Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the risk factors for chronic RS? (5)

A
Deviated septum
Tooth infection
GERD
Vitamin D deficiency
Aspirin intake

Notes:

  • The risk is increased with the severity of septum deviation.
  • Infection of maxillary molars can provide portal of entry.
  • Reflux esophagitis can be linked with chronic RS.
  • Direct relationship between vitamin levels and degree of mucosal damage in sinuses and bone disease
  • Aspiring acts as Sx trigger
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2
Q

What are the cardinal clues for rhinosinusitis (RS)?

A

Sudden onset on Sx often occurring after short course of rhinitis (several days) and consisting of: PODS

D or O
P or S

1) discharge OR obstruction (nasal)
AND
2) pressure OR smell (loss)

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3
Q

What are other additional Sx that may be present with RS?

A

Local ENT sx: sore throat, hoarsenEss, foul breath, nasal speech

Fullness in ears and maxillary toothache

Periorbital edema

Drainage may provoke Sx mimicking lung conditions: wheezing, coughing

General constitutional signs and Sx: fever, fatigue, malaise, irritability.

Chronic RS: Fatigue, poor sleep quality, depression, lower quality of life.

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4
Q

What physical exam procedures should be done on a patient with RS? Which PE is the most predictive of this condition?

A
Observe
Vitals (temp, pulse, BP, respiratory rate)
Percuss/transilluminate sinuses**
Rhinoscopic exam 
Examine pharynx
Tap maxillary teeth
Palpate lymph nodes
Examine cervical muscles and joints
Screen TMJ
Perform otoscopic exam (children)
Lung auscultation (if indicated)
Cranial nerves II to VI (if indicated)

**transillumination has been described as “highly predictive of disease” with 90% sensitivity for frontal sinuses

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5
Q

What are the 3 cardinal Sx of bacterial RS?

A

Purulent(infected, colored, oozing) nasal drainage

Nasal obstruction

Facial, dental pain

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6
Q

How do you differentiate 1) simple rhinitis from 2) acute (viral) RS vs 3) chronic RS?

A

Duration is key:

1) simple rhinitis = 2-3 days, mild Sx
2) viral RS = 4-7 days, mild to moderate Sx that peak 2-3 days after onset
3) bacterial RS = >10 days w/ possible “double sickening” around day 5, very severe Sx

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7
Q

What would a basic conservative care plan look like for acute RS?

A
  • Watchful waiting
  • First line Tx: Saline irrigation. Intranasal corticosteroid sprays. Analgesics.
  • Manual therapy: spinal manipulation, sinus percussion/lymph drainage, argyrol Tx, steam inhalation, antibiotic
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8
Q

What would a basic conservative care plan look like for chronic (8-12+ weeks) RS?

A

With Nasal polyp

  • 1st line: Saline irrigation. Referral for intranasal corticosteroid sprays. Analgesics.
  • Option: manip, spinous percuss/lymph, referral for macrolides, argyrol, low salicylate diet

WithOUT nasal polyp

  • 1st: saline irrigation, intranasal corticosteroid sprays, nasal specific therapy.
  • Option: Manip, sinus percuss/lymph drain, referral for macrolides, argyrol, steam inhalation

If no improvement in 4-6 weeks: CT/endoscopy, Tx with macrolides and/or brief course of oral corticosteroids.

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9
Q

What in office interventions are most likely to promote drainage in chronic RS?

A

Nasal specific or argyrol applications may be useful to promote adequate drainage

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10
Q

What home care interventions are most likely to promote drainage in chronic RS?

A

Nasal lavage (in office and home care)

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11
Q

Which OTCs are most likely to be effective for RS:

Decongestants
Steroid sprays
Acetominophen cough syrups

A

Acetaminophen or OTC NSAIDS may help relieve P or fever in acute RS or chronic viral RS.

Notes
- Decongestants have short term effect on Sx of common cold, but do not affect sinuses

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12
Q

Which of the following interventions have the most evidence: steam inhalation, auto-inflation for the ear, nasal lavage, lymph massage?

A

Nasal lavage

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13
Q

What ancillary studies are most likely to be done to make the Dx of chronic RS?

A

CT w/o contrast or endoscopy

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14
Q

Mucosa thickening _____mm is consistent with sinus infection

A

> 5 mm

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15
Q

How does the presence of polyps (multiple or singular) affect your management plan for chronic RS?

A

With Nasal polyp

  • 1st line: Saline irrigation. Referral for intranasal corticosteroid sprays. Analgesics.
  • Option: manip, spinous percuss/lymph, referral for macrolides, argyrol, low salicylate diet

WithOUT nasal polyp

  • 1st: saline irrigation, intranasal corticosteroid sprays, nasal specific therapy.
  • Option: Manip, sinus percuss/lymph drain, referral for macrolides, argyrol, steam inhalation

If no improvement in 4-6 weeks: CT/endoscopy, Tx with macrolides and/or brief course of oral corticosteroids.

