Study Questions (All Chapters) Flashcards

1
Q

An investment company has a forward contract to exchange euros for US dollars with a foreign firm. On the contract’s maturity date, the investment company makes its euro payment but, because of time differences, there is a delay in the foreign firm making its corresponding dollar payment.
What type of risk is the investment company get subjected to?

A. Credit risk
B. Market Risk
C. Liquidity Risk
D. Operational Risk

A

A. Credit risk. Given that it is possible that the firm will fail to make its payment, the corporation faces settlement credit risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Firm A and Firm B trade an interest rate swap. If interest rates move in Firm A’s favour, Firm B will owe a net obligation. As Firm B could fail to perform on such an obligation, Firm A faces
A. Liquidity Risk
B. Operational Risk
C. Credit Risk
D. Market Risk

A

C. Credit Risk, more specifically pre-settlement
credit risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bond investors, who lose their investment if the bond issuer fails, face

A. Liquidity Risk
B. Operational Risk
C. Credit Risk
D. Market Risk

A

C. Credit Risk - specifically issuer credit risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A firm makes a loan to a corporate client. It is possible that the client will fail to make timely principal or interest payments, hence, the firm faces

A. Liquidity Risk
B. Operational Risk
C. Market Risk
D. Credit Risk

A

D. Credit Risk specifically - direct credit risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bank A holds an asset in the form of a loan made to a corporate client. Bank A is concerned that the corporate client might default on its obligations to service and/or repay the debt, what might bank A do to hedge and mitiage this risk?

A. Enter into a Credit Default Swap
B. Apply Asset Securitisation to the loan
C. Diversify thier portfolio further
D. Sell the Loan to another firm.

A

A - Bank A enters into a CDS with another bank, Bank B.
In return for a regular payment based on a percentage of the face value of the loans, Bank B agrees to pay out in the event of the corporate client defaulting.
Bank A is using the CDS to hedge. By buying a CDS, Bank A can manage its credit exposure and maintain its relationship with the client. Any payout from Bank B will be triggered by pre-specified credit events and will typically be based on the fall in the value of the loan as a result of the event, for example, the actual default or a credit rating downgrade by an external credit rating agency.

Some credit events: bankruptcy, insolvency, receivership, material adverse restructuring of debt or failure to meet payment obligations when due.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does LGD stand for?

A

Loss Given Default (LGD) - The estimated loss that a firm would incur at a specific time if a counterparty defaulted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the BIS define operation risk as?

A

Bank for International Settlements (BIS) defines operational risk as:
‘The risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The primary difference between enterprise risk management (ERM) and market risk management, is that ERM:
A. focuses primarily on long-term issues
B. aims to integrate the management of all risks
C. covers non-financial risks only
D. operates on a bottom-up approach basis

A

B. ERM attempts to manage a firm’s interrelated risks in the most effective way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the four major types of financial risk?

A
  1. Credit Risk
  2. Market Risk
  3. Liqudity Risk
  4. Operational Risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a type of specialised OTC product that allows credit risk to be managed by the transfer of credit exposure between parties?

A

Popular examples of credit derivatives include:
* Credit default swaps (CDS)
* Total return swaps
* Credit spread swap options (options on CDS)
* Credit-linked notes (CLN)
* Contant Maturity CDS (CMCDS)
* Recovery Lock Transaction
* Synthetic Collateralised Debt Obligations (CDO)
* Constant Proportion DebtObligations (CPDO)
* Systhetic Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (Synthetic CPPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the credit events that would require a CDS to pay out?

A

A credit event is commonly defined as:
‘bankruptcy, insolvency, receivership, material adverse restructuring of debt or failure to meet payment obligations when due’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A UK-based bank enters into an interest rate swap agreement with a corporate client. Due to adverse interest rate movements, the client owes the bank a substantial amount. Before settlement, the client declares bankruptcy. Which type of credit risk does the bank face in this scenario?
A) Settlement Risk
B) Pre-Settlement Risk
C) Issuer Risk
D) Direct Risk

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is an off-balance sheet transaction that can expose a firm to credit risk?
A) Issuance of corporate bonds
B) Trading of listed equities
C) Sale of mortgage-backed securities (MBS) through a special purpose vehicle (SPV)
D) Providing a term loan to a corporate client

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or False: Credit risk only arises from on-balance sheet transactions such as loans and securities.”

A

False - includes off balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A financial institution extends a line of credit to a firm with a BBB credit rating. Six months later, the firm is downgraded to BB due to poor financial performance. How should the financial institution respond to mitigate the increased credit risk?
A) Increase the firm’s credit limit.
B) Require additional collateral or guarantees.
C) Allow the client to maintain the existing credit line but increase the interest rate.
D) Securitize the loan and sell it to an SPV.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A bank calculates the Probability of Default (PD) of a borrower as 5% and the Loss Given Default (LGD) as 40%. What is the Expected Loss (EL) on a £1,000,000 loan?
A) £50,000
B) £20,000
C) £200,000
D) £40,000

A

B
EL=PD×LGD×Exposure
EL=0.05×0.40×1,000,000=20,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following statements best describes basis risk in market risk management?
A) The risk that one party to a trade will fail to meet its obligations.
B) The risk that two offsetting positions with imperfect correlation will lead to unhedged risk.
C) The risk of large price movements during periods of market illiquidity.
D) The risk that a counterparty defaults before the settlement of a transaction

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A firm’s portfolio contains fixed-rate bonds. If interest rates increase sharply, what impact is the firm most likely to face?
A) Interest rate risk resulting in a decrease in the bond prices.
B) Interest rate risk resulting in an increase in bond prices.
C) Credit risk due to downgrades in the issuer’s credit rating.
D) Liquidity risk, as the bonds become illiquid in the secondary market.

A

A - An increase in interest rates decreases the market value of fixed-rate bonds since their fixed cash flows become less attractive relative to newly issued bonds with higher yields.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A firm calculates the Value at Risk (VaR) for its trading book to be £2,000,000 at a 99% confidence level over one day. What does this mean in simple terms?
A) There is a 99% chance the firm will not lose more than £2,000,000 in a single day.
B) There is a 1% chance the firm will lose at least £2,000,000 in a single day.
C) The firm is guaranteed to lose less than £2,000,000 on 99 out of 100 trading days.
D) The firm’s expected loss on a single day is £2,000,000.

A

B -There is a 1% chance the firm will lose at least £2,000,000 in a single day. VaR indicates the maximum potential loss at a specific confidence level. A 99% confidence means there’s a 1% chance of a loss exceeding £2,000,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a way to mitigate market risk?
A) Diversification across different asset classes.
B) Selling off liquid securities during a market crash.
C) Setting stop-loss limits on trades.
D) Implementing hedging strategies using derivatives.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A fund has a large number of investors requesting to withdraw their investments at once. The fund manager temporarily suspends all withdrawals.
What is this process called?
A) Gating
B) Redemption Freeze
C) Cash Flow Restriction
D) Netting

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A bank’s Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) requires that it holds 100% of its net cash outflows in liquid assets. If its net cash outflows for 30 days are £50 million, how much in liquid assets must the bank hold?
A) £100 million
B) £25 million
C) £50 million
D) £10 million

A

C - LCR requires banks to hold 100% of their 30-day net cash outflows as high-quality liquid assets (HQLA). Therefore, if the outflows are £50M, the bank must hold liquid assets of the same value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following regulatory requirements is designed to ensure a bank has enough liquid assets to survive a 30-day liquidity stress scenario?
A) Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR)
B) Funding Liquidity Ratio (FLR)
C) Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR)
D) Liquidity Adequacy Standard (LAS)

