S
b) . P
c) . R
d) . U
b). P
while the duration of the ST segment is not generally of clinical significance, it is an exceedingly important portion of the ECG because of ___.
a) . the fact that it follows the QRS complex
b) . shifts up or down from the baseline
c) . upward deflection from the baseline
d) . the shift away from the ischemic area
b). shifts up or down from the baseline
a QRS measurement of less than ___ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker
a) . 0.13
b) . 0.14
c) . 0.16
d) . 0.12
d). 0.12
which statements accurately describes ethics?
a) . ethics are a personal moral philosophy of right and wrong
b) . ethics are a code of minimal acceptable behavior
c) . ethics are the state’s legal standards established for a profession
d) . ethics are standards for personal behavior as established by organized religions
a). ethics are a personal moral philosophy of right and wrong
when stressed, we may exhibit all of the following except:
a) . anxiety
b) . objective thinking
c) . depression
d) . anger
e) . irrational behavior
b). objective thinking
all of the following statements about good samaritan laws are true except:
a) . these laws do not provide legal protection to on-duty emergency care providers
b) . providers must act in a reasonable and prudent manner
c) . the conditions of these laws vary in each state
d) . no matter what their level of training, providers must do everything for the patient
e) . healthcare providers are ethically, not legally obligated to assist in emergency situatons
d). no matter what their level of training, providers must do everything for the patient
all of the following cultural influences may affect communication except:
a) . education
b) . sexual orientation
c) . ethnic heritage
d) . geographic location
e) . age
d). geographic location
who is the most important member of the healthcare team?
a) . the patient
b) . the provider
c) . the medical assistant
d) . the nurse
e) > the receptionist
a). the patient
consent for treatment may usually by given by:
a) . the patient’s closest relative
b) . a patient in a mental institution
c) . any minor over 16
d) . a legally competent patient
d). a legally competent patient
what is the purpose of the certification credential for medical assistants?
a) . the certification credential is required for graduation
b) . the certification credential guarantees a job
c) . the certification credential meets states registration requirements
c). the certification credential meets states registration requirements
the area between waves is referred to as ___.
a) . backspaces
b) . intervals
c) . segments
d) . cycles
b). intervals
a terminal lethal dysrhythmia, a dying heart, is called ___.
a) . agonal
b) . asystole
c) . agonist
d) . agogue
a). agonal
when the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ___>
a) . a patent, ductus arteriosus
b) . an arrhythmia
c) . an aneurysm
d) . an embolism
b). an arrhythmia
a rapid, irregular succession of chaotic bizarre waves; irregular oscillations of the baseline is called ventricular ____.
a) . fibrillation
b) . standstill
c) . tachycardia
d) . rhythm
a). fibrillation
the absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as___.
a) > atrial flutter
b) . sinus arrest
c) . ventricular arrhythmia
d) . sinus wenckebach
b). sinus arrest
a special device called a “regulator” or “flow meter” is necessary when using ____.
a) . an electric thermometer
b) . a hot pad
c) . oxygen
d) . a sphygmomanometer
c). oxygen
making sure that a tube is correctly labeled with the patient’s complete name and the identification number is part of the facilities ____ plan.
a) . exposure control
b) . incident report
c) . quality control
d) . all choices
c). quality control
when performing a venipuncture if no blood flows into the tube how would you correct this?
a) . gently insert the needle a little deeper
b) . gently pull the needle out just a little
c) . remove the needle and tourniquet and prepare another site
d) . all choices are correct
a). gently insert the needle a little deeper
b). gently pull the needle out just a little
c). remove the needle and tourniquet and prepare another site
all choices are correct
if during a venipuncture a patient has a syncopal episode what would be your best course of action?
a) . continue the draw, you need the specimen
b) . remove the needle and tourniquet and lower the patient’s head and arms
c) . begin CPR and activate 911
d) . restrain the patient to keep the patient from causing bodily injury
b). remove the needle and tourniquet and lower the patient’s head and arms
the most appropriate site for performing a capillary stick to do which one of the following?
a) . wipe away the first drop of blood
b) . to forcefully make the puncture
c) . not use alcohol to clean the site
d) . it is very important to do all of the above
a). wipe away the first drop of blood
performing a ____ as part of a complete blood count determines the ratio of the volume packed red blood cells to that of whole blood.