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16
Q

What are the risk factors for AOM? (9)

A
Bottle feeding and pacifier use
Smoking
Daycare
Socioeconomic factors
Winter months
Craniofacial distortions (FAS, trisomy 21)
Diary
Allergies
Lack of vitamins
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17
Q

What are the criteria for “certain” AOM?

A

Rapid onset
Presence of middle ear effusion
Signs/Sx of middle ear inflammation

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18
Q

In what critical ways is AOM different from OME?

A

Only AOM has acute oneself of signs/Sx

AOM <48 hours
OME is chronic onset

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19
Q

How long is watch and wait period for AOM? For OME?

A

AOM: 48-72 hours/2-3 days

OME: 3 months

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20
Q

What PE finding suggest the presence of middle ear effusion? What is the most accurate in-office test?

A
  • Limited or absent mobility of tympanic membrane (Dx by pneumatic otoscopy)
  • Opacification w/ or w/o erythema
  • Full, bulging, swollen tympanic membrane
  • Hearing loss

Pneumatic otoscopy

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21
Q

What PE procedures should be done in the case of a patient with ear pain?

A

Otoscopic exam to view tympanic membrane
Check vitals

Evaluate for pain referral

  • TMJ
  • CN V, VII, IX, X
  • MFTP in Lateral and medial pterygoid, masseter, SCM
  • Tonsillitis
  • pharyngitis
  • carcinoma of hypopharynx, larynx
  • cleft defects
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22
Q

What would a basic conservative care plan look like for AOM?

A
  • Watchful waiting 48-72 hours
  • In office: affect Eustachian tube, endonasal technique and auto inflation
  • Optional: manip, STM, teach self lymph drainage

Do not do watchful waiting for someone <12 yo with a fever >102˚, severe illness or complications

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23
Q

What are the 4 most likely causes of referred pain to the ear when the ear itself is not the pain generator?

A

TMJ syndrome
Dental causes
Tonsillitis or pharyngitis
Cervical spine syndrome

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24
Q

What are the indications to refer someone for antibiotics if they have AOM?

A

Less than 12 yo, fever >102˚ F, severe illness or complications

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25
Q

What characteristics of a patient’s hoarseness would lead you refer for a medical workup?

A

No recent or current sickness
If it is chronic in nature (not acute presentation)
If they are older

*concerned that there is a tumor affecting the recurrent laryngeal nerve

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26
Q

Doing a PE on a patient with suspected infection anywhere in the head should always include which 3 assessments?

A

Take temp
Inspect throat
Palpate lymph nodes

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27
Q

What cluster of 4 signs/Sx suggest that a sore throat may be d/t strep?

A

ACAFE: 3 (+) and 1 (-)

A -age 
<15yo = +1 point
>45yo= -1 point
C -coughless - NO Cough
A -adenopathy (tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy)
F -fever
E -exudates (tonsillar exudate)
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28
Q

What are the Sx associated with glaucoma?

A
  • > 50 yo
  • Blurred vision, haloes around lights
  • Eye pain
  • HA
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29
Q

What are the three most common causes of chest pain?

LC reason?

A
MSK e.g. costochondritis
Nonspecific chest pain
GI disease
Stable CAD
Psychosocial/psychiatric disease

LC: unstable CAD

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30
Q

What is the prevalence of acute coronary syndrome in a walk in primary care office?

A

1.5% or 1.5 patients out of 100

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31
Q

What indicators should trigger a call for ambulance for a patient with chest pain?

A

Chest pain plus respiratory distress or abnormal vital signs including erratic pulse or low BP

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32
Q

What associated Sx should you ask a patient with chest pain?

A
Confusion
Restlessness
Combo of dyspnea, palpitations, sweating
N/V
Weakness/fatigue
(Near) syncope
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33
Q

Which Sx have the highest LR for an MI?

A

History

i. Nausea (+LR 10)
ii. Both arm P (+LR 9.7)
iii. R arm P (+LR 7.3)

PE

i. 3rd heart sound (+LR 3.2)
ii. Hypotension (+LR 3.1)
iii. Pulmonary crackles (+LR 2.1)

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34
Q

MFTPs in what muscles are most likely to mimic the pain associated with cardiac angina?

A

Scalenes
Pectorals
Serratus anterior

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35
Q

What steps are involved in using Prilosec to test a patient to see if they have GERD?

A

High-dose PPI (proton pump inhibitor e.g. Omeprazole 40 mg b.i.d.) 2x/day in patients woh

  • do NOT describe typical reflux
  • have NO Hx of surgery in upper GI, esophagus, thorax
  • have NO signs/Sx that indicated serious/malignant disease
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36
Q

What are the top 3 clues that would suggest that a patient’s chest pain is not cardiac in origin? And which one is the best clue?