A

C - The LCR ensures banks have enough HQLA to survive a 30-day liquidity stress scenario. The Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) focuses on long-term stability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following best describes fund liquidity risk?
A) Inability of a firm to sell securities without incurring a large loss.
B) Inability to redeem investor funds due to insufficient cash availability.
C) Inability to repay loans on time due to poor funding management.
D) Illiquidity in the market caused by systemic risk.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which of the following is NOT a type of operational risk under Basel’s classification? A) Internal Fraud B) Employment Practices and Workplace Safety C) Business Strategy Failure D) Execution, Delivery and Process Management
C
26
True or False: Operational risk only includes risks from internal processes, not external events."
False - Operational risk also includes external events, such as natural disasters, regulatory changes, or cyberattacks
27
A trading desk experiences system downtime due to a network outage, leading to missed trade opportunities and potential losses. Which operational risk type is most applicable? A) Business Disruption and Systems Failures B) Execution, Delivery and Process Management C) External Fraud D) Employment Practices and Workplace Safety
A
28
Which of the following are appropriate measures to mitigate operational risk? A) Implementing segregation of duties. B) Centralizing all decision-making with senior management. C) Setting large risk appetite limits. D) Delegating risk management to one junior employee
A
29
A financial firm discovers that an employee has been manipulating internal reports to hide unauthorized trades. This results in a financial loss. What type of operational risk does this fall under? A) Execution, Delivery and Process Management B) Business Disruption and Systems Failures C) Internal Fraud D) External Fraud
**C** - When employees manipulate internal records or conceal trades, it falls under internal fraud, which is one of Basel's key categories of operational risk.
30
Which of the following is the primary objective of the Dodd-Frank Act? A) Protect investors from insider trading. B) Prevent large firms from becoming "too big to fail." C) Prevent the mis-selling of financial products to consumers. D) Regulate non-financial firms conducting securities trading.
**B** - The Dodd-Frank Act was designed to reduce systemic risk and ensure large firms could fail without triggering financial collapse.
31
True or False: "Under GDPR, companies must obtain explicit consent from users before collecting any personal data."
False - GDPR requires companies to obtain consent for certain types of personal data collection, but there are exceptions (like legitimate interest). Explicit consent is only required for certain data types or uses (e.g., sensitive personal data).
32
What is the primary purpose of the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA)? A) Ensure that all US citizens receive social security benefits while living abroad. B) Prevent US citizens from owning property outside the US. C) Increase tax reporting and transparency of US citizens' foreign financial accounts. D) Allow US citizens to hold non-US financial assets with greater privacy.
**C** - FATCA requires foreign financial institutions to report the foreign accounts of U.S. citizens to the IRS to prevent offshore tax evasion.
33
A hedge fund offers an ESG (environmental, social, governance) investment product that is marketed as "green." Under the SFDR, how must this fund classify its product? A) Article 6 B) Article 8 C) Article 9 D) No classification required
**B** - Article 8 products are those that promote ESG characteristics but do not have sustainable investment as their primary objective (unlike Article 9 products, which are "dark green" and have sustainability as their core goal).
34
Trade-reporting regulations require firms to report details of the trades, including such aspects as the date of the deal, the time of the deal, the price of the deal, the volume traded, the stock traded and the identifier of the firm transacting the deal. Where would near-real time trade reporting take place?
Via an approved publication arrangement (APA). ## Footnote Specialist-reporting service provider companies, referred to as approved reporting mechanisms (ARMs), are approved by the regulator for this purpose.
35
What does the term ultra vires entail?
ensuring the counterparty has the legal power to transact, ie, that it is not acting beyond its legal authority
36
What is programme management?
When multiple projects are being managed in conjunction
37
What is the difference between the project management function and the change management function?
The project management team aims to bring about the successful completion of specific project goals and objectives. The change management team ensures that any required changes are implemented in a controlled manner by following a predefined framework or model. ## Footnote Operational risk may increase during a transitiona/change period
38
What is a project defined as?
Projects are packages of work that deliver a ‘defined change’. ## Footnote May get a question relating to defined change risks instead off project risks
39
There are the standards that financial institutions apply to borrowers in order to evaluate their creditworthiness and, therefore, mitigate the risk of default. What are these standards called?
Underwriting standards.
40
What are the 4 types of credit risk?
* Issuer/Counterparty Risk * Pre-settlement risk * Settlement risk * Direct Risk
41
What are the issues with measuring credit risk?
* Bad data - lack of data, irrelevent data, major market events causing misleading data * Simple Calculations - too simple for future exposure * Assumptions - i.e. that all credit risk is equal * Understanding - lack of on how mititgating risk techniques influence risk
42
What are the methods for managing (2) and measuring (2) credit risk
**Managing** * Credit exposure management * Credit Risk Premium **Measuring** * Credti Ratings * Modern Calculation Techniques (PD, LGD and VaR Calculations)
43
What are 4 methods for mitigating Credit risk on a Individual/Counterpaty level?
* Underwriting Standards * Credit Limits * Collateral and Margin * Netting
44
What are 4 methods for mitigating Credit risk on a portfolio level?
* Diversification * Asset Securitisation * Loan Sales * Credit Deriviatives (CDSs, Total Return Swaps, Option CDSs, Credit-Linked Notes)
45
What is the factors of direct market risk?
Direct market risk factors are those that directly reflect the performance of a company, such as the health of its balance sheet, strength of its management team and its policy.
46
What are the factors of indirect market risk?
Indirect market risk factors are those that indirectly affect the performance of a company, such as interest rates, economic events and political and environmental.
47
What are the 5 Market Price Level associated risks?
* FX Risk: adverse exchange rate movement * Interest Rate Risk: adverse interest rate movement, affects fixed income mainly. * Credit Risk * Equity Price Risk: adverse share price movement * Commodity Price Risk: adverse commodity price movements
48
What are the 2 Market Volatility assoicated Risks?
* Liquidity Risk: loss through not being able to trade in a market or obtain a price * Basis Risk: when one kind of risk exposure is offset with another exposure in an instrument that behaves in a similar, but not identical, manner (ie, hedged).
49
What are 5 market risk measurement techniques?
* Distribution Analysis * Value at Risk (VaR) calculations * Expected Short Fall (cVaR) calculations. * Back Testing * Stress Testing
50
What are the 3 market risk mitigation methods?
* Hedging: used to reduce the impact of adverse price movements by taking an offsetting position in a related product. * Diversification * Risk Limits: Market Risk Limit or Stop‐Loss Limit (in terms of VaR).
51
Define Liquidity Risk
Risk of loss through not being able to trade in a market or obtain a price on a desired product when required. May also mean that the bank or financial institution may not be able to fulfil transactions as it does not hold sufficient cash (funding liquidity). Overlaps with credit/counterparty risk.
52
What are the 3 types of liquidity risk?
* Asset Liquidity - loss caused by an inability to sell an asset * Funding Liquidity - when liabilities cannot be met when they fall due or can only be met at an uneconomic price * Fund Liquidity - sufficient cash not available within a fund to pay out
53
What are the the 4 measurements of liquidity risk?
* Bid-Offer Spread - difference in buy and sell order prices. * Market Depth - amount of an asset that can be bought and sold at various bid-ask spreads * Immediency - measure of time taken for a trade to completed at specific price * Resilience - time taken for price recovery after a large transaction
54
What are the 3 ways to mitigate liquidity risk?
* Asset and Liability Management - match cash flows with liabilities * Maturity Ladders - stagger maturity dates ensuring consistant cash flow * Managing Actual and Contractual Cash Receipts - blancing non-contractual and contractual cash receipts.
55
What are the pros and cons of the Market Risk VaR calculation?
* **Pros**: can give statistical probability, provide correlation between assets, allows for quantifying all risks in a portfolio. * **Cons**: Doesn’t account for liquidity risk, depends on data accuracy/availability, doesn’t predict well for drastic risk environment changes.
56
What two ways can VaR be calculated?
* Historical Simulation * Correlation Simulation
57
What is CVaR?
Conditional value at risk, looks at average VaR, mean, excess loss and expected tail loss at certain VaR levels. Looks at average loss over a selected risk threshold.
58
How are market risk limits applied and what are they based on?
Applied using a stop-loss limit calculated based on VaR or similar varient.
59
What is the definintion of operational risk?
The risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events.
60
What is risk capacity?
Defined as the amount of risk an organisation can afford to take during its business activities or their ability to absorb a loss of a certain size over a period of time
61
What is one of the main operational risks?
Lack of duty/responsibility segregation is one of the main operational risks. A key preventative control is ‘supervision and segregation of duties’.
62
What is Operational Resilience?
‘the ability of a bank to deliver critical operations through disruption’.
63
What is a risk event and a risk effect?
A ‘risk event’ is essentially the loss event that occurs. In contrast, the ‘risk effect’ is the loss incurred by the firm.
64
Reducing the risk of manual errors and replacingit with system risks is known as?
Straight-through-processing / automated environment.
65
What is a near-miss?
Near-misses are where a risk event occurred but did not incur losses
66
What responsibilities does the board of directors have?
The board will have many responsibilities, including: * Overseeing the firm * Establishing board policies, strategy and objectives * Reviewing risk and setting risk appetite with a management approach * Appointing the CEO * Ensuring the firm has sufficient financial resources * Approving annual budgets for the organisation, and * Agreeing the salaries of senior management. * Being aware of operational risks and approve/review the operational risk framework: * Ensure the operational risk framework is independently audited by competent staff.
67
What does Dodd-Frank Act entail?
It is US Legislation with the objective to prevent another financial crisis caused by firms through improving the level of accountability and transparency in the US financial system through highlighting to the SEC excessive risks. It further aims to end the concept that a US firm is ‘too big to fail’ to protect the US taxpayer by ending bailouts to struggling firms and to protect consumers from abusive financial services practices. The act requires that high-risk OTC derivatives, such as CDSs, are regulated in the US by the SEC or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC)
68
What does the the UK Corporate Governance Code entail?
Applying to LSE listed companies, its intended to improve corporate governance within the UK by improving standards and promoting transparency and integrity. Through 5 sections: 1. Board leadership and company purpose. 2. Division of responsibilities. 3. Composition, succession and evaluation. 4. Audit, risk and internal control. 5. Remuneration.
69
What does Sarbanes-Oxley Act entail?
This US Legislation purpose is to protect investors by improving the accuracy and reliability of corporate financial reporting and disclosures. It created rules relating to public company accounting, auditor independence, corporate responsibility, and analysts’ conflicts of interest. It also gave the SEC power to regulate or to require securities associations and national securities exchanges to create rules to protect investors and the public interest. It is now a requirement that analysts certify the truthfulness of their views and disclose if they have received payment for them.
70
What does Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) entail?
This US Law requires that US persons, including those living outside the US, need to annually report details of themselves and their non-US financial accounts to the US authorities. It also requires all non-US based financial institutions to examine their account holders in order to identify any US persons and then report details of their identities and their assets to the US Treasury.
71
What does General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) entail?
- Regulated by the ICO, designed to protect the data rights of individuals (‘data subjects’). - Breach £17.5million or 4% of global turnover - Data controller has overall responsibility. Oversee the data processors. - Data should be obtained lawfully, fair and transparent, must be purpose limited, minimal, accurate. It must be stored minimally and be confidential. - Generally all records of transactions must be kept for at least five years in the UK.
72
What does the Sustainable Finance Disclosures Regulation (SFDR) entail and what are its 3 important articles?
- Mandatory disclosures for financial market participants in relation to the firm’s consideration of its sustainability risks to reduce greenwashing for comparing products accurately based on environmental impact. - Requires products to be captured within three classifications: **Article 6** - products either integrate ESG risk considerations into the investment decision-making process or explain why sustainability risk is not relevant. **Article 8** - products promote ESG characteristics, and may invest in sustainable investments, but do not have sustainable investing as a core objective. **Article 9** - products have a sustainable investment objective.
73
What is inherant (gross) risk?
The risk associated with an activity or an event before the risk response, i.e, the level risk before any controls have been put into place.
74
What is residual (net) risk?
Residual risk is the amount of risk remaining once the controls have been implemented.
75
What are the direct losses and indirect losses associated with poor project management?
**Direct** - more resources and time required to put project back on course - cancelling of project midway through - setup of further projects for remedial action **Indirect** - The opportunity to use the dedicated resource for the failed project on another project - project destabilising business as usual causing delays or more pressure increasing errors. - the project may be beyond the capacity of the business.
76
What are the responsiblities of the board risk commitee?
- Responsible for providing oversight and giving advice to the board of directors in relation to identified risk exposures of the organisation, including both current and potential risks, future risk strategy. - Oversees the CRO.