a) . differential
b) . hematocrit
c) . hemoglobin
d) . glucose
b). hematocrit
when doing a venipuncture the syringe or tube should be ___ the venipuncture site to prevent back-flow
a) . above
b) . below
c) . moved from side to side
d) . moved in and out
b). below
when anticoagulated blood is centrifuged ___ goes to the top of the tube
a) . red blood cells
b) . white blood cells
c) . plasma
d) . water
c). plasma
when anticoagulated blood is centrifuged ___ goes to the bottom of the tube.
a) . red blood cells
b) . white blood cells
c) . plasma
d) . water
a). red blood cells
when collecting blood by skin puncture on an infant, you should use a ____.
a) . 25 gauge needle
b) . lancet
c) . scalpel
d) . 23 gauge needle
b). lancet
the tube to collect a blood sample for a complete blood count (CBC) is ____.
a) . red top, no additive
b) . blue top, sodium citrate additive
c) . lavender top, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additive
d) . green top, lithium heparin additive
c). lavender top, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additive
which of these lab tests monitor anticoagulation therapy?
a) . PT and PTT
b) . T3 and T4
c) . Hb and Hct
d) . ABO and Rh
a). PT and PTT
which one of the following evacuated tubes would be drawn first?
a) . red
b) , lavender
c) . gray
d) . green
a). red
oxygen is administered to the patient by way of a ____.
a) . catheter
b) . cannula
c) . tent
d) . all choices
a). catheter
b). cannula
c). tent
all choices
the clean-catch urine specimen is also called ___.
a) . clean-voided specimen
b) . 24-hour urine specimen
c) . mid-stream specimen
d) . both a and c
a). clean-voided specimen
c). mid-stream specimen
both are correct
a 24-hour urine specimen should be ___.
a) . kept at body temperature
b) . left open to the air
c) . kept at room temperature
d) . chilled/refrigerated
d). chilled/refrigerated
the fresh-fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for ____.
a) . T.B.
b) . pneumonia
c) . sugar
d) . high blood pressure
c). sugar
another term for acetone in the urine is ____.
a) . sugar
b) . pus
c) . ketone bodies (ketones)
d) . no correct answer
c). ketone bodies (ketones)
which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine?
a) . acetest
b) . clinitest
c) . testape
d) . keto-diastix
d). keto-diastix
to help classify bacteria into two groups; gram-positive and gram-negative is special stain called ___.
a) . glass stain
b) . gram stain
c) . germicide
d) . bacteria stain
b). gram stain
when preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should ___ the first drop.
a) . collect
b) . use
c) . wipe away
d) . wash off
c). wipe away
when you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let them ___.
a) . stand for one-hour
b) . stand for four minutes
c) . air dry
d) . blow on them to dry them
c). air dry
when preparing for a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of ___.
a) . foil
b) . steel
c) . plastic
d) . glass
d). glass
which of these is crucial in making a blood smear for a differential blood count?
a) . edges should be thicker than the rest
b) . edges should be feathered
c) . smear must be at least 1.5 inches long
d) . edges should not be in a straight line
b). edges should be feathered
the glucose tolerance test is a ____- test
a) . saliva
b) . timed
c) . finger stick
d) . dangerous
b). timed
while ordering procedures may vary, generally a type and RH are ordered on all pregnant women. this normally is called a ___ screen.
a) . blood
b) . serum
c) . prenatal
d) . postnatal
c). prenatal
an agreement between two or more parties for the doing of some definite thing is ___.
a) . contract
b) . litigation
c) . statute
d) . felony
a). contract
lack of physical or mental fitness is known as ____.
a) . breach of duty
b) . abondonment
c) . competence
d) . incompetence
d). incompetence
the final decision of a court in an action or suit is _____.
a) . consent
b) . contract
c) . judgment
d) . licensure
c). judgment
the responsibility of an employer for the acts of an employee ___.
a) . libel
b) . malpractice
c) . respondeat superior
d) . civil law
c). respondeat superior
a Latin term signifying that a person is not of sound mind is ____.
a) . emancipated minor
b) . plaintiff
c) . defendant
d) . tort
a). emancipated minor
an impartial panel established to listen to and investigate patient’s complaints about medical care or excessive fees is called a ___ committee
a) . medical ethics
b) . medical grievance
c) . civil law
d) . no correct answer
b). medical grievance