A

Pain that is: pleuritic, positional, palpationable

Pain that is reproducible with palpation is the best clue

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37
Q

What special ancillary tests are options for the initial round of testing patients for cardiac angina? Which one is gold standard?

A

12 lead Resting EKG
Stress test (EKG, stress echocardiogram, myocardial perfusion scintigraphy)
Chest radiography (optional)
Angiography ** 🌟 gold standard

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38
Q

What are the 3 types of stress tests when testing for a patient with cardiac angina?

A

EKG
Stress echocardiogram
Myocardial perfusion scintigraphy

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39
Q

How does the CAC test fit into a cardiac assessment?

A

Coronary artery calcium (CAC) test checks the degree of calcification (amt of calcium) of the coronary artery.

This is a special CT scan, NOT blood test.

More calcium = more risk.

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40
Q

What blood tests are ordered to assess risk factors for coronary artery disease?

A

Lipid profile
Glucose/Hgb A1C
hsCRP

Remember CAC is NOT on this list because it is NOT a blood test.

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41
Q

What are other risks for CAD derived from the patient’s Hx and PE?

A
Male > F
Overweight or obese
LDL cholesterol >130 mg/dL
Physically inactive
HDL cholesterol <40mg/dL
Tobacco use
Metabolic syndrome
Prehypertension diabetes mellitus
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42
Q

What tests are done in the ED to Dx an MI?

A

12 lead EKG
Troponins
Cardiac enzymes

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43
Q

What is the classic triad of findings that suggest typical angina?

A
  1. Substernal chest discomfort with characteristic quality and duration
  2. Provoked by exercise or emotional stress
  3. Relieved by rest or nitroglycerin
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44
Q

Be able to recognize the presentation of a patient with angina, pericarditis, valvular disease, pleuritis, MI. Know what follow up tests should be ordered for each.

Angina (3 Sx and 3 ancillary)

A

Typical angina Sx:
1- substernal chest discomfort
2- provoked by exercise/emotional stress
3- relieved by rest/nitro

Ancillary studies:
1- 12 lead resting EKG
2- Stress tests (EKG on treadmill, stress echo, myocardial perfusion scintigraphy)
3- Angiography 🌟

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45
Q

Be able to recognize the presentation of a patient with angina, pericarditis, valvular disease, pleuritis, MI. Know what follow up tests should be ordered for each.

pericarditis (3, 1)

A

Sx:
1- non-pleuritic friction rub (crackling sound like rubbing hair on pinnae of ear)
2- precordial pain that radiates to trapezius ridge
3- aggravated by supine relieved by bending forward

Ancillary study:
4- characteristic ECG/EKG echocardiogram changes

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46
Q

Be able to recognize the presentation of a patient with angina, pericarditis, valvular disease, pleuritis, MI. Know what follow up tests should be ordered for each.

Valvular disease e.g. aortic stenosis, mitral valve prolapse (1, 1)

A

Sx
1- mid systolic murmur or closing click

Ancillary
2- echocardiogram

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47
Q

Be able to recognize the presentation of a patient with angina, pericarditis, valvular disease, pleuritis, MI. Know what follow up tests should be ordered for each.

Pleuritis (ancillary studies - 5)

A

Sx: pleuritic pain, respiratory friction rub, fever/malaise

Ancillary: 
1- chest radiograph
2- CBC
3- blood chem
4- ESR
5- ANA (because why not test for lupus)
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48
Q

Be able to recognize the presentation of a patient with angina, pericarditis, valvular disease, pleuritis, MI. Know what follow up tests should be ordered for each.

MI

A

Hx: nausea, both arm pain or just right arm pain

PE: 3rd heart sound, hypotension, pulmonary crackles

Ancillary studies
1- 12 lead EKG
2- troponins blood draws
3- cardiac enzymes CPK-MB which follows the same pattern as troponins but test not recommended anymore

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49
Q

How long do troponins take to show up in the blood? And when do they peak? And when are they gone?

A

2-3 hrs to show up
12 hrs peak
24 hrs disappear

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50
Q

What serious risk can arrhythmias subject a patient to?

A

Stroke or peripheral embolism

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51
Q

What are some common Sx associated with arrhythmias?

A
Irregularly irregular pulse
Tachycardia 110-140 beats/min
Palpitations
Fatigue
Dizziness
Angina
Decompensated heart failure
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52
Q

What % of arrhythmias are asymptomatic?

A

90%

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53
Q

What arrhythmias require urgent/emergent referral?

A

Lower chamber

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54
Q

What is the natural Hx of pain and disability for patients with typical neck complaints?

