Study Questions (All Chapters) Flashcards
An investment company has a forward contract to exchange euros for US dollars with a foreign firm. On the contract’s maturity date, the investment company makes its euro payment but, because of time differences, there is a delay in the foreign firm making its corresponding dollar payment.
What type of risk is the investment company get subjected to?
A. Credit risk
B. Market Risk
C. Liquidity Risk
D. Operational Risk
A. Credit risk. Given that it is possible that the firm will fail to make its payment, the corporation faces settlement credit risk.
Firm A and Firm B trade an interest rate swap. If interest rates move in Firm A’s favour, Firm B will owe a net obligation. As Firm B could fail to perform on such an obligation, Firm A faces
A. Liquidity Risk
B. Operational Risk
C. Credit Risk
D. Market Risk
C. Credit Risk, more specifically pre-settlement
credit risk.
Bond investors, who lose their investment if the bond issuer fails, face
A. Liquidity Risk
B. Operational Risk
C. Credit Risk
D. Market Risk
C. Credit Risk - specifically issuer credit risk.
A firm makes a loan to a corporate client. It is possible that the client will fail to make timely principal or interest payments, hence, the firm faces
A. Liquidity Risk
B. Operational Risk
C. Market Risk
D. Credit Risk
D. Credit Risk specifically - direct credit risk.
Bank A holds an asset in the form of a loan made to a corporate client. Bank A is concerned that the corporate client might default on its obligations to service and/or repay the debt, what might bank A do to hedge and mitiage this risk?
A. Enter into a Credit Default Swap
B. Apply Asset Securitisation to the loan
C. Diversify thier portfolio further
D. Sell the Loan to another firm.
A - Bank A enters into a CDS with another bank, Bank B.
In return for a regular payment based on a percentage of the face value of the loans, Bank B agrees to pay out in the event of the corporate client defaulting.
Bank A is using the CDS to hedge. By buying a CDS, Bank A can manage its credit exposure and maintain its relationship with the client. Any payout from Bank B will be triggered by pre-specified credit events and will typically be based on the fall in the value of the loan as a result of the event, for example, the actual default or a credit rating downgrade by an external credit rating agency.
Some credit events: bankruptcy, insolvency, receivership, material adverse restructuring of debt or failure to meet payment obligations when due.
What does LGD stand for?
Loss Given Default (LGD) - The estimated loss that a firm would incur at a specific time if a counterparty defaulted.
What does the BIS define operation risk as?
Bank for International Settlements (BIS) defines operational risk as:
‘The risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events’.
The primary difference between enterprise risk management (ERM) and market risk management, is that ERM:
A. focuses primarily on long-term issues
B. aims to integrate the management of all risks
C. covers non-financial risks only
D. operates on a bottom-up approach basis
B. ERM attempts to manage a firm’s interrelated risks in the most effective way
What are the four major types of financial risk?
- Credit Risk
- Market Risk
- Liqudity Risk
- Operational Risk
What is a type of specialised OTC product that allows credit risk to be managed by the transfer of credit exposure between parties?
Popular examples of credit derivatives include:
* Credit default swaps (CDS)
* Total return swaps
* Credit spread swap options (options on CDS)
* Credit-linked notes (CLN)
* Contant Maturity CDS (CMCDS)
* Recovery Lock Transaction
* Synthetic Collateralised Debt Obligations (CDO)
* Constant Proportion DebtObligations (CPDO)
* Systhetic Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (Synthetic CPPI)
What are the credit events that would require a CDS to pay out?
A credit event is commonly defined as:
‘bankruptcy, insolvency, receivership, material adverse restructuring of debt or failure to meet payment obligations when due’.
A UK-based bank enters into an interest rate swap agreement with a corporate client. Due to adverse interest rate movements, the client owes the bank a substantial amount. Before settlement, the client declares bankruptcy. Which type of credit risk does the bank face in this scenario?
A) Settlement Risk
B) Pre-Settlement Risk
C) Issuer Risk
D) Direct Risk
B
Which of the following is an off-balance sheet transaction that can expose a firm to credit risk?