77
What are the responsibilities of the CRO?
- Report to Board of Directors or Board Risk Committee. - Responsible for ensuring the efficient and effective governance of risks and that the firm is compliant (main responsibility). - May be involved with internal audits, insurance, corporate investigations and fraud and info security. - Oversees and implements the ERM approach
78
What are Enterpise Risk Management's (ERM's) 4 practical objectives? | ERM is also known as Integrated or Firm Wide, Risk Management
1. Optimise the overall risk management process. 2. Provide an understanding of total risk exposure. 3. Manage the consequences of risk. 4. Ensure firmwide common understanding of risk and risk language.
79
What is Enterpise Risk Management (ERM)? | ERM is also known as Integrated or Firm Wide, Risk Management
ERM provides a firm with the ability to manage its risks effectively. It is a structured, consistent and continuous process across the whole organisation for identifying, assessing, deciding on responses to, and reporting on opportunities and threats that affect the achievement of its objectives. ERM aims to protect shareholder value by creating a risk profile, risk registers (a risk management tool)
80
What can impact the culture of a firm and what is a buisness requirement?
The business requirement is that the firm has a clearly defined business strategy. Impacts on Culture include: - Quality and integrity of staff - Internal changes - Effectiveness of controls, - Level of resourcing - Reward practices - Senior management conduct ## Footnote Senior Management are held accountable and should promote personal responsibility, integrity, continuous improvement, risk awareness and motivate, boost morale, train staff and manage changes effectively
81
What does a risk officer do?
A Risk Officer is appointed to independently challenge the firms risk control
82
What is Legal Risk?
A type of operational risk and is the risk of loss due to legal issues brought about by an inability to enforce legal contracts, licenses, ownership rights, patents or documents, or during contract forming, jurisdiction, netting and or collateral arrangements
83
What is Compliance (Regulatory Risk)
- A type of operational risk to earnings from violations i.e. paying fines, contract voiding, damage payments and reputational damage. - Compliance function should ensure good corporate governance, organisational integrity and regulatory compliance. - Other realised risks are fines or regulatory censure due to, fraud insider dealing/ market abuse, money laundering, exposure violations, unauthorised trading and bribery
84
What is typically the purpose of Middle Office?
Supports the front office and acts as a point of control and acts. Middle Office will have systems in place to assess the types of clients the firm has, their risk profiles. Ensures that due diligence is correctly carried out before being passed to the back office by: - ensuring that trades are correctly booked. - monitoring existing trades - revaluing portfolios - reporting profit and loss positions, risk and process metrics - providing a point of contact as well as a point of control over an outsourced provider. - monitoring COACs - May include outsourced providers.
85
What is typically the purpose of Back Office?
- Generally referred to as ‘operations’, provides administrative and support services. - Their objectives are typically to monitor the life of transactions, fulfill the settlement, payment and other actions, and provide the transaction, position and cash movement information. - Carries out functions such as transaction instruction, settlement, clearing, record maintenance, reconciliation, asset servicing and interface with regulatory compliance and accounting. - The back office ensures that: o actual exchanges and deliveries of money and assets between the firm and its various counterparties are arranged, monitored, verified and fulfilled, o settlement instructions are maintained and checked, o flows between cash nostro accounts and deposit accounts at securities depositories are correctly managed.
86
What is Accounting Risk?
- Risk of inaccurate financial reporting - Effects can lead to the consequences of direct and indirect loss such as fines and penalties. - Accounting errors can also conceal already realised losses. These can often go undetected for a long period as they become lost among other problems and causes. - Includes Trader misreporting transaction details, misreporting accounts, because of complex aggregation rules, changing industry accounting standards.
87
Internal Audits are a requirement under MIFID? | True/False
True - and has to be independant of senior management
88
Internal Audits are a requirement under Basel Accords? | True/False
False - it is a requirement under MIFID. Although it does form part of the basel accords
89
What is risk reporting?
Risk reporting involves communicating the losses, exposure and risks to the right level of management in the firm, including escalating the details to the board of directors. Its functions are to provide transparency of risk status and issues, aid communication reduce uncertainty, escalate issues and recommendations, and allow early and decisive action to address risk.
90
What are the three lines of defence approach/model in operational risk with regards to operational policy?
- First line: Controls are integrated into the firm’s systems and processes and provides management with verification and feedback to auditors on identifying risks and its controls. - Second Line: comprises of risk professionals and compliance groups, which help the risk management process in facilitating and monitoring the implementation of effective risk management, systems and controls within the firm. - Third Line: Essentially the internal audit and independent assurance covering the first and second line of defence
91
In order for operational risk management to meet their prime objectives, what areas should the risk policy need to address?
In order to meet the prime objectives of operational risk management, the risk policy should address the following areas: * Sponsorship * Identification of key officers * Cross-divisional involvement and agreement * Roles and responsibilities * Definition and communication of the risk management framework and explicitly the firm’s risk methodology * Consistency of the firm-wide approach * Coordination and escalation * Segregation of duties, and * Risk appetite.
92
The operational risk management function has three key aims. What are they?
1. Identification, measurement, assessment and management of operational risk. 2. Reduction or mitigation of the potential impact to acceptable levels 3. Adopt a common, structured approach to risk management across the firm.
93
What is the aim of the operational risk management function?
1. Reduce operational errors and its associated losses 2. Detect risk early 3. Reduce future risk exposure 4. Decrease cost of audits and compliance.
94
What is the process for Risk management?
The Process the operational risk management function is responsible for implementing and overseeing is: 1. Identification and classification of risks 2. Risk and control measurement and assessment. 3. Response (the reduction of potential risk impact, and of the likelihood of any occurrences in the first place). 4. Monitoring of risks. 5. Reporting and escalation of risks. 6. Planning and change. 7. Policy and appetite.
95
What is a risk register? | Also known as a risk log or risk management matrix.
A central record of all identified risks at alll stages with ratings and resulting actions taken place by the risk manager. A risk register typically contains: - risk reference (used internally to help identify this risk in the future) - date identified - description of the risk - risk owner - risk cause - key controls - risk effect/harm - risk scores (inherent and residual) - risk response/proposed action (immediate) - remedial actions (follow-up) and deadlines, and - methods of monitoring the risk.
96
What are some constrains on implementing a operational risk management process?
Constraints on implementing this process/framework include: - Data collection (i.e lack of) - Cultural (management need to be convinced) - Resources and Costs - Unfit risk indicator designs.
97
What are the internal risks in operational risk? | Basel Defined Risks
* Unauthorised Activity (unreported transactions/ transaction type unauthorised) * Theft/Fraud (bribery, insider trading, forgery, tax evasion).
98
What are examples of external fraud in operational risk?
External fraud – examples include robbery, forgery and theft via computer hacking and cyber attacks.
99
What is a risk appetite statement and what should it include?
Risk appetite can be expressed in any number of ways including an absolute value or limit (eg, £1 million per risk event) or a relative limit (eg, 3% of revenue, or 1% of clients in default). Risk appetite statement communicates and provide transparecny around the risks management process within the organisation. It should include the: * Date of issue * Document approvals and revisions * Definition of risk and risk ratings to ensure consistency across the business * Risk appetite value or limit * Escalation procedures for any risk identified exceeding the risk appetite * Frequency of review or date of next review, and * Distribution.
100
What are the 7 types of operational risk? Per Basel Committee
1. Internal Fraud 2. External Fraud 3. Employment Practices and Workplace Safety 4. Clients, Products and Business Practices 5. Damage to Physical Assets 6. Business Disrupton and System Failures 7. Execution, Delivery and Process Management
101
What might a company use BBA, ORX, ORIC and/or Fitch for?
To source external operational risk data to help improve the companies operational risk process ## Footnote British Bankers Association (BBA), Operational Riskdata eXchange Association (ORX), the Operational Risk Consortium (ORIC) and Fitch.
102
Why is measuring operational risk important?
Measurements allow for: - Creation of a quantitative baseline, - Appropriate accountability - Responsibility by understanding the scale and where it occurs, - Providing an incentive for risk management - The development of a risk-aware culture, - Improving management decision-making - Adopting a proactive and transparent approach to risk management - Assessing the financial risk exposure that can be used for capital allocation purposes.
103
How is risk score calculated? | A type of Operational Risk Measurement
Risk Score = Likelihood*Impact ## Footnote **Advantages**: simple, effective, focuses management attention, minimal data needed, wide scope of possibilities, anticipates loss, encourage risk awareness culture. **Disadvantages**: cost benefit of remedial action is difficult to ascertain, it is subjective and may be oversimplified.
104
What are the 6 methods for measuring Operational Risk?
**1. Rating, Ranking and Assessing** - risk scoring **2. Risk and Control Self-Assessment** - each manager compiles a list of risks and exposure. **3. Scenario Analysis** - capture possible scenarios that have occurred in the past **4. Benchmarking** - comparing loss data and measures of operational risk with competitors **5. Material Top-Down Risk Assessment** - SM review risks, set objectives and appetite **6. Risk Event Data Analysis:** - use statistical methods from internal/external collected data | SM - Senior Management
105
What are the three stages of operational risk chain of events?
1. Root Cause 2. Event 3. Effects
106
What are the 4 common method operational risk catagories?
Process, People, Systems, Events
107
What are 5 methods to identify operational risk?
1. Risk and Control Self-Assessment 2. Reviews/Audits 3. Focus Workshops 4. Risk Event Analysis 5. Management Information Statistics and Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)
108
What are the advantages and disadvantages of using KRIs?
**KRI advantages**: trend monitoring, creation of limit of acceptability, basis for performance measurement and targets, early warning signal alert. **KRI disadvantages**: misleading if in isolation, difficult to report on qualitative measures.
109
What are some examples of Process-Related Indicators in Operational Risk?
* Number of settlement failures occurring over a given time period. * Number of times a trader exceeds agreed credit limits. * Number of times funding deadlines are missed in a given time period. * Number and value of cash (nostro) or position (depot) reconciliation breaks over a given time period. * Value of interest claims incurred over a given time period.
110
What are some examples of Non-Process-Related Indicators in Operational Risk?
* Staff turnover. * Percentage of temporary staff to permanent staff. * Amount of overtime. * Percentage of staff with an agreed training plan. * Period of time to review departmental plans. * Response and resolution times to audit queries. * Absenteeism.
111
What ranking system do firms use to monitor its KRI to helpstaff understand the risk appertite it has set and its escalation porcess and actions to be taken?
**RAG Status**: many firms monitor KRIs on a red/amber/green basis (often referred to as the ‘RAG’ status), and ensure that staff understand the implications, escalation process and actions to be taken when risk indicators go into the amber or red zones.
112
What indicator is used to measure activity in the organisation and ensure success and meeting of performance targets, and what one is used to monitor the effectiveness of controls?
**Key performance indicators (KPIs)** - send to measure activity within the organisation and are often used as a measure of success in meeting performance targets. **Key control indicators (KCIs)** – used to monitor the effectiveness of controls in meeting their objectives.
113
What are the biggest problems with operational risk identification?
1. Time required to ensure comprehensive risk profile 2. Changing business/operating model 3. Product/Market/System/Regulation changes. 4. Lack of quaility historical data 5. Lack of robust policies 6. Poor Methods of collecting and compiling a risk profile 7. Conflicting opinions/perceptions of risk 8. Consistancy of risk catagorisation & general consistancy
114
Once identifying operational risk what are the 5 decisions that you can choose from?
**Five potential mitigation methods:** 1. Reduce the likelihood of the risk occurring 2. Reduce the impact of the risk, should it occur 3. Transfer the risk 4. Accept the risk, and 5. Avoid the risk – by ceasing the activity that gives rise to the risk.
115
What is Risk Avoidance?
Avoiding risk means either withdrawing from a business because of an unacceptable level of risk
116
What 4 things can you do to transfer operational risk?
1. Outsource 2. Get Insurance 3. Increase Security around Information and Physical Assets 4. Have financial reserves ## Footnote Transfering risk does not address the reputational impact and indirect costs of operational losses incurred by an insurer or third party as it will most likely still have to be borne by the firm.
117
What are 4 ways to reduce the likelyhood of an operational risk occuring? | What are the 4 types of operational risk controls
Operational risk controls: * Directive Controls * Preventative Controls * Corrective controls * Detective Controls (internal & external)
118
What are 6 ways to reduce the impact of the risk, should it occur
1. Diversification strategies 2. Risk Sharing 3. Business Continuity and Contingency Planning 4. Operational Resiliance 5. Disastery Recovery Plan 6. Good communication and Reporting
119
What are the 4 main difficulties/constraints when implementing an operational risk managemenet framework?
1. Data collection and management constraints 2. Cultural constraints 3. Resource and cost constraints 4. Indicator constraints
120
What are the 4 simple causes of Operational Risk events?
- Root Causes: People, Processes, Systems, External Events.