A

Favorable: 80-90% will resolve w/i 8 weeks

40% will relapse w/i 1 year

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55
Q

What are the Canadian/Nexus rules for when to order radiographs in trauma cases?

Hx - 7
PE - 3

A

History:

  1. Age 65+
  2. Dangerous MOI
  3. Paresthesia in extremities
  4. Painful, distracting injury elsewhere
  5. Altered level of alertness
  6. Evidence of intoxication
  7. Patients w/known vertebral disease

PE:

  1. Unable to actively rotate neck 45˚ to the left and to the right
  2. Midline cervical spine tenderness
  3. Focal neurologic deficit
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56
Q

What blood tests in a blood chem panel may point to a bone cancer? (And what kind?)

A

Alk phos = bone building disease
Ca2+ = bone breakdown disease
Protein = MM

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57
Q

How does syringomyelia present?

A

Diffuse “cape-like” distribution of pain/temp loss over 1 or 2 shoulders

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58
Q

What cervical conditions do oral corticosteroids put the patient at risk for? (2)

A

Osteoporosis

Ligamentous (transverse ligament) instab especially in upper cervicals

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59
Q

How do you perform the arm squeeze test? How do you interpret it?

A

When there is NR compression, 1+ nerves of the arm are sensitive to moderate compression of the biceps and triceps area and should be more painful than other areas of the shoulder and upper arm.

A positive test hurts 3+ more (3/10 pain scale) or during the pressure on the middle third of the upper arm, compared with compressing the AC and anterolateral-subacromial areas.

Example: if shoulder hurt 1/10 but arm hurt 4/10 that suggests it may not be a shoulder problem, but a nerve problem that is from the neck.

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60
Q

What are causes of cervical radicular syndromes?

Break them into A-3, B-5, and C-3 lists

A

A list: osteophyte, disc hern, stenosis

B list: structural instab, tumor/sol, infection, NR adhesion, trauma to NR

C list: disc derangement, facet syndrome, joint dysfxn

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61
Q

Which one of these (A list: osteophyte, disc hern, stenosis) should you consider in trauma cases?

A

Disc herniation
Stenosis

**NOT osteophyte

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62
Q

What are a variety of neck mechanisms of injury that can directly damage a NR? (3)

How about mechanisms to damage the brachial plexus? (2)

A

NR: hyperextension, compression, lateral flexion w/shoulder depression

Brachial plexus: lateral flexion w/shoulder depression, arm traction

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63
Q

What are the various signs and symptoms of cervical spinal cord damage?

A
  • P not common presenting sx
  • Sx often vague and variable
  • Clumsy numb hands
  • Clumsy gait (stumbling, shuffling/stiff-legged, wide-base, Romberg)
  • Lower ext- paresthesia, intermittent prox leg P, low back or mid-thoracic P
  • 2/3rd pts w/ disc hern have bladder dysfxn (urinary freq, urgency, incontinence, retention)
  • L’Hermitte sign (25%)
  • Motor hand: intrinsic atrophy, finger escape sign, rapid open
  • Abnormal reflex (+3 or 3), paradoxical reflex, clonus, pathological reflex
  • Vibration diminished
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64
Q

What would a complete exam look like for cervical spinal cord damage?

A

Neck flexion (look for L’Hermitte’s sign)
CN exam
UE:
- Observe hand intrinsics
- Finger escape sign ( + the patient is asked to squeeze his/her fingers together (adduction) while extending them backwards with the wrist in neutral. A positive test occurs if the two ulnar digits “escape” into flexion and abduction within 30 seconds.)
- Rapid open and close (NOT Roos)
- Hoffman (dynamic) or clonus
- SMR including sharp, vibration/position sense** know how to do position sense

LE

  • Gait/Romberg
  • SMR: sharp, vibration/position
  • Babinski/clonus
  • Single leg stand
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65
Q

What are the MC causes of cervical cord compression? What are other causes?

Causes of Cervical myelopathy
A list-2
B list- 6

A

A LIST:
1- disc hern (<50-60 y.o)
3- stenosis (>50-60 y.o)

B LIST
1- Trauma (hyperflexion)
2- Structural instability
3- Tumor/SOL
4- Infection
5- Fx
6- Spinal cord adhesion
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66
Q

What interventions are contraindicated when managing cervical cord compression?

A

Cervical traction

Adjusting

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67
Q

What are the various signs and symptoms for a cervical facet syndrome?

A

Palpatory:

  • Tenderness over the facet
  • Tissue changes around the joint
  • Joint restriction

Joint loading:

  • Local pain with active or passive extension
  • Local pain with cervical compression
  • Local pain with quadrant position or cervical Kemp’s
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68
Q

MOI for cervical facet syndrome?

A

Trauma (micro or macro)
Sustained postural loads
Simple activities of daily living (if neck is functionally unstable)

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69
Q

Based on a facet block study, what combination of findings were most predictive? Which of those findings carried the most weight in decreasing the probability of a cervical facet syndrome?