A) Issuance of corporate bonds
B) Trading of listed equities
C) Sale of mortgage-backed securities (MBS) through a special purpose vehicle (SPV)
D) Providing a term loan to a corporate client
C
True or False: Credit risk only arises from on-balance sheet transactions such as loans and securities.”
False - includes off balance
A financial institution extends a line of credit to a firm with a BBB credit rating. Six months later, the firm is downgraded to BB due to poor financial performance. How should the financial institution respond to mitigate the increased credit risk?
A) Increase the firm’s credit limit.
B) Require additional collateral or guarantees.
C) Allow the client to maintain the existing credit line but increase the interest rate.
D) Securitize the loan and sell it to an SPV.
B
A bank calculates the Probability of Default (PD) of a borrower as 5% and the Loss Given Default (LGD) as 40%. What is the Expected Loss (EL) on a £1,000,000 loan?
A) £50,000
B) £20,000
C) £200,000
D) £40,000
B
EL=PD×LGD×Exposure
EL=0.05×0.40×1,000,000=20,000
Which of the following statements best describes basis risk in market risk management?
A) The risk that one party to a trade will fail to meet its obligations.
B) The risk that two offsetting positions with imperfect correlation will lead to unhedged risk.
C) The risk of large price movements during periods of market illiquidity.
D) The risk that a counterparty defaults before the settlement of a transaction
B
A firm’s portfolio contains fixed-rate bonds. If interest rates increase sharply, what impact is the firm most likely to face?
A) Interest rate risk resulting in a decrease in the bond prices.
B) Interest rate risk resulting in an increase in bond prices.
C) Credit risk due to downgrades in the issuer’s credit rating.
D) Liquidity risk, as the bonds become illiquid in the secondary market.
A - An increase in interest rates decreases the market value of fixed-rate bonds since their fixed cash flows become less attractive relative to newly issued bonds with higher yields.
A firm calculates the Value at Risk (VaR) for its trading book to be £2,000,000 at a 99% confidence level over one day. What does this mean in simple terms?
A) There is a 99% chance the firm will not lose more than £2,000,000 in a single day.
B) There is a 1% chance the firm will lose at least £2,000,000 in a single day.
C) The firm is guaranteed to lose less than £2,000,000 on 99 out of 100 trading days.
D) The firm’s expected loss on a single day is £2,000,000.
B -There is a 1% chance the firm will lose at least £2,000,000 in a single day. VaR indicates the maximum potential loss at a specific confidence level. A 99% confidence means there’s a 1% chance of a loss exceeding £2,000,000.
Which of the following is NOT a way to mitigate market risk?
A) Diversification across different asset classes.
B) Selling off liquid securities during a market crash.
C) Setting stop-loss limits on trades.
D) Implementing hedging strategies using derivatives.
B
A fund has a large number of investors requesting to withdraw their investments at once. The fund manager temporarily suspends all withdrawals.
What is this process called?
A) Gating
B) Redemption Freeze
C) Cash Flow Restriction
D) Netting
A
A bank’s Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) requires that it holds 100% of its net cash outflows in liquid assets. If its net cash outflows for 30 days are £50 million, how much in liquid assets must the bank hold?
A) £100 million
B) £25 million
C) £50 million
D) £10 million
C - LCR requires banks to hold 100% of their 30-day net cash outflows as high-quality liquid assets (HQLA). Therefore, if the outflows are £50M, the bank must hold liquid assets of the same value.
Which of the following regulatory requirements is designed to ensure a bank has enough liquid assets to survive a 30-day liquidity stress scenario?
A) Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR)
B) Funding Liquidity Ratio (FLR)
C) Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR)
D) Liquidity Adequacy Standard (LAS)
C - The LCR ensures banks have enough HQLA to survive a 30-day liquidity stress scenario. The Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) focuses on long-term stability.
Which of the following best describes fund liquidity risk?
A) Inability of a firm to sell securities without incurring a large loss.
B) Inability to redeem investor funds due to insufficient cash availability.
C) Inability to repay loans on time due to poor funding management.
D) Illiquidity in the market caused by systemic risk.
B