121
What are some of the Operational Risk Events?
Some of the important events are: * incorrect data * delayed processing and documentary omissions * regulatory non-compliance * project mismanagement * fraud and theft * unforeseen litigation * information technology failures.
122
An Operational RIsk is that there may be incorrect data, what might the root cause for this be?
Data can be incorrect for several reasons, for example: * It has been captured or calculated incorrectly. * It has been overwritten in error. * It has not been updated to reflect changes. ## Footnote Mis-keying because of human error (people cause). Not be detected due to the lack of an effective control procedure (process cause). Problem occurring might be increased due to the pressure of increasing volumes (event cause).
123
Which of the following is an example of a direct loss caused by incorrect data? A. Damaged reputation from incorrect documentation B. Loss of clients due to perceived malpractice C. Failed transactions D. Staff demotivation
C
124
Indirect losses due to incorrect data can include which of the following? A. Incorrect documentation leading to a transaction being incorrectly priced B. Mis-keying data due to human error C. Damaged reputation from incorrect order execution D. Compensating client loss from poor conduct risk outcomes
C
125
Delayed processing and documentary omissions can result in direct losses due to: A. Interest claims or financial penalties B. Increased transaction volumes C. Adverse publicity D. Staff demotivation
A
126
Which of the following describes an indirect loss resulting from delayed processing and documentary omissions? A. Loss of assets or cash through unenforceable contracts B. Loss of income from transaction fees C. Damaged reputation due to incorrect documentation D. Corrections to profit and loss due to mistakes in booking
C
127
Regulatory non-compliance can lead to direct losses through: A. Reputational damage B. Fines or penalties C. Loss of clients D. Increased operational costs
B
128
Indirect losses from regulatory non-compliance could include: A. Penalties from regulatory censure B. Direct remedial costs C. Regulatory censure resulting in damaged reputation D. Loss of assets
C
129
In the case of fraud and theft, an example of a direct loss would be: A. Adverse publicity damaging the firm’s reputation B. The dishonesty of the fraudster C. Loss of income from transaction fees D. Loss as a result of the crime
D
130
Which of the following is an indirect loss due to fraud and theft? A. Legal bills resulting from lawsuits B. Adverse publicity damaging the firm’s reputation C. Loss of income from direct fees D. Costs associated with compensating client loss
B
131
Which of the following is a direct loss resulting from unforeseen litigation? A. Loss of clients due to perceived malpractice B. Large compensation and legal bills from losing a lawsuit C. Staff demotivation D. Reputational damage
B
132
An example of an indirect loss from unforeseen litigation is: A. Legal bills B. Compensating client loss C. Adverse publicity affecting reputation D. Fines arising from regulatory censure
C
133
Information technology failures can result in direct losses such as: A. Damaged reputation due to adverse publicity B. Loss of data or corruption C. Fines or penalties D. Loss of clients
C
134
Which of the following represents an indirect loss due to information technology failures? A. Loss of transaction fees B. Adverse publicity negatively impacting the firm’s reputation C. Loss of assets through unenforceable contracts D. Compensation for client loss
B
135
Which type of operational risk event is described by the failure of two systems to be compatible, leading to manual data entry and potential human error? A. Regulatory Non-Compliance B. Fraud and Theft C. Incorrect Data D. Delayed Processing
C
136
Delays in the processing of a transaction or omissions in documents are examples of which operational risk event? A. Information Technology Failures B. Delayed Processing and Documentary Omissions C. Regulatory Non-Compliance D. Fraud and Theft
B
137
A breach of industry rules due to incorrect interpretation or lack of adequate people, processes, or systems is an example of which type of operational risk event? A. Project Mismanagement B. Regulatory Non-Compliance C. Fraud and Theft D. Unforeseen Litigation
B
138
If a firm experiences a risk event where a single individual has complete authority over client payments, increasing the opportunity for fraud, this is an example of: A. Information Technology Failures B. Fraud and Theft C. Project Mismanagement D. Incorrect Data
B
139
Being sued due to contractual differences or ambiguities is an example of which operational risk event? A. Unforeseen Litigation B. Delayed Processing and Documentary Omissions C. Fraud and Theft D. Project Mismanagement
A
140
Power failure, hardware failure, and cyberattacks are examples of which type of operational risk event? A. Incorrect Data B. Delayed Processing and Documentary Omissions C. Information Technology Failures D. Unforeseen Litigation
C
141
Which operational risk event includes the risk of large compensation and legal bills resulting from lawsuits? A. Project Mismanagement B. Fraud and Theft C. Unforeseen Litigation D. Regulatory Non-Compliance
C
142
What type of operational risk event involves early warning signs such as delayed processing and omissions in documents? A. Incorrect Data B. Delayed Processing and Documentary Omissions C. Regulatory Non-Compliance D. Information Technology Failures
B
143
Incorrect reporting or exceeding limits due to inadequate processes or systems falls under which operational risk event? A. Regulatory Non-Compliance B. Fraud and Theft C. Unforeseen Litigation D. Project Mismanagement
A
144
Which operational risk event can arise from viruses, overloaded systems, or interrelated system failures? A. Incorrect Data B. Fraud and Theft C. Information Technology Failures D. Delayed Processing
C
145
A company's project to migrate data to a new system is delayed because the project team underestimated the complexity of the migration process. This scenario exemplifies: A. Fraud and Theft B. Delayed Processing C. Project Mismanagement D. Unforeseen Litigation
C
146
A project to develop a new customer relationship management (CRM) system fails because the team was not properly trained on the new software, leading to implementation issues. This is an example of: A. Information Technology Failures B. Project Mismanagement C. Regulatory Non-Compliance D. Delayed Processing
B
147
What might be an early warning sign that there is a weak process or lack of appropriate controls that could cause a risk event?
Delayed Processing and Documentary Ommissions.
148
What is th difference between a direct loss and indirect loss?
Direct will be financial costs and Indicrect will be consequential loss. - Direct Loss (direct financial costs) includes: o Claims for damages/compensation from failure to meet contractual obligations. o Penalties/fines arising from regulatory censure, or revocation of licences. o Loss of income from transaction fees, direct fees and commissions o Loss of assets or cash through unenforceable contracts o Costs associated with compensating client loss from poor conduct risk outcomes o Corrections to profit and loss (P&L) due to mistakes in booking o Associated direct remedial or litigation costs of rectifying the operational weakness - Indirect Loss (consequential loss) includes: o Remedial Action costs o Reputational Damage (reputational risk), client dissatisfaction, loss of clients, perceived malpractice. o Staff Demotivation
149
Delays in processing a transaction can result in which direct loss? A. Damaged reputation B. Incorrect documentation C. Interest claims or financial penalties D. Regulatory censure
C
150
Which of the following is a direct loss resulting from regulatory non-compliance? A. Inability to trade B. Fines or penalties C. Damaged reputation from regulatory censure D. Increased project costs
B
151
Which is a direct loss effect of project mismanagement? A. Increased pressure on line staff B. Higher costs of operating the business due to project delays C. Damaged reputation due to project failure D. Adverse publicity
B
152
An indirect loss from project mismanagement could be: A. Fines or penalties from regulatory authorities B. Opportunity loss due to misallocated resources C. Direct financial compensation to clients D. Loss from theft or fraud
B
153
In a financial services company what part is most likely to have the most serious operational risk issues? A. Front Office B. Back Office C. Middle Office D. All of the above
A - eg, fraud, exceeding credit limits, and point-of-trade errors). ## Footnote Font Office is populated by the firm’s ‘revenue-earners’ (traders, fund managers, salespeople, and market risk managers).
154
What are some typical controls for front office?
- segregation of duties, - have clear escalation procedures, - ensure adequate research is carried out, - controlling new market and credit limit requests, - have effective capital requirement reporting, - continuous limit reviews, - effective control over front office systems, - ensuring control over after-hour trading, - controlling dealing tickets and ensuring their efficient processing, - continually updating positions, - and maintaining high ethical standards. | Note all would need continual monitoring
155
Why is KYC important (3 reasons)
1. Forms part of AML 2. Allows the firm to provide suitable advice 3. Allows firms to understand the clients requirements and changes, and gives teh frim the ability to determine vunerable customers to provide addtional supprort ## Footnote In the UK, the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) has issued requirements in its Handbook for firms to abide by.
156
What stages are involved when onboarding a client? | What are the setup stages
- Marketing and Sales Promotions Regulations are adhered to - Know Your Customer (KYC) is performed - International Sanctions Check - Suitability Assessment of Client using reference data - Account Setup in system with Classification (Retail/Professional/ECP) - Credit Assesment - Setting up Standard Settlement Instructions (SSIs) - Legal Contract Negotiations - Client and Counterparty Agreements
157
What 4 stages are involved in the Pre-Settlement Phase of the Trade Lifecycle?
1. Transaction Capture 2. Trade Confirmation 3. Asset and Cash Positioning 4. Centralised Clearing
158
What 2 stages are involved in the Settlement Phase of the Trade Lifecycle?
1. Payment Instruction / Transaction Instruction 2. Settlement
159
What 5 stages are involved in the Post-Settlement Phase of the Trade Lifecycle? | 5 stages is for derivatives (4 otherwise)
1. Reconciliation 2. Inventory Management 3. Asset Servicing (COACs, Proxies) 4. Margin and Collateral Management 5. Record-Keeping
160
Which of the following is a key risk associated with transaction capture in the pre-settlement phase of the trade lifecycle? A) Insufficient margin call from counterparties B) Errors or delays in transaction capture and processing C) Disputes over netting arrangements with CCPs D) Non-compliance with regulatory reporting requirement
B
161
Which Key Risk Indicator (KRI) would be most relevant for monitoring operational risk in transaction capture? A) Number of times collateral is called B) Trends in volume of transactions handled manually C) Time taken to settle disputes with clearing houses D) Percentage of trades processed through CCPs
B
162
Which control would be most effective in preventing errors during the transaction capture phase? A) Ensuring all trades are manually checked B) Implementing straight-through processing (STP) C) Reconciling funding positions monthly D) Using CCPs for all trades
B
163
In the trade confirmation process, which of the following is a key control to mitigate operational risk? A) Daily netting of all trades B) Ensuring a legal agreement covering confirmation protocol is in place prior to trading C) Automatic settlement without confirmation D) Consolidating all confirmations at the end of the month
B
164
Which Key Risk Indicator (KRI) is used to monitor the trade confirmation process? A) Number of unmatched trades in the settlement system B) Number of confirmations not yet agreed with the counterparty C) Number of margin calls issued D) Volume of trades cleared through a central counterparty
B
165
What is a key risk associated with poor management in asset and cash positioning? A) Increased profitability due to efficient resource usage B) Early settlement leading to reduced borrowing costs C) Settlement delays resulting in potential fines and reputational damage D) Reduced exposure to interest rate fluctuations
C
166
Which Key Risk Indicator (KRI) is associated with asset and cash positioning? A) Number of unmatched trades in the trade capture system B) Number of late-settled transactions due to a lack of funds C) Time taken to resolve disputes with counterparties D) Volume of trades cleared through a central counterparty
B
167
What type of margin is calculated based on the worst-case scenario of a one-day price move? A) Maintenance Margin B) Initial Margin C) Variation Margin D) Performance Margin
B
168
What is the function of a central counterparty (CCP) in the clearing process? A) To act as a guarantor of contracts and assume credit risk B) To process all transactions manually to avoid automation errors C) To eliminate the need for initial margin requirements D) To minimise operational risk by avoiding collateral calls
A
169
Which control is essential for ensuring adequate asset and cash positioning before settlement? A) Delaying funding deadlines to optimise resources B) Implementing system limits to warn of insufficient assets C) Automating all trade confirmations D) Relying solely on external funding sources
B
170
Which Key Risk Indicator (KRI) is relevant for monitoring errors in the transaction capture phase? A) Time taken for counterparties to return confirmations B) Number of errors detected by reconciliations C) Number of margin calls issued D) Volume of trades processed through CCPs
B
171
Which control is most effective in ensuring the accuracy of transaction capture? A) Monthly review of all trades B) Implementing straight-through processing (STP) C) Delaying the reconciliation process D) Relying on manual processing for high-value trades
B
172
Which KRI is used to assess the effectiveness of the trade confirmation process? A) Number of confirmations not yet agreed with the counterparty B) Volume of transactions handled manually C) Number of unmatched trades in the settlement system D) Time taken to process initial margin
A
173
What control is implemented to mitigate risks in the trade confirmation process? A) Monthly reconciliation of funding positions B) Ensuring legal agreements for confirmation protocols are in place before trading C) Consolidating all confirmations into a single monthly report D) Using CCPs to bypass confirmation requirements
B
174
Which KRI is crucial for monitoring asset and cash positioning? A) Number of late-settled transactions due to a lack of funds B) Time taken to formalise legal agreements C) Volume of trades with manual intervention D) Percentage of trades settled through CCPs
A
175
Which control helps ensure adequate asset and cash positioning before settlement? A) Setting internal funding deadlines B) Automating the confirmation process C) Delaying asset allocation until settlement day D) Eliminating system warnings for insufficient assets
A
176
In the context of centralised clearing, which KRI is relevant for risk management? A) Volume of trades processed through manual intervention B) Time taken to detect and resolve confirmation errors C) Number of defaulting clearing members D) Number of initial margin calls made during the day
D
177
Which control is fundamental in managing risks associated with centralised clearing? A) Daily sign-off of front-to-back positions B) Taking collateral based on recent sale prices or expert appraisal C) Delaying margin calculations to the end of the trading day D) Eliminating the need for variation margin calculations