A

1 - (+)ve ER test >3/10 OPS
2 - Pain w/palpation over the facet >3/10 OPS
3 - Cervical restriction P-A joint glide

Most weight: palpatory ternderness

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70
Q

What are medical interventions for cervical facet syndrome?

A

Radiofrequency neurotomy

DEFINED:
medial branch of dorsal Ramos is enervated by coagulating and denaturing the proteins in the nerve. The nerve is not destroyed. This blocks the conduction of painful messages along the nerve to the DRG. The nerve may grow back to its target facet joint after 6-9 months and pain may return.

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71
Q

What are the “big five” orthopedic tests to diagnose cervical radicular syndromes?
Which one is more sensitive for this condition? Which ones (4) are more specific?

A
Cervical compression -SPEC
Cervical distraction -SPEC
Shoulder ABD -SPEC
Valsalva -SPEC
ULTT - median nerve **SEN
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72
Q

What is the peak age range for cervical disc herniations?

A

50-54 yo

Rare <30yo

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73
Q

What are the MFTP referral territories for the scalenes, infraspinatus, supraspinatus, latissimus dorsi, serratus anterior and the pecs? What nerve root or peripheral neuropathies might each mimic?

A

Scalenes mimic C6 NR or radial n → lat arm (esp delt) and postlat thumb and index finger (snuff)

Supraspinatus mimic C6 or radial n→ Lat delt, ant palm & index, and post hand

Infraspinatus can mimic C6 or radial n→ go into lat hand

Lats mimic C8 or ulnar nerve→ down med arm to pinkie and ring fingers

Serratus ant mimic C8 or ulnar nerve→ down med arm to pinkie and ring fingers but extending more into palm

Pec minor mimic C8 or ulnar nerve→ down medial arm and into little finger

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74
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a cervical disc derangement? Which one is more accurate? What findings would cast the most doubt on the Dx?

A
  • Cervical discogenic referred P
  • Deep referred arm P may be improved by rep end range movement into chin
    retraction, extension, or some other direction→ STRONGEST
  • Neck &/or chin retractions may be beneficial; neck flexion &/or chin protrusion may aggravate
  • Less likely to have tenderness localized over facets
  • May have (+)ve valsalva
  • May be relieved by cervical distraction
  • May be aggravated by cervical compression

Signs/Sx of neuro involvement would cast doubt on deranged disc.

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75
Q

What are the first directions to attempt when looking for a directional preference by repetitive or sustained cervical joint loading?

A

Protraction
Retraction
Extension
Flexion

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76
Q

What are the medical interventions for disc derangement? (2)

A

Intradiscal electro thermal therapy (IDET)

Percutaneous intradiscal radiofrequency thermocoagulation

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77
Q

What are the signs/Sx of CRPS? (Pain, Autonomic dysfxn, Motor dysfxn)

A

Pain: severe, burning, extremity, non-dermatomal, palmar/plantar dominance, allodynia/hyperalgesia

Autonomic dysfxn: swelling, tropic changes, sweating, altered skin temp

Motor dysfxn: hyperreflexia, tremor, muscle weakness, movement disorder, dystopia leading to contractures

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78
Q

In a patient with neck pain, but no evidence neuropathic involvement, what are the most likely pathoanatomical diagnoses?

A
Sprain
Strain
Facet syndrome
Disc derangement
Fracture, if traumatic
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79
Q

In a patient with neck and arm symptoms, what are the 5 broad diagnostic possibilities to consider regarding how the neck and arm symptoms are related?

A
Cord
Nerve Root
Peripheral nerve
Deep referred pain
2 Separate lesions
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80
Q

What indicators from the history or physical exam tend to be most accurate at predicting which cervical nerve has been injured?

A

Deficits and paresthesia distribution more predictive than P distribution (C6 or C7)

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81
Q

Which neurological deficits are most specific for each of the following nerve roots?

C6

A

REFLEX: decreased biceps or brachi-radialis reflex

Then sensory loss of thumb
Then weak wrist extension

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82
Q

Which neurological deficits are most specific for each of the following nerve roots?

C7

A

REFLEX: diminished triceps reflex

Then weak elbow extension
Then sensory loss of middle finger

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83
Q

Which neurological deficits are most specific for each of the following nerve roots?

C8

A

SENSORY: loss little finger

Then diminished triceps reflex
Then weak finger flexion

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84
Q

What are all of the key characteristics and features of nerve pain that you want to try to elicit from your patient with arm pain?

A

??

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85
Q

What pattern of physical exam procedures and their findings would suggest a nerve root that was most susceptible to compressive forces?

What pattern of PE procedures and their findings would suggest a nerve root that is more sensitive to tension forces?

