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2021 CQ > Study Questions > Flashcards

Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

SWA Operational Philosophy

A

SWA Prospers when we are Safe, Low cost, Reliable and Hospitable
(FOM 2.1)

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2
Q

Operational Philosophy when things don’t go as planned

A

Safe and Hospitable while balancing low cost and reliability
(FOM 2.1)

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3
Q

Describe Flight Ops priorities

A

Safety is #1, no priority over well-being of people, customers or equipment (FOM 2.2.2)

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4
Q

Why are operational priorities and standardization important?

A

Creates predictable performance and allows quick recognition of deviation (FOM 2.2.4)

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5
Q

When are deviations from AOM/FOM acceptable?

A

When safety necessitates, or

Emergency situation

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6
Q

Who is responsible for standardization in the flight deck?

A

Captains demonstrate and ensure FOs understand and use the standard

FOs ensure captains have not overlooked important items

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7
Q

Clean Aircraft Concept

A

No takeoff with frost, ice, or snow adhering to the wings/winglets, control surfaces, engine inlets or other critical surfaces.

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8
Q

Exceptions to Clean Aircraft Concept:

A

Thin Hoarfrost on upper fuselage (vents/ports must be clear)

Lower wing CSFF up to 1/8”

Upper wing CSFF within limits

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9
Q

What are the CSFF limits on lower wing?

A

1/8”

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10
Q

CSFF Limits on upper wing

A

Within the black lines

OAT at or above 4 degrees C

Fuel at or above -16 degrees C

No visible moisture

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11
Q

Visible moisture

A

Rain, snow, drizzle or fog with < 1 sm

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12
Q

When can bleed air be configured after deicing (ENGs OFF)

A

APU bleed 1 min after deicing

ENG bleed 1 min after rollback

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13
Q

What is a Pilot Precipitation Assessment?

A

Use when reported precipitation is not currently observed

Must have adequate lighting/visual cues

ACARS “no precipitation” to dispatch

Perform Flight Deck Check

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14
Q

One-Step method

A

Type I fluid is used on entire aircraft to deice and anti-ice

Limited HOT

Used when Type IV not required

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15
Q

Two-step method

A

Type I deice entire aircraft

Type IV on horizontal surfaces (wings and tail)

Provides max HOT

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16
Q

When is a engine run up required?

A

When anti-ice is required and OAT is at or below 3 degrees C

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17
Q

NG Engine Run up

A

Static 70% N1 until stable (30 sec recommended)

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18
Q

MAX Engine Run up

A

50% N1 for 5 seconds within 5 minutes of takeoff

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19
Q

Where is engine run up guidance found?

A

DIP page (Winter Ops Reference link)

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20
Q

When is a cabin check required?

A

When HOT is exceeded
or
+SN

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21
Q

Standard takeoff mins for 737?

A

1sm or 5000 RVR

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22
Q

When are lower than standard takeoff minimums allowed?

A

When the Jepp -9/-9A shows standard is published.

ie: STD, Standard or Standard (or lower…)

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23
Q

What needs to be considered for takeoff minimums for runway with no SID?

A

Takeoff mins
ODP
DVA
Reference cards accounting for NOTAMS

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24
Q

Which climb gradient is entered into PWB?