B
178
In relation to a CCP, what is the difference between Inital and Vairation Margin?
* Initial Margin - worst case scenario of a one-day price move on all registered open positions. * Variation Margin - based upon a mark-to-market calculation at the previous day’s closing prices, which reflects the profit or loss on all registered open positions.
179
How are clearing houses funded?
They are funded by their members, their share capital and reserve, the exchange, or other parties that do not have a direct relationship with the economics of their market.
180
How to clearing houses /CCPs/Gurantor of Contracts protect themselves against defaults?
They protect themselves against defaults by position monitoring and taking collateral, calculated using recent sale prices of similar assets or having the asset appraised by a qualified expert | They'd also use credit deriviatives and other methods under there..
181
What are the 4 KRIs for trade capture in the Pre-Settlement Phase?
* Trends in volume of transactions with the %age handled manually. * Number of errors detected by reconciliations. * Time taken to detect and resolve errors. * Number of transactions not captured within a specific time from trade execution.
182
What are 3 Key Controls for Trade Capture in the Pre-Settlement Phase?
* Implementing straight-through processing (STP) (a preventative control). * Daily sign-off of front-to-back positions (an internal detective control). * Funding position reconciliations (an internal detective control).
183
What are the 4 KRIs for Trade Confrimation in the Pre-Settlement Phase?
* Length of time taken to formalise a legal agreement. * Number and type of confirmation errors found in the checking process. * Number of confirmations not yet agreed with the counterparty. * Time taken for counterparties to return confirmations
184
What are the 4 Key Controls for Trade Confrimation in the Pre-Settlement Phase?
- Ensuring that a legal agreement covering confirmation protocol is in place prior to trading (a preventative control). - A confirmation checking function performed by a different person to the creator (an internal detective control). - Front office sign-off of the economic terms of the confirmation (an internal detective control). - Follow-up actions to counterparties that have not returned written confirmations (an internal detective control).
185
What are the 3 KRIs for 'Asset and Cash Positioning' in the Pre-Settlement Phase?
- the number of transactions missing the internal funding deadlines. - the number of late-settled transactions due to a lack of funds. - extra cost of borrowing to ensure settlement.
186
What are the 2 Key Controls for 'Asset and Cash Positioning' in the Pre-Settlement Phase?
- The use of internal funding deadlines by which time confirmation and transaction instructions must be completed. These deadlines would allow enough time for the funding and settlement activities to be completed (a preventative control). - System limits to warn users that there are insufficient assets available to cover an upcoming settlement (a detective control).
187
What are the 2 KRIs for Settlement in the Settlement Phase?
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) might include: - Measures the quality of the overall process is the number of times a firm settles late, but this could also be affected by market influences.
188
What are the 6 KRIs in Reconciliation in the Post-Settlement Phase?
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) might include: - The volume of unreconciled events (or ‘breaks’) - The amount of reconciliation breaks - amount of time spent by staff and other resources in rectifying the discrepancy. - amount of overtime being worked by the reconciliations team. - monetary cost of this overtime - other associated costs, for example, fines imposed by regulators (unreconciled positions may also involve the payment of interest or compensation claims)
189
What are the 4 Main Risks associated with Corporate Actions and Proxies
* Missed announcements. * Complex structure of information and instruction flows between participants. * Late elections / missed deadlines. * Incomplete or incorrect information or instructions – possible rejections
190
What is positioning? | Trade Lifecycle
**Asset and Cash Positioning** ensures that there is sufficient stock or cash available at the time of settlement to fulfil the settlement of a contract. As part of overall inventory management which is to have the most efficient use of a company’s resources to maximise profit, it leads to operational risk where poor management can lead to two potential consequences: settlement being delayed, exposing the firm to interest claims, potential fines and reputational damage. And higher borrowing costs – to ensure settlement, a firm may have to borrow cash or securities at a higher cost than would otherwise be necessary.
191
What are the 3 objectives of the operations department (back office)?
1. monitor the life of a transaction 2. fulfil the settlement, payment and other actions 3. provide the transaction, position and cash movement information | Settlement and Post-Settlement Phases in Trade Life-Cycle
192
What are the 3 pillars of the Basel II (Basel Accords) directive?
* Pillar 1 – minimum capital requirements. * Pillar 2 – regulatory supervision. * Pillar 3 – market discipline.
193
Which regulatory guideline was issued in 1988 and what were its objectives?
The 1988 Accord called for a minimum capital requirements . It introduced Capital Adequacy (later replaced by Basel II) Objective: addressing the need for setting aside additional capital for both market risk and operational risk in response to market events including the Barings crisis | Basel Accords
194
What was the aim of the CRD?
CRD aims to: - have in place a comprehensive and risk-sensitive framework - encourage and enhance risk management among financial institutions - maximise the effectiveness of the capital rules in ensuring continuing financial stability, thus maintaining confidence in financial institutions and protecting consumers. ## Footnote The Basel II Accord CRD implementation was in addition to the Basel I Capital Adequacy Directive (CAD)
195
What is the minimum risk exposure % when using the basic indicator approach under minimum CRD requirements? A) 5% B) 8% C) 12% D) 15%
D - This approach requires a bank to hold a fixed percentage (denoted ‘alpha’) of its gross income as operational risk capital. This fixed percentage is set by the Basel Committee, and is currently at a level of 15%.
196
When calculating captial requirement, when using the standardised approach, what must the gross income of the 8 different business activities be multiplied by to achieve the total? A) Alpha B) Beta Factor C) 10% D) 8% | CRD
**B** ∑Required Capital= Gross income x beta factor Beta Factors are set by the regulators at: * Corporate Finance, Trading and Sales, Payment & Settlement = 18% * Retail Banking, Retail Brokerage, Asset Management = 12% * Commercial Banking, Agency Services= 15%
197
What is the minimum Capital Ratio set at? A) 8% B) 15% C) Alpha D) Beta Factor
A - The minimum overall capital ratio remains at 8% of its risk-weighted assets (RWA) but the methods of measuring market, credit and operational risk exposure are now more elaborate. Capital ratio= (Capital requirement)/(Credit risk expore+Market risk exposure+Operational risk exposure)
198
What is the internal loss multiplier (ILM) used in the AMA Capital requirement calculation?
The internal loss multiplier (ILM) is a measure of the firm’s average historical operational risk losses during the previous 10 years, it is calculated at 15 times the average annual operational risk losses and used as calculating the Capital Requirement of a company under the Advanced Measurement Apporach (AMA).
199
What is the Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA) in the Basel Accords
- The Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA) uses internal measurements and loss data to base the calculation on. - To apply AMA, you must qualify under the standard approach and have highly detailed quantitative models and qualitative figure to back up your required capital amount.
200
What is the Business Indicator Component (BIC) used in the Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA) for the Operational Risk Capital (ORC) Requirement calculation?
The business indicator component (BIC) is a measure of operational risk based on the institution’s last three years financial statements and consists of three elements: 1. The interest, leases and dividend component. 2. The services component. 3. The financial component
201
What did Basel III change
- **Capital requirements** – ‘additional capital buffers’ - **Leverage ratio** – a minimum ‘leverage ratio’ that requires banks to hold in excess of 3% of their average total consolidated assets to provide more protection. - **Liquidity coverage ratio** – this requires a bank to hold sufficient liquid assets that are of a higher quality and are in excess of its total net outflows over a 30-day period. - **Net stable funding ratio** – this requires a bank to hold an amount of stable funding that is in excess of the required amount of stable funding over a one-year period of extended stress. - **AMA replaced by standardised approach** – a single approach for all firms, focusing on a bank’s income and historical internal losses over a ten-year period. - **Higher quality reserve capital** to be held.
202
What is the aim of Basel III?
Basel III also aims to ensure: - that there is sufficient liquidity during times of economic stress, - improve risk management, - strengthen the transparency and, - reduce bank leverage by setting voluntary regulatory standards on the level of bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk.
203
What was the US Company Invesco fined for by the FCA in 2014 for its acitvities in 2008-2012.
* Exposing investors to higher levels of risk than they had been led to expect. * Invesco did not comply with investment limits and did not clearly inform investors or explain the associated risks of its use of derivatives in its simplified prospectus required for each fund * introducing leverage into its funds, although the firm was not allowed to use derivatives in this way. * firm had not always recorded trades on time, which meant funds could have been wrongly priced. * The firm also failed to monitor whether trades were fairly allocated between funds, creating an actual risk that some funds may have been disadvantaged.
204
What was the LIBOR scandal?
* Some banks were falsely over- or understating their interest rates in order to profit on certain trades, or to give the false impression that they were more creditworthy than they actually were. * LIBOR was also the benchmark rate for many types of derivatives, such as swaps and structured products. Banks could, therefore, influence the setting of prices for products they had sold to clients.
205
What was Wells Fargo fined for in 2016 as a result of internal fraud?
Employees of Wells Fargo fraudulently opening millions of fee-bearing bank accounts and credit cards on behalf of clients without their consent in order to meet sales targets and to boost income for the bank using a process called pinning. ## Footnote processes known as ‘pinning’ whereby the client’s security pin number was reset to ‘0000’, allowing members of staff to access and control the account; employees would also replace the clients’ contact details with their own contact details to circumvent fraud notifications to the clients
206
What was Merrill Lynch fined for in 2017 as a result of system failures?
Transactions werent being reported and they and had experienced difficulties in implementing appropriate systems and controls to prevent this. They syntehetically genereated these undocumented trades but unfortunately it was based on incorrect static data table that made over 68 million trades not being reported to the regulator, ## Footnote the lack of appropriate controls over the three-year period in review, coupled with the repeated nature of the offence, resulted in the regulator increasing the fine by 60%.
207
What was TSB fined for as a result of system failure?
They were transaferring customers to Llyods Banking Group new digital platform where they experienced an outage on it. 1.9million people couldnt access online and mobile banking. Due to poor communication on TSB's end, many customers were fruadulently targeted during it.
208
Why was Raphael’s Bank fined by the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) in 2018?
* The bank had been fined previously by the PRA in 2015 for its failure in relation to oversight of outsourced functions. It did not have the processes in place to identify and assess the risks related to business continuity and disaster recovery arrangements. * An incident occurred at its third-party supplier, preventing any transactions from being authorised which affected over 3,000 customers who were unable to use their prepaid cards during an eight-hour period on Christmas eve in 2015.
209
Why were banks fined in relation to whatsapp by the SEC in 2022?
* Fined for ‘pervasive off-channel communications’ which allowed employees of the organisations involved to avoid regulatory scrutiny by communicating via WhatsApp. * These record-keeping failings were identified across multiple levels from junior employees through to senior executives.
210
A bank cannot fulfil transactions because its cash reserves are too low. What kind of risk has materialised in this case? A. Operational Risk B. Liquidity Risk C. Market Liquidity Risk D. Credit Risk
B
211
A market maker has experienced losses on his portfolio today due to volatile conditions. This is an example of which type of risk? A. Credit Risk B. Market Risk C. Operational Risk D. Liquidity Risk
B
212
The risk management tool which allows firms to collate, assess and record the range of risks to which it is exposed to is: A. The value at risk model B. Enterprise risk management C. The risk registrar D. The capital at risk calculation
C
213
What key factor of Invesco's operations between 2008 and 2012 led to a major risk-related event resulting in the imposition of a FCA fine? A. Unsupervised delegation of responsibilities took place B. Risk levels were higher than investors expected. C. Internal Manipulation of interest rates took place D. Firewalls on their trading platform were inadequate.
B
214
A key aim of enterprise risk management is to: A. Minimise human involvement on transactions B. Rationalise diverse product range C. Protect shareholder value D. Eliminate unnecessary administrative costs
C
215
Is market risk intrinsic or extrinsic in all markets and products?
Intrinsic
216
True or False: VaR is a statistical measure that uses distribution analysis and sensitivity analysis to determine how much value of a portfolio may be lost given certain market conditions
True
217
What is a maturity ladder?
This method involves investing in a range of securities that have varying ‘maturity dates’. This ensures regular cash flows in terms of both income and capital maturing. This helps reduce liquidity risk
218
What may actual cash receipts compared to contractual cash receipts be linked to?
Performance level of a suitable index
219
What are the two main variables associated with liquidity risk?
Cash and Time
220
Which of the following ratings of corporate bonds is classified as non-investment grade? A. S&P rating of AA B. S&P rating of A C. Moody's rating of Baa D. Moody's rating of Ba
D
221
Which of the following transactions is potentially 'off-balance-sheet' rather than 'on-balance-sheet' A. Buying debt securities B. Making a loan too a customer C. Entering into an OTC derivative D. Selling equity securities
C
222
An Instrument is referred to as non-investment grade if its long-term rating is: A. Baa2/BBB+ and below B. Baa3/BB- and below C. Ba1/BB+ and below D. Baa1/BBB and below.
C
222
Which of the following is the comparison of actual daily trading exposure to the predicted value at risk (VaR) figure of market risk? A. Stress testing B. Correlation Simulation C. Covariance Simulation D Back Testing
D
223
Which of the following best defines standard deviation? A. How spread out values are from the mean B. An alternative average measure to the mean C. The amount of operational risk exposure there is over a given period D. The variation of losses in a beta curve
A
224
Which of the following best describes what value at risk (VaR) measures? A. The likelihood of loss B. The uncertainty of returns C. The probability of returns D. The size of loss
D
225
On maturity a currency forward contract is settled by Firm A paying in US dollars but Firm B's payment in JPY is delayed due to time differences. What type of credit risk does Firm A face? A. Pre-settlement risk B. Direct market risk C. Settlement Risk D. Issuer Credit Risk
C
226
In normal distribution which of the following is true? A. The mean, median and mode are all the same value B. The mean and the median are the same value, the mode may be different C. The mean and the mode are the same value, the median may be different. D. The mean, median and mode can all be different values
A. In normal distribution, they are all the same. A normal distribution is a distribution that is a bell shape curve and symmetrical. The mean, median and mode are all the same and coincide with the peak of the curve. the frequencies gradually decrease at both ends of the curve
227
A key limitation of using value at risk (VaR) to manage market risk is that it fails to reflect the impact of: A. Liquidity risk B. Credit risk C. Inflation risk D. Legal Risk
A
228
Which if the following is a method of calculating value at risk (VaR): A. Correlation simulation B. Negative correlation C. Sensitivity analysis D. Probability of distributions
A - can be calculated using historical or correlation simulation.
229
Which of the following is a key advantage of using value at risk (VaR) as a market risk management tool for trading portfolio? A. Uses look-back risk assessment period of more than 45 trading days B. Quantifies risk while it is being taken C. Mitigates the risk associated with historical volatility. D. Measure all source of risk on a individual basis
B - VaR is prospective, unlike historical volatility which is retrospective. Therefore, it quantifies market risk while its being taken. It doesn't measure liquidity risk so its not D.
230
IN managing credit risk within a portfolio, which of the following methods is normally associated with single transactions rather than a pool of investments? A. Asset Securitisation B. Diversification C. Loan sales D. Netting
C.
231
When Enron collapsed in 2002, credit rating agencies were criticised for: A. Inaccurate modelling techniques B. Deliberately manipulating the ratings to show Enron in good light C. Failing to keep themselves informed of problems in the company D. Failing to downgrade Enron promptly enough
D
232
When a corporate customer takes out a loan with a bank, the customer is know as the: A. Grantee B. Obligor C. Depositary D. Principal
B. The bank would be D
233
To avoid unacceptable concentrations of credit risk in their portfolio, an institution is likely to use: A. Asset Securitisation B. Delivery versus Payment C. Netting D. Stop-loss limits
A
234
Standard deviation would be used to measure which of the following in a normal distribution curve? A. Frequency of occurrence B. Average value C. Volatility D. Risk factors
C. Standard deviation is a means of measuring variability, uncertainty or volatility. It measures the dispersion from the average of mean value. For example if an equity is high volatility, it will have a high standard deviation
235
The credit risk of specific borrowers can be mitigated at an individual level by use of: A. Asset Securitisation B. Netting C. Credit Derivatives D. Loan sales
B
236
Firm X, Y, Z have credit ratings of A, BB, BBB respectively, and firm W has the same credit rating as highly rated government bonds. What is likely to be the correct order of their relative sized credit risk premium (starting with the lowest): A. WXYZ B. XZYW C. WZXY D. XYZW
A
237
firm X, Y, Z have credit ratings of B, AAA, BBB respectively, and firm W has the same credit rating as highly rated government bonds. Which firm is rated by Standard & Poor's as carrying the highest level of risk? A. Firm W B. Firm X C. Firm Y D. Firm Z
B
238
There is concern that a counterparty debtor may default on their obligation at some point in time. The likely maximum loss in the event of default is the? A. Current exposure B. Potential Future exposure C Credit risk premium D. Obligor default
B
239
Moody's lowest grade of long term credit rating indicating poor prospects is: A. Ca B. Baa C. DD D. DDD
A
240
A measurement of how much value of a portfolio may be lost given certain market conditions is called which of the following: A. A bell curve B. A first order measure. C. Value at Risk D. Stress testing
C - Value at Risk (VaR) measures how much a portfolio may lose in value, given certain market conditions
241
What is the purpose of collateral being 'marked to market' each day? A. It indicates that the collateral-take has no beneficiary ownership in the asset. B. To establish that the value of the collateral is at the correct level to cover requirements C. To check that the holding has not breach a disclosure threshold D. It is a regulatory requirement under client asset rules.
B - Collateral is an asset held by the lender on behalf of an obligor, as as security for a loan or transaction. It is marked to market to assess its present value relative to the cost of the transaction. If the value of the collateral rises or falls outside of a pre-agreed band (known as the variation margin), a margin call will be made (ie, collateral is requested from, or returned to, the obligor) to ensure that the value of collateral remains aligned to the value of the transaction
242
Risk event data has been analysed to produce a loss distribution curve. in using this, it is important to remember that one of its drawbacks is that: A. It records the value of all material losses for a risk category over a time period B. It represents known weaknesses that are within the firms risk appetite C. It does not predict the occurrence of unexpected losses D. It predicts the occurrence of losses that occur with regular frequency
C - doesn't predict it well, usually due to lack of data.
243
Inefficiencies in procedures are a cause of operational risk in which of the following areas? A. Process B. People C. Systems D. Events
A
244
Which of the following areas is a Process cause of operational risk? A. Poor Communication B. Lack of Accountability for Operational Risk Management C. Concentration of expertise D. Lack of control documentation
D. A, B & C are all People Causes.
245
A successful operational risk policy is generally accepted as requiring which of the following concepts? A. Monitoring B. Coordination C. Classification D. Assessment
B - For A,C,D only on implementation will we see risk being classified, monitored and assessed
246
The use of detective controls as a risk mitigation strategy would be appropriate for which of the following types of risk? A. Failure of Trading Systems B. Major catastrophes such as earthquakes and explosions. C. Over-Reliance on a particular product D. Post-settlement reconciliation errors.
D For A&B this would come under Contingency planning For C this would come under diversification strategies.
247
Which of the following is regarded as an advantage of using benchmarking as an operational risk indicator? A. Limits of acceptability can be established B. Management can be alerted early to problem areas C. Operational risk becomes more transparent within the industry D. Trends can be monitored.
C - this is only one of the advantages.
248
Which of the following indicators can be used to monitor the effectiveness of risk controls? A. KCI B. KPI C. KRI D. KYC
A - KCI: Key Control Indicators are used to monitor the effectiveness of controls in meeting their objectives.
249
In the three lines of defence model, which of the following would be found within the second line of defence? A. The business function B. Compliance C. Internal Audit. D. Operations
B - Compliance and risk management
250
Which of the following areas is MOST likely to be addressed by an operational risk policy? A. Roles and responsibilities B. Measurement C. Monitoring D. Reporting
A BCD would be within the risk management process
251
The risks associated with denial-of-service attacks would normally be categorised under which of the following? A. Events B. People C. Process D. Systems
D
252
Why is collaboration between departments primarily important in a risk policy? A. A common language must exist amount departments if risk are to be addressed B. Many key operational risks occur at the interface between departments C. Accountability should be clear at all levels and functions of a department D. Significant cultural changes may be required throughout the organisation
B
253
The operational risk management function is utilised in order to: A. Control potential losses B. Act on behalf of financial regulators C. Create an additional audit function D. Operate as a filter of unprofitable customers
A
254
The risk associated with fraud would normally be categorised under which of the following root causes? A. Events B. People C. Process D. Systems
A
255
Which of the following risk management functions is the responsibility of senior management rather than the board? A. Developing effective policies and procedures B. Approving and reviewing the operational risk management framework C. Ensuring that the risk management framework is audited D. Segregating the duties of internal audit from those of operational risk management
A
256
Where firms conduct assessment and measurement of operational risk, this will typically help them to: A. Reduce the time spent on internal audits B. Assign responsibilities appropriately C. Expand their product ranges regularly D Maintain confidentiality between functions
B
257
Which of the following is a recognised stage of the risk management process? A. Risk monitoring B. Risk prevention C. Risk analysis D. Risk elimination
A. Risk management process is: 1) Identification and classification of risks 2) Risk and control measurement and assessment. 3) Response (the reduction of potential risk impact, and of the likelihood of any occurrences in the first place). 4) Monitoring of risks. 5) Reporting and escalation of risks. 6) Planning and change. 7) Policy and appetite.
258
Which of the following is a systems cause of operational risk? A. Accelerating increases in volume due to increased market activity B. Industry rationalisation leading to a need to integrate different organisations C.Lack of available experienced staff due to growth and competition of the labour market D. Inadequate security leaving systems venerable to hacking and viruses
D
259
Which of the following is necessary to ensure a favourable risk culture? A. Leadership is strong an task-oriented B. Employees are risk-averse C. Senior management are logical and rational D. Employees understand and are aware of risk
D
260
Which of the following is a drawback of the Basel II categorisation of operational risk? A. it excludes internal fraud B. It has been replaced by Basel III C. UK regulators do not agree with the categories listed D. It is more comprehensive for some financial institutions than for others
D
261
What factor means that it particularly important to consider all four of the root causes of risk as a part of the operational risk management process? A. Regulatory harmonisation B. Mutual interdependence C. Positive reinforcement D. Control Weakness
B - all four risks cannot be considered in isolation as they are all mutually independent
262
An investment firm has been subject to regulatory sanctions due to its failure to properly manage client assets. Which of the losses that it has incurred can be classified as a consequential loss? A. Claims for damages B. Compensation payments C. reallocating key staff to resolve the issue D. Regulatory fines
C - consequential loss is sometimes referred to as indirect loss
263
Which of the following scenarios is an example of indirect loss arising from reputational risk? A. A firm is fined $100,000 by the regulator for making unsolicited calls B. A firm's expenditure on retraining and monitoring staff as a result of the fund results in financial loss C. A social media campaign highlighting the impact of firm's unsolicited calls in venerable elderly people result in a 25% drop in its business D. A firm faces claims for damages by members of the public distressed by the frequency of its unsolicited calls
C
264
A fraud that is committed by a customer exploiting a system's weakness within the financial institution is typically described as which of the following? A. A people-caused external fraud B. A process-caused external fraud A people-caused internal fraud A process-caused internal fraud
B - not an employee hence external and it is a system weakness hence process.
265
Inflated commission and concealed losses are most commonly associated with which of the following types of risk? A. Legal B. Market C. Reputational D. Audit
C
266
Operational risk can arise from errors or delays in transaction capture and processing, resulting in incorrect *BLANK*, funding and settlement. A. Trading B. Data C. Hedging D. Record keeping
C
267
During a discussion with a colleague, the term 'positioning' is mentioned. This is best described as: A. Managing a portfolio so that it is fully diversified B. Ensuring the correct product is matched with the right counterparty C. Ensuring there is sufficient cash or stock available to fulfil the settlement of a contract D. Trading stock to meet cash settlements
C
268
What operational risk control will typically be in place in the front office to address instances where trading limits are exceeded? A. Automatic hedging B. transfer of capital C. Escalation procedures D. Segregation of duties
C
269
Which of the following is a preventative control that might be used in the trade confirmation phase of operations? A. Confirmation checking function B. Ensuring that a legal agreement covering confirmation protocol is in place C. Follow-up actions to counterparties that have not returned written confirmations D. Front office sing-off of the economic terms of the confirmation
B All others are internal detective controls.
270
Which of the following introduces an additional risk at the settlement stage of a transaction ? A. Counterparty-issued instruction B. Issue of a transaction-specific instruction C. Use of a third-party clearing house D. Verbal Agreements
B - SSI are not available.
271
Which of the following might be a key risk indicator (KRI) for the trade confirmation function? A. Additional borrowing requirements to ensure settlement B. Length of time taken to formalise a legal agreement C. Number of transactions missing internal funding deadline D. Time taken to detect and resolve errors
B
272
Which of the following is a key control for front-office function. A. Segregation of confirmation-checking functions B. Ensuring adherence to credit limits C. Implementation of STP D. Reconciliation of funding positions
B - controlling new market and credit limit requests and ensuring they are adhered to.
273
Which of the following is a technique typically used by central counterparties to reduce credit risk? A. Position monitoring of exposures B. Imposition of credit limits C. Transfer of credit risk to other parties D. Rigorous selection of low-risk exchange-trade contracts
A
274
Which of the following is a key risk indicator of poor cash positioning A. Larger than usual number of transactions miss internal funding deadlines B. System limits warnings fail C. Internal funding deadlines are missed D. Larger than usual number of reconciliation errors are detected.
A
275
Which of the following might be a key risk indicator (KRI) for the transaction capture function? A. Funding position reconciliations B. Time taken to detect and resolve erros C. Daily sign-off of front-to-back positions D. Implementation of straight-through-processing
B The rest are considered key controls.
276
A risk indicator in a firm's settlement department showed significant improvement in late settlement figures. This improvement was triggered by: A. An increase in position limits for it traders B. An increase in the number of internal reconciliations C. The market introducing lower margin requirements D. The market moving to a delivery versus payment system.
D
276
Which of the following might be a key control for trade confirmation risk? A. The time taken for counterparties to return confirmations B. The number and type of confirmation errors found in the checking process C. The existence of a legal agreement covering confirmation protocol D. The number of confirmations not yet agreed with the counterparty
C - Ensuring the existence of legal agreements is a key control when confirming trades, whereas each of the other options is a key risk indicator.
277
Some typical examples of compliance risk being realised are fines or regulatory censure due to: * fraud * insider dealing and other forms of market abuse * money laundering * exposure violations * non-compliance with regulatory requirements, eg, mis-selling * non-cooperation with regulatory investigations * Blank 1 * Blank 2 * Blank 3
1. unauthorised trading 2.anti-bribery control failures, and 3. concealing losses
278
Some typical examples of compliance risk being realised are fines or regulatory censure due to: * Blank 1 * Blank 2 * Blank 3 * exposure violations * non-compliance with regulatory requirements, eg, mis-selling * non-cooperation with regulatory investigations * unauthorised trading * anti-bribery control failures, and * concealing losses
* fraud * insider dealing and other forms of market abuse * money laundering
279
At what stage is the legal role normally MOST critical in operational risk management? A. Set-up B. Pre-settlement C. Settlement D. Post-settlement
A
280
Under the MIFID Directive, which of the following departments is specifically required to be independent and have sufficient authority to fulfil its role? A. Front-office B. Financial reporting C. HR D. Internal audit
D
281
How does the internal audit department play a key part in an organisation’s operational risk management? A. How does the internal audit department play a key part in an organisation’s operational risk management? B. By monitoring adherence to procedures C. By managing the organisation’s people D. By approving contractual agreements
B
282
Under MiFID rules, a financial services firm is required to have an independent internal audit function only if: A. This is considered appropriate and proportionate B. It is classed as a medium or large organisation C. It has both shareholders and bondholders D. This is mandated by either the FCA or PRA
A - Under MiFID, it is a requirement for each firm to have an ‘independent internal audit function’ if it is appropriate and proportionate.
283
What major role will the financial reporting department have in the risk management process? A. Ensuring the true profit of the organisation is reported in the financial statements B. Developing policies for employees' compensation, bonuses and promotion C. Minimising expenses of traders and senior management to reduce costs and improve profits D. Ensuring the organisation adheres to budgets, irrespective of day-to-day changes in business risk
A - The main role of financial reporting in risk management is to ensure true profits are reported in the financial statements.
284
Which function within a firm has as a key objective to develop and maintain the organisation’s integrity through ethics and integrity programmes? A. Compliance B. Legal C. HR D. Internal Audit
A - It is a compliance function to define the training and communication programmes and related accountability processes (such as a self-assessment process) that intend to motivate, measure and monitor the organisation’s ethical performance.
285
In a presentation on the Basel Accords, which of the following was mentioned as the purpose of Basel III? A. To maximise the effectiveness of capital rules in ensuring financial stability B. To protect consumers C. To respond to the global financial crisis D. To establish a comprehensive risk sensitive framework
C The third Basel Accord (Basel III) was developed by the Basel Committee in response to the global financial crisis. Building on the previous Basel I and II Accords, Basel III introduced a set of reforms designed to mitigate risk within the international financial services sector by requiring banks, credit institutions and investment firms to maintain minimum leverage ratios and levels of reserve capital in order to limit the likelihood and impact of future financial crises. This capital must be of a higher quality against more conservatively calculated risk-weighted assets (RWAs). | Chapter 7, Section 3.1
286
What are the pillars 1,2 and 3 of the Basel Accords relating to operational risk?
The Basel II directive was structured on three pillars: Pillar 1 – minimum capital requirements. Pillar 2 – regulatory supervision. Pillar 3 – market discipline.
287
Which of the following describes Pillar 2 of the Basel Accords? A. It outlines three different measurement approaches for calculating risk expsoure B. It requires supeervisors ensure banks have sound internal processes to assess capital adequecy C. It stipulated that banks' capital should reflect rhe risk of mistakes and wrongdoing D. It requires greater public disclosure to allow more transparency on banks' risk profiles and capital adequecy
B
288
Which of the following is an aim of Basel III? A. To maximise the effectiveness of capital rules in enusinrg financial stability B. To protect conbsumers C. To set voluntary regulatory standards on levels of stress testing D. To establish a comprehensive risk-sensitive framework.
C - Setting voluntary regulatory standards on levels of stress testing is an aim of Basel lII, which relates to banks globally, not just those that are based in Europe and aims to set voluntary regulatory standards on the level of bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk. The other options are characteristics of the CRD.
289
Which of the following is classified as most risky by the Basel II standardised approach to operational risk capital requirements? A.Corporate finance B. Retail banking C. Agency services D. Commercial banking
A - Corporate finance carries a rating of 18% based on the gross income for this business line. Agency services and commercial banking attract a charge of 15%, and retail banking 12%. | Trading and Sales has also got a beta factor of 18%
290
Which directive was the EU's interpretation of Basel II? A. Capital Requirements Directive B. Capital Adequacy Directive C. Investment Services Directive D. UCITS III
A
291
Which of the following seeks to regulate OTC derivative transactions? A. AIDMF and UCITS V B. Solvency II and FACTA C. FATCA and CRD D. Dodd-Frank and EMIR
D
292
An asset manager has a holding of ABC Corporation bonds and, in order to protect against the risk of default by the issuer, has entered into a credit default swap with an investment bank. This is an example of using a derivative for which purpose? A. Hedging B. Speculation C. Anticipating cash flows D. Arbitrage
A
293
Which of the following best defines standard deviation? A. The amount of operational risk exposure there is over a given period B. The variation of losses in a beta curve C. An alternative average measure to the mean D How spread out values are from the mean
D - measures volatility, variability or uncertainty
294
The risk of loss through being unable to obtain a price on a product when required is which of the following types of market risk? A. Liquidity risk B. Volatility risk C. Basis risk D. Price level risk
A Price level risk is the risk where there is a potential for adverse changes in the price of a financial instrument such as interest rate or FX Rates. Volatility risk is associated with the risk of price movements and basis risk is the reflection of uncertainty of the impact of market factor on price
295
Which of the following best describes how bilateral netting works? A. A single payment Is made from one party to another after cash flows In all currencies have been totalled B. Two parties with multiple cash flows pay the difference of the totals with one payment per currency C. Multiple parties with multiple cash flows pay one party a single cash flow after totalling all currencies D. One party pays another a series of cash flows in the in the same currency each day
B
296
The risk of adverse price movements in a portfolio is best described as which of the following? A. Delta risk B. Negative correlation C. Equity price risk D. Volatility risk
C
297
Which of the following is the most likely consequence of incorrect data? A. Direct loss due to failed transactions B. Direct loss due to project delays C. Direct loss due to the payment deadline being missed D. Direct loss through fines
A
298
Where both a no-loss near-miss and an operational loss event are identified in relation to the same process, how should they be dealt with? A. They Should both be treated as minor B. They should both be recorded and reported C. Only the near miss should be risk assessed D Only the loss event should be escalated
B
299
One key way in which a trading firm's middle office carries out due diligence to manage operational risk is by: A. Adding correct settlement instruction info to trades B. Manage the flow of funds between its cash nostro and deposit accounts. C. Reporting on profit loss positions D. Verifying asset deliveries with its counterparties
C
300
A key responsibility of the CRO is A. Approving risk appetite B. Overseeing the risk register C. reviewing and monitor KPIs D. Ensuring the effective governance of risks
D
301
How did the third Basel accord aim to improve a banks exposure to operational risk? A. By Defining acceptable customer status B. By imposing new national rulebooks C. By imposing minimum leverage ratios D. By Establishing a central compensation fund
C
302
A firm is currently undergoing a top-down risk assessment process. What will typically be included in the final stage of the programme? A. Agreement of a new set of direct and indirect preventative controls. B. Quantifying the likelihood and impact of losses C. Segregation of events that comprises corporate goals and objectives D. Establishing the difference between appetite and capacity
B - stages are identifying business objective, determining risk tolerance, identifying events that could affect these, assess the inherent likelihood and impact off these risks.
303
Review and audits form which stage of risk management A. Undertaking control self-assessments B. Identifying operational risk C.. Measuring operational risk D. Monitoring operational risk
B
304
A large company wants to ensure that its new remuneration and rewards package does not trigger any adverse operational risk events. Which of function within the firm is most likely to have responsibly for this? A. Compliance function B. HR function D. Internal audit function D. Front office function
B
305
Segregation of duties is a key internal control for many organisations. Which of the following is the biggest threat to this control? A. Introduction of new systems B. Regulatory changes C. Employee collusion D. Lost productivity
C
306
How do the multi-dependencies between a firm's functional areas and its processing activities typically impact on operational risk? A. it makes risk identification purely subjective B. It limits the use of qualitative risk controls C. It limits the validation of risk governance oversight D. It makes objective risk measurement difficult
D
307
A bank updated is product range in the light of changing customer needs. IN the context of operational risk, who should take responsibly for linking sales, development and customers in relation to this update? A. The compliance function B. The marketing function C. The CRO D. The CFO
B
308
The risk to earnings or capital from non-conformance with laws, rules, regulations, prescribed practices or ethical standards is known as? A. Legal risk B. Compliance risk C. Audit risk D. HR risk
B
309
A technique of reducing credit risk in a firms trading activities is: A. Asset securitisation B. Diversification C. Loan sales D. Netting
D
310
A bank has reported gross income of £900,000 and net income of £100,000. It has opted to use the basic indicator approach to establish its required operational risk capital. What is the required level of operational risk capital? A. £135,000 B. £90,000 C. £15,000 D. £10,000
A - Basic indicator approach is 15% of gross income.
311
An investment firm is in dispute with one of its vendors that provides outsourcing services as this affecting the quality of the services it delivers, This would be classified as which type of operational risk category under the framework? A. External fraud B. Clients, products and business practices C. Business disruption and process management D. Execution, delivery and process management
D
312
Firm X and Firm Y are similar sized firms operating in the financial services industry, but Firm X finds the risk identification process much harder. This is because Firm X has: A. Greater product variety B. Fewer branch offices. C. Higher average pay scales D. lower profit levels
A
313
One of the key aims of an operational risk management function is to: A. Establish and supervise a risk audit function B. Reduce and mitigate potential impact of risk evnets C. Identify and comply with HMRC requirements D. Improve and monitor corporate effectiveness
B
314
A firm uses various providers to supply them with external loss data. A typical problem with this approach is that the data: A. May reflect conflicts of interest B. Is likely to be obsolete C. May require secondary validation D. Will lack consistency
D
315
In order to ensure that their market risk management is effective, trading firms should ensuring that reviews of their front office closing prices are carried out; A. On a rolling weekly basis under the supervision of the trading team B. ON a daily basis by a sperate function reporting to senior management C. On a rolling weekly basis by an external agent with relevant specialist knowledge D. On a daily basis by two separate individuals who co-ordinate results
B
316
Firm X and Firm Y have liquidity coverage ratios of 1.82 and 2.56 respectively. This indicates that: A. Firm X is better to cope with market -wide shocks than Firm Y B. Firm Y is better to cope with market -wide shocks than Firm X C. Firm X has more assets that can be easily converted to cash D. Market risk
B - the LCR is a generic stress test relating to highly liquid assets held by a financial institution to meet short term obligations, which aims to anticipate market wide shocks and ensure financial institutions have the necessary assets on hand to ride out short term liquidity disruptions. A higher ratio indicates a greater resistance to market shocks
317
As part of the risk monitoring process a manager has suggested that reassessment of the risk appetite of their organisation should be carried out. Which of the following factors MOST likely to have triggered this suggestion? A. An increase in the scale of the risks facing the firm B. A reduction in the external loss data available to the firm C. A clarification of historic risk experience D. A decrease in the number of active decision takers
A
318
A firm was fined by the regulator after a failure in its anti -bribery controls led to an incident of corruption in its investment department. What other consequence is the firm MOST likely to suffer as a result of this failure? A. Loss of shareholders B. Reputational damage C. International sanctions D. Settlement delays
B
319
An effective liquidity risk management function needs to ensure an optimum relationship between which two factors? A. Income needs and capital growth B. Short term aims and long term aims C. Anticipated market volatility and required returns D. Expected cash inflows and outflows
D
320
A post-settlement check that involves reconciliation between statement and ledger is most likely to be an example of which of the following? A. An internal detective control B An external detective control C. An internal preventative control D. An external preventatives control
B - Since control will only discover errors after they have been made and thier effects have been realised (i.e. after settlement), it is an external detective control
321
The use of external experts is most likely in which of the following methods of identifying risk? A. Focus Workshops B. Ranking C. Reviews/Risk Audits D. Risk and control self assessment
C
322
Which of the following falls outside the role of credit risk management? A. Setting, monitoring and reviewing stop-loss limits B. Assessing potential credit risk event C. Ensuring the credit risk policy is adhered to D. Measuring and monitoring daily credit exposure
A
323
Which of the following operation risk control activities undertaken in an investment firm is typically part o the middle office? A. Segregating trading d support duties B. Providing corporate finance advice C. Checking individual settlement instructions D. Overseeing collateral management
D
324
As part of ongoing risk management, a risk officer has obtained updated measurements of various risk faced by a firm. How should the officer use these figures? A. Validate them against the risk levels of its main competitors B. Set error bar levels for future risk exposire C. Provide feedback on risk events to the main shareholders D. Compare them against the pre-agreed risk appetite
D
325
Which of the following criteria would normally be used for categorising process risk? A. testing B. Volume sensitivity C. System integrity D. Security
B
326
A firm wants to build a standardised data set to support and enhance its operational risk management framework. This objective is likely to be constrained due to: A. Poor availability of industry-wide data B. The operation of a centralised management structure C, High levels of losses over recent years D. The prioritisation of company-wide staff training
A
327
Which of the following best describes Pillar 1 of Basel II? A. The minimum capital requirements expressed in percentage terms B. The minimum capital requirements expressed in absolute terms C. The supervisory review process D. The introduction of more transparency to the bank's risk profile
A
328
A bank's HR function is currently considering the firms operational risk exposure as a result of implementing the Transfer of Undertaking (Protection of Employment) regulations (TUPE). What is likely to have triggered this process? A. A new graduate recruitment scheme B. A corporate acquisition C. A revised employee share scheme D. A share buyback programme
B - The HR function supports business strategy and initiatives, such as mergers and acquisitions. These may involve legal aspects such as TUPE Regulations 2006.
328
Whether a firm's CRO reports directly to the board of directors or risk committee , will typically depends on the: A. Size of the firm B. Location of the firm C. Age of the officer D. Experience level of the officer
A
329
When an investment firm sets up netting arrangements, it is necessary to ensure enforceability of this arrangement in order to minimise which type of risk? A. Systematic B. Legal C. Currency D. Compliance
B
329
A firm reduced its exposure to operational risk by mitigating 'hygiene factors'. This was done by? A. Strengthening key performance indicators B. Enhancing the powers of its compliance department C. Improving levels of basic pay Increasing the risk appetite set by the board
C - the effect of hygiene factors, such as poor pay, can negatively affect the motivation of employees. Improving motivation is a key factor in improving performance and creating a more positive risk culture
330
A frim wishes to assess a risk where historical info is not available. Which of the following is the most appropriate technique? A. Create a loss distribution curve B. Rating. Ranking approach C. Use an external data provider D. Benchmark
B - minimal data needed and is more subjective. All other options require data.
331
From an asset servicing firms operational risk perspective, what is the key problem associated with the triggering of a 'default' option? A. The firm will automatically lose control over the asset B. The client will be forced to make an immediate choice C. The option will not be available to exercise again in the future D. The resulting events could conflict with the clients wishes
D
332
Checking the number of times a firm settles late in order to measure effective settlement is an example of which of the following: A. Detective Control B. Preventative Control C. Key Risk Indicator D. Positioning
C
333
Which process is the first stage in understanding how operational risk affects a firm? A Risk co-ordination B Risk identification C Risk monitoring D Risk reporting
B
334
How would the mode help someone analyse the height of a large group of people? A By calculating the average height B By confirming the most common height C By discriminating between the highest and lowest height D By measuring the dispersion from the average height
B
335
The main purpose of enhancing personal responsibility and empowerment of individuals within acceptable risk levels is to: A increase opportunities for integrated risk management B assist in the development of a favourable risk culture C impact on an organisation's strategic objectives D transfer the likelihood of operational risk occurring to other departments
B
336
A trade execution error is most likely to occur in: A the dealing desk B reconciliations C settlements D trade support
A
337
Which of the following is an example of indirect financial loss to a firm? A A client cancelling a sales contract B A contract for fees proving to be unenforceable C An employee winning a claim for workplace harassment D A computer failure delaying real-time transactions
D
338
Dan and Tom are Chief Risk Officers at their respective firms. Only Dan has responsibility for implementing his firm's Enterprise Risk Management approach. What is this most likely to indicate regarding their respective firms? A Only Dan's firm operates globally B Only Tom's firm requires him to sit on the board of directors C Tom's firm has a greater focus on niche markets D Dan's firm is significantly larger
D
339
To satisfy the qualification criteria for adopting the standardised approach to capital adequacy, firms MUST: A generate total gross business income of at least £100m p.a. B incur operational risk losses of less than £2m p.a. C systematically track losses by business units D hold a fixed percentage of its gross income as operational risk capital
C
340
Which of these is a requirement for use of the standardised approach for calculating operational risk capital requirements under Basel II? A The risk process must use external loss data B The calculation must reflect a confidence level of 99.9% C The firm must record operational risk losses by business line D The calculation must be based on five years history of loss data
C
341
One of the best ways to ensure a favourable risk culture within a large organisation is to: A demand adherence to a published procedures manual B adopt a top-down approach to disseminating guidance and information C actively encourage a committee style decision making process D operate effective leadership at senior management level
D
342
What is the minimum capital ratio set out by Pillar 1 of Basel II? A 2.5% B 6% C 8% D 25%
C
343
"An ongoing, continuous process of objective measurement against a pre-agreed risk appetite" is an important activity for what part of the risk management process? A Identifying B Categorising C Monitoring D Reporting
c
344
What is a key control for the set-up phase for a new customer? A Checking the profit and loss accounts B Monitoring positions C Establishing credit limits D Processing reference data
C
345
Under MiFID, what is one of the requirements for an Internal Audit function? A That the function is sufficiently resourced B That the function is physically separated from the rest of the business C That the Internal Auditors hold the prescribed qualifications D That the function works effectively with Risk Management
A
346
Under Basel II, what event would fall under the "execution, delivery and process management" operational risk category? A Insider trading on an employee's own account B Violation of employee health and safety rules C Unapproved access to client accounts D Misuse of confidential client information
C
347
It is difficult for a firm to measure operational risk due to the: A fluctuating nature of the potential losses B changing requirements of the Regulator C lack of accurate and comprehensive data D commercially sensitive nature of the data involved
C
348
An increase in a particular firm's risk exposure is directly attributable to an ineffective control culture. Within which category of the four main causes of operational risk is this most likely to fall? A Environment B People C Process D Technology
B
349
Which of the following lists the three Pillars of Basel II? A Basic indicator approach, standardised approach and advanced measurement approach B Minimum capital requirements, supervisory approach and market disclosure C Credit risk exposure, market risk exposure and organisational risk exposure requirements D Internal processes, flexibility in risk measurement and risk sensitivity
B
350
"Understanding the likelihood of risks occurring and their impact on the business in terms of direct or indirect loss" is a description of which of the following? A Risk policy B Risk identification C Risk measurement D Risk reporting
C
351
What is the main purpose of the first line of defence in a firm's three lines of defence model? To: A impose processing controls for its daily activities B prescribe a risk framework at board level C ensure all activities comply with appropriate regulations D operate independent oversight of all activities
A
352
Identifying risks is the first of which of the following stages of the risk management process? A Categorising risks B Measuring risks C Analysing risks D Monitoring risks
A
353
At which stage in the risk mitigation process does an internal detective control aim to detect a potential error? A Long before it is likely to occur B Immediately before it is about to occur C After it has occurred but before a potential loss is realised in the outside world D After it has occurred and once losses have been realised in the outside world
C
354
Which of the following is a key function of operational risk reporting? A An ongoing process of objective measurement B To allow prompt and decision action to be taken to the address the risk C The adoption of appropriate risk parameters D To put sufficient controls in place to negate increases in risk
B
355
The Know Your Customer rules are essential to a firm to enable it to: A be absolved of any mis-selling B give proper advice C ensure accurate static data at all times D start dealing on behalf of customers
B
356
Which of the following would constitute a post-settlement risk control indicator? A Monitoring settlement breaks B Sending manual confirmations to counterparties C Sending electronic confirmations to counterparties D Recording the number of times each counterparty settles late
A
357
A firm invests in a software application which is designed to automate processes and controls to eliminate risk due to human error. This is an example of: A an internal detection control B a preventive control C an external detection control D risk-sharing
B
358
A key aim of the operational risk management function is: A to minimise the firm's risk requirement under Pillar 3 B to assist with the identification, measurement, assessment and management of operational risk C to eliminate the employment of staff who contribute most to trading risks D to ensure there is enough capital for three months of expenses
B
359
A firm conducting a top-down risk assessment process has identified various events which could affect the achievement of its business objectives. What is typically the next stage in this process? A Avoid any activities which could trigger these events occurring B Report these potential events to the relevant regulator C Periodically review claims experience in respect of these events D Consider the likelihood and impact of these events
D
360
With which of the following is the legal department most likely to become involved in order to reduce legal risk? A Employee compensation B External reporting C Netting arrangements D Reporting suspicious transactions
C
361
Which of the following would constitute a post-settlement risk control indicator? A Monitoring settlement breaks B Sending manual confirmations to counterparties C Sending electronic confirmations to counterparties D Recording the number of times each counterparty settles late
A
362
For a strong risk culture to prevail on a company-wide basis, it must be heavily supported by senior management. Why is it acceptable for risk management approaches to vary from one company to another? A To satisfy the requirements of the Basel Accord B To ensure the satisfaction of the board of directors C To reflect the different business activities undertaken by firms D To maximise the pace of change
C
363
A key aim of the operational risk management function is: A to minimise the firm's risk requirement under Pillar 3 B to assist with the identification, measurement, assessment and management of operational risk C to eliminate the employment of staff who contribute most to trading risks D to ensure there is enough capital for three months of expenses
B
364
Which of the following is a key preventive control in respect of the confirmation process? A Automating processing of payments B A secondary check of confirmations performed by a different person than the creator C Following up with counterparties who have outstanding written confirmations D Front office sign-off of the economic terms of the confirmation
A
365
Under Basel II, what event would fall under the "execution, delivery and process management" operational risk category? A Insider trading on an employee's own account B Violation of employee health and safety rules C Unapproved access to client accounts D Misuse of confidential client information
C
366
The main purpose of enhancing personal responsibility and empowerment of individuals within acceptable risk levels is to: A increase opportunities for integrated risk management B assist in the development of a favourable risk culture C impact on an organisation's strategic objectives D transfer the likelihood of operational risk occurring to other departments
B
367
One key way in which a firm can ensure that issues of operational risk are addressed across all departmental activities is to A. Keep management spans control as wide as possible B. Operate business units on an independent silo basis C. Check key performance indicators against external benchmarks D. Cascade an appropriate corporate culture from the top down
D
368
A key responsibility of the CRO is: A. Approving the risk appetite B. Overseeing the risk register C. Reviewing and monitoring KPIs D. Ensuring the effective governance of risks
D
369
If the regulator has concerns over the adequacy of a firms' risk culture, who will it hold responsible? A. the shareholders B. The risk officers C. The senior management D. The compliance officer
C
370
Reviews and audits form part of which stage of risk management? A. Undertaking control self-assessments B. Identifying operational risk C. Measuring operational risk D. Monitoring operational risk
B
371
Checking the number of times a firm settles late in order to measure effective settlement is an example of which of the following? A. Detective control B. Preventative control C. Key risk indicator D. Positioning
C