A

CLOSURE
• AROM: extension, ips-rotation/lateral flexion aggravate
• AROM: flexion, contra-rotation/lateral flexion decreases arm Sx
• Cervical compression increases Sx
• Cervical distraction decreases Sx

TENSION
• ULTTs increase arm Sx
•Shoulder ABD/Bakody’s sign decrease Sx

86
Q

What are the key indicators to order a cervical radiographic series?

A
  • Moderate to high load trauma
  • Red flag for disease
  • Cord signs/sx
  • Radicular sign/sx
  • Non responsive cases
87
Q

What are the indicators for when to order an MRI in a patient with a cervical disc herniation?

A
• Lowest: signs/sx of radiculitis
• Moderate: only with deficits
• Highest: **this is the bullet to memorize** “standard of care” for us as students 
	◦ suspicion of myelopathy
	◦ progressive deficit
	◦ non responsive to conservative care
	◦ pre-surgical exam
88
Q

What are the indicators for ordering an MRI other than related to a cervical disc herniation?

A

Cord damage

Neuro deficits: mm loss of grade 3/5 or worse

89
Q

If your patient has pain or paresthesia along the medial side of the hand (little finger), where in the nervous system might the lesion be?

What specific muscles with MFTPs might project pain into that area?

A
  • Lower brachial plexus injury e.g. TOS, tumor, stretch trauma “plexitis or plexopathy”
  • Ulnar nerve entrapment or nerve root “neuritis or neuropathy”
  • Nerve root “radiculitis or radiculopathy”
  • MFTPs: Latissimus dorsi, Serratus anterior, Pectoralis Major or Minor
90
Q

If your patient has pain or paresthesia along the lateral side of the hand, where in the nervous system might the lesion be?

What specific muscles with MFTPs might project pain into that area?

A

• C6 nerve root
•Radial nerve entrapment
MFTPs: Scalenes, Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus

91
Q

What are the key symptoms to ask a patient with neck pain who has just suffered an MVA?

A
  • Head trauma? LOC (for how long?)
  • Detailed accounting of the symptoms and injuries at the time of the accident and subsequent to the accident. Specific chronology. Include questions about vision, dizziness, dysphagia, etc.
  • Detailed accounting of any previous examinations, diagnosis or treatment related to the accident. History may occur well after MVA in some cases.
  • Past history of any MVA or cervical trauma. Any overlap in symptoms pre-and post.
92
Q

What nerve roots control your forearm pronators?

A

C6 (or C7)

93
Q

Explain how each of the following might test in the case of a cervical strain vs a cervical sprain:

AROM

A

sTrain: pain with muscle contraction

sPrain: maybe pain with initial movement

94
Q

Explain how each of the following might test in the case of a cervical strain vs a cervical sprain:

pROM

A

sTrain: no pain

sPrain: pain at end range

95
Q

Explain how each of the following might test in the case of a cervical strain vs a cervical sprain:

Resisted ROM

A

sTrain: painful

sPrain: painful at end range when the ligament is pulled

96
Q

Explain how each of the following might test in the case of a cervical strain vs a cervical sprain:

isometric muscle test

A

sTrain: painful

sPrain: no pain

97
Q

What are two things that a RUST sign might signal in a trauma case? (3 things really)

Describe Rust’s sign

A

fracture, instability, severe sprain

Rust’s sign: patient stabilizes head when moving from seated to lying

98
Q

What are the 4 main components of a cervical stabilization program?

A
  1. Eval and train deep neck stabilizers
  2. Assess and Tx posture and respiration
  3. Address mm imbalance of large torque producers
  4. Retrain sensory motor response loop
99
Q

What are the components of a “low index” neurological physical exam screen?

A

Sensory: do soft touch with doc’s hands for speed
Mm test: finger flexors, maybe deltoid
DTRs: triceps and biceps

100
Q

Outline your treatment plan for TOS.

A

Adjust ribs, C-spine, upper T-spine, AC, SC, GH, scapulothoracic

Stretch PIR/CRAC/instrument assisted/pin-and-stretch/etc: scalenes, pec major, levator scap, suboccipitals, Pressure work on pec minor e.g. intermittent ischemic compression

Home exercise: stretch pecs and scalenes, neuromob

Activity/behavior mod: adapt job, find alternate ways to carry bags, correct forward head carriage, correct breathing patterns

101
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of TOS?

A
  • Dominant symptoms include shoulder and arm pain
  • Paresthesia of the fingers (often the 4th and 5th digit)
  • A sense of heaviness or fatigue in the arm
  • Sometimes pallor in the fingers.
  • Sensory symptoms generally cover more than one dermatome and precede motor symptoms.
  • The hand may also demonstrate loss of grip strength, incoordination or clumsiness
  • Other symptoms may include neck pain or headache.
  • Symptoms are usually unilateral
102
Q

What at the findings necessary to make a “true” neurogenic TOS diagnosis?

A
  • Neuro signs dominate, often occompanied by little or no P
  • Sensory loss typically ulnar aspect of hand/forearm
  • Gilliatt-Sumner hand

MUST HAVE 1 of:

  1. Reproducible neurological deficit seen it PE
  2. Positive EMG-NCV study demonstrating plexus damage
103
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of an arterial vascular TOS? What should you do?

A
  • Unilateral cold sensation
  • ‘Pallor of the fingertips
  • Splinter hemorrhages
  • Raynaud’s like phenomenon
  • Asymmetrical decreased radial push
  • Asymmetry of BP >20 mmHg (lower pressure in symptomatic arm)
  • Subclavian bruits
  • Mild signs of cramping or fatigue with repetitive use
  • Sometimes Sx that suggest neurogenic compression

Refer out

104
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a venous vascular TOS? What should you do?

A
  • Swelling in the hand or arm
  • Non pitting edema
  • Distended superficial veins in the UE and chest
  • Cyanosis
  • Ecchymosis sometimes with feeling of heaviness or fatigue in arm

*Refer to Urgent Care

105
Q

Which muscles (2) are most likely to contribute to the entrapment of the brachial plexus in TOS patients? And what is 1 more reason that is not a muscle?

A

Ant scalenes
Pec minor
Costoclavicular compression

106
Q

Neurovascular entrapment is thought to be caused by:

A
  • compression of the brachial plexus, subclavian artery and/or vein at some combination of the following sites:
  • interscalene triangle
  • B/w first rib and clavicle
  • B/w corocoid process and tendon of the pec minor muscle.
107
Q

What are the key components necessary to make a T4 syndrome diagnosis?

A

Joint dysfunction around T4

Glove paresthesia in upper extremity

108
Q

What are other symptoms/signs that may also be present in T4 syndrome?

What usually are the results from a neurological examination?

A

May wake up at night w/ sx or worse in the morning
Raynaud’s syndrome
Helmet HA

Results from neurological exam are WNL

109
Q

What is Schepelmann’s sign? What does it mean?

A

Procedure: patient seated arms fully abducted and raised over head. Instruct patient to laterally flex thoracic spine to the L side and then to the R

(+) pain on the concave or convex
• Pain on concave = intercostal neuritis while
• Pain on convex = fibrous inflammation of the pleura OR intercostal myofascitis

110
Q

What is Beevors’ sign? Where could the neurological lesion be?

A

Supine patient is asked to crunch up. Beevor’s test is a muscle test for NR or myelopathy.

Myelopathy: umbilicus deviates upward
NR: deviates away from side w/NR lesion

111
Q

What is an abnormal superficial abdominal reflex? Where could the neurological lesion be?

A

Scratch the skin in the 4 quadrants of the skin around umbilicus

Normal response: umbilicus deviates toward stimulation

Abnormal response: no movement suggests UMNL

Unilateral absence: LMNL

112
Q

What are the locations on the back for pain referral from the:

Gallbladder?
GERD?
Pancreas?
Ulcer?

A

Gallbladder: R inferior angle of scapula OR up to the R shoulder

GERD: center of back between shoulder blades

Pancreas: TLJ

Ulcer: left mid back/flank from inferior border of scap and downwards

113
Q

What are three organ systems noted for referring pain into the thoracic spine area?

A

GI
Heart
Lung

114
Q

What physical exam procedures are recommend to screen GI, Heart, Lung systems?

A

GI: palpate abdomen, gallbladder, pancreas

Heart: auscultate heart

Lung: auscultate lungs

115
Q

What type of repetitive motions can put the thoracic spine and ribs at risk for injury?

A
  • Forward head carriage
  • Push/pull activities
  • Rotational activities
116
Q

What are common causes of thoracic nerve root lesions? (3)
Causes of intercostal nerve lesions? (3)
Causes of thoracic spinal cord lesions?(3)

A

NR: stenosis, tumor, disc herniation

Intercostal nerve: Trauma, neuritis, shingles

Thoracic cord: Stenosis, tumor, disc herniation

117
Q

What is a DDX for thoracic trauma cases?

A
Sprain/strain
Facet syndrome
Disc derangement
Costovertebral sprain
Rib Dx
Intercostal strain
Spinal Fx
Contusion
118
Q

What is a DDX for non-traumatic thoracic cases?

A
Scapulocostal syndromes (snapping scapula)
Thoracic joint dysfunction
Rib joint dysfunction
Facet syndrome
Disc derangement
Postural sprain/ syndrome
Intercostal/scapular MFTPs
119
Q

What diagnoses can be associated with the ribs?

A

Fx
Sprain
Joint dysfunction

120
Q

What are three lungs conditions associated with pleuritic pain? What are some musculoskeletal conditions associated with pleuritic pain?

A

Lungs: pleuritic, pulmonary embolism

MSK: rib (Fx, sprain, joint dysfunction), Tx (Fx, sprain, joint dysfunction), intercostal muscle (strain or spasm)

121
Q

What are two special exam procedures to help detect cervical dorsalgia?

A

Doorbell sign = P b/w shoulder blades

Rotation w/passive over pressure into extension may reproduce thx pain

122
Q

How common is herpes zoster?

A

1/4 people

123
Q

What is its natural history of how it presents and how long it lasts?

A
  • Early signs: itching, tingling, then pain 1-5 days before blisters
  • Rash: 7-10 days
  • Complete healing: 2-4 weeks
124
Q

What are the key medical treatments for treating and preventing both herpes zoster and post herpetic neuralgia?

A
  • Relieve itching: Calamine lotion
  • Medical Tx: paracetamol, ibuprofen, codeine
  • Acyclovir w/i 72 hours. 800 mg orally 5x/day for 7-10 days
  • > 50 yo consider vaccine for prevention
125
Q

What are the radiographic changes consistent with Scheuermann’s disease?

A

Calcification of vertebral ephiphyses:
A. Notching of vertebral endplate
B. Wedging of vertebral bodies

126
Q

What is the measurement cut point for hyperkyphosis in Scheurmann’s disease?

A

40-45˚

127
Q

What is the measurement cut point for recommending surgery for Scheurmann’s disease?

A

> 65˚

128
Q

To screen for spinal cord involvement, what neurological exam procedure would need to be done in the lower extremities.

A
  • DTRs
  • Pathological reflexes
  • Superficial ab reflexes
  • Presence of hypertonic
  • LE sensory
  • Mm weakness
  • Altered sphincter fxn
129
Q

What are two ways to test to see if the hyperkyphosis of Scheuermann’s disease is rigid or not?

A
  • lie supine on a bolster/foam roller placed under apex of deformity
  • see if they can bend over
130
Q

What are three separate clinical scenarios (i.e., types of patients) in which to suspect a thoracic compression fracture?

A

Trauma: sudden pain + snapping audible

> 70 yo Spontaneous compression Fx

> 50yo osteoporosis

131
Q

What types of loads/positions might tend alleviate compression fracture pain?

What might aggravate it?

A

Alleviate: Rest or lying down

Aggravating: Standing, walking, activity

132
Q

What is paralytic ileus? What tends to cause it? How is it managed? What is its natural history?

A

Temporary stoppage of intestinal peristalsis 2-3 days caused by compression Fx

Manage: food fast 2-3 days

133
Q

Explain the type and timing of ancillary studies in suspected rib fractures.

A

Radiographs: AP and lateral NON-displaced Fx may not show up for 3 weeks (if you can’t wait 3 weeks, CT will show up immediately)

134
Q

What are Smorl’s nodes? Are they usually symptomatic?

A

thoracic IVD herniate through endplate, usually asymptomatic. But inflammatory, foreign body type Rxn can occur

135
Q

What structures are the usual causes of pain in scapulocostal syndromes?

A

Irritation to soft tissues contained w/i scapular interspace
• Subscap mm
• Decreased viscosity of serous fluid minimizing friction in the interface to lubricate the movement

136
Q

What does the SICK acronym stand for?

A

Scapular malposition
Inferior/bridal border winging
Coracoid tenderness
dysKinesis

137
Q

About what percentage of low back pain cases may be serious diseases like cancer or spinal infections?

A

3% d/t serious disease
• 1% cancer, infection
• 2% is deep referred P

138
Q

What is the natural history of low back pain related to pain and disability over the course of a year?

A

90% LBP resolves in 3 weeks

33% of patients experience mod or intense pain at 1 year
20% reported functional limitations in long term >1 year

139
Q

What is the reported prevalence s of each of the following causes of chronic LBP:
• disc injuries
• facet syndrome
• SI injuries

A

Disc 40%
Facet 5-60%
SI 20%

140
Q

What are key clues from the history and physical exam to support a lumbar facet syndrome?

Which of the clues would help differentiate it from a disc derangement?

A
Hx: >50 yo
PE:
• Extending up from flexion
• Active hyperextension
• Passive extension (e.g. prone extension test)
• Extension + Rotation —> Kemps
•Tenderness over facets with palpation
• motion palp reveals painful restricted joint

Dx from disc:
- Pain centralization w/ repetitive or sustained spinal loading suggests disc over facet

141
Q

Which would be the strongest clues against a facet syndrome? (5)

A

Pertinent negative: negative kemps is better against facet syndrome than a kemps will support it.

Lack of improvement with recumbency

Evidence of radicular syndrome

Valsalva maneuver is negative, but can be positive in acute cases

Flexion biased