A

With SID - First gradient above 1,000 AGL

no SID - Most restrictive above 1,000 AGL from takeoff mins, ODP or DVA

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25
Weather mins for Alternate (one navigation facility)?
``` Add 400’ to MDA or DA Add 1sm (1600m) to vis ```
26
Weather mins for Alternate (two navigation facility)?
Add 200’ to MDA(H) or DA(H) Add 1/2 sm (800m) to vis Must be two different suitable runway ends
27
When are 2 alternates required?
When both DEST and ALTN are forecasted to be marginal Use of exemption 3585 Use of NGRVR
28
Marginal weather
Ceiling < 600’ and vis < 2sm
29
What is exemption 3585?
Allows dispatch with conditional language in the TAF lower than landing minimums. Main body weather is at or above mins Conditional is not lower than 50% BECMG assumes worst case scenario
30
When can Next Generation RVR (NGRVR) be used for dispatch?
Flights 60 min or less
31
What distance and profile is used to calculate alternate fuel?
GCR plus 30nm Normal profile at LRC based on arrival weight
32
How much fuel is included in domestic FAR RESERVE?
45 min endurance at TOD
33
How much fuel is included for international FAR RESERVE?
10% total time plus 30 min holding at 1,500’ AAE
34
What value on PERF INIT page is auto-populated/manually entered in LSK 4L?
ALTERNATE + FAR RESERVE fuel no lower than 4.4
35
When is an alternate required?
Always! Exceptions: 1-2-3 Rule 1-1-2 Rule 1-1-3 Rule +/- 1 hour ETA Ceiling at or above 2,000’ or 1,000’ Visibility at or above 3sm or 2sm
36
Limitations to 1-1-2 and 1-1-3 Rules?
No TS reported or forecasted +/- 1 HR ACARS Functional to report required deviations Crew/aircraft qualified for approach type (CAT II for 1-1-2, CAT I for 1-1-3) Release contains exemption in remarks
37
What deviations require reporting to dispatch while using 1-1-2 or 1-1-3 rules?
100nm lateral, 4,000’ vertical or ETA > 15 min Assigned holding Excess fuel consumption Or Fuel system component failure Significant unplanned weather/turbulence or use of deice systems
38
Default holding pattern and time
Right turns and 1 min at and below 14,000’ 1.5 min above 14,000
39
Max domestic holding speeds
200kts at or below 6,000’ 230kts at or below 14,000’ 265kts above 14,000’
40
AOM Flap extension policy
Avoid extending flap at or close to limit speeds.
41
What flap settings have TE Load Relief?
- 700 Flap 30, 40 | - 800/MAX 10-40
42
What’s required if you receive an ACARS OVRSPD DETECTED message?
Logbook write up, notify dispatch/maintenance
43
When should you complete the Before TOD tasks?
By 50nm to T/D or 150nm to DEST
44
What is the last point you can go around?
Thrust Reverser levers raised
45
Stabilized Approach Criteria
By 1,000’ HAT - Configured - on speed - on path with normal descent rate - wings level by 500’ HAT
46
Describe manual braking technique to approximate AB2
Normal landing using spoilers and reverse thrust with light braking at 80kts
47
When is go around required? Regarding point of landing
Not in touchdown zone or beyond 1,500’ with insufficient PWB margins
48
What could cause DRIVE light to illuminate?
IDG Failure Auto shutdown due to H.O.T. IDG DISCONNECT switch Engine shutdown
49
How is the transfer bus powered if an IDG is disconnected?
If BUS TRANSFER switch is in AUTO, the opposite transfer bus picks up the load through the bus tie breaker.
50
What’s the implication of a single main AC source?
Land at nearest suitable airport
51
Flap setting for overweight landing
Flaps 30
52
Reporting requirements for overweight landing?
Notify Ops Notify Dispatch Logbook write up IR
53
TR UNIT light illuminates in flight
TR1 or TR2 & TR3 have failed
54
Why does QRH prohibit AFDS with TR UNIT failure?
At GS intercept, the cross bus tie relay automatically opens
55
Limitations flying RNP approaches < 0.30
If weather is below 1,000’ and 3 sm: - Autopilot is required - Both FD operative and used
56
What power source is used to start APU?
AC power from ground source or battery
57
APU start limits
3 attempts with 90sec between attempts
58
Wait time after APU GEN OFF BUS light extinguishes before turning off battery switch.
2 minutes
59
Maximum motoring
Less than 1% N2 rise in 5 seconds
60
What is normal starter cutout speed?
NG - 56% N2 | MAX - 63% N2
61
APU Fire warning. What do you consider after immediate action items?
Confirm existence of fire Request external assistance Determine need to evacuate 2 in, 2 out
62
Factors associated with determining means of evacuation?
Urgency of the situation Passenger injuries using slides Type of threat (fire, damage, bomb..) Possibility of fire spreading Extent of damage to aircraft
63
Display source on PFD and ALTN on both EECs. What happened?
DEU failure
64
How could you get the flight director back after a DEU failure?
Select opposite side autopilot
65
Requirements to arm VNAV on the ground
Valid flight plan Performance executed Both FDs on MCP SPD set to v2
66
When does VNAV and LNAV become active on takeoff?
LNAV 50’ VNAV 400’
67
What speed does VNAV command at AE acceleration if window stays closed?
- Flap limit -5 kts - 230 with leading edge flaps out - 250 with flaps retracted - Active target speed - Waypoint constraint - Speed constraint associated with airport - Last MCP speed (v2 +20)
68
When does an EFP prohibit VNAV?
When a turn to heading is required before accelerating When getting established on a lateral course is required before accelerating
69
Resource for FMC alert messages
QRH Operational Information tab
70
Center tank limitation
Main tanks must be full with center tank grater than 1,000 lbs
71
Where to find info on fuel measuring sticks
MEL appendix or special procedures
72
Resource for repetitive logbook entry
FOM Aircraft logbook flight deck crew responsibilities
73
PSEU light indicates
Simple fault
74
When will the PSEU light illuminate if senses in flight?
30 second after landing. If not noticed, light goes out after brake set and both engines shutdown.
75
When are you required to go around for terrain caution?
No longer a requirement due to AOM change
76
How do you distinguish between terrain caution vs warning?
All warnings include PULL UP
77
How many seconds does a terrain warning provide to impact?
20-30 seconds
78
When are PWS alerts available on takeoff?
Automatically when takeoff power is set or manually by pushing WXR switch on. Alerts are available after 12 seconds.
79
When are PWS alerts inhibited?
Cautions from 80kts to 400’ radar Warnings from 100kts to 50’ radar
80
When should you reject after 80kts?
Engine fail Engine fire or fire warning PWS warning Unable to fly
81
How to mitigate risk of wind shear advisory?
Wait Use precautionary profile Use longest runway Review recovery procedure
82
Info included with MAYDAY if ditching?
Position, course, speed and altitude Situation and intentions Time and position of intended touchdown Type of aircraft
83
Resource for circuit breaker location
QRH ops info tab
84
Cabin crew ditching notifications?
500’ ditching is imminent 50’ brace for impact
85
When is landing at nearest suitable airport required?
- Engine Failure/Fire - APU Fire - Wheel Well Fire - Cabin Smoke/Fire that persists - 1 AC Power Source remains - 1 Hydraulic system remains - Captain discretion for safety

2021 CQ (1 decks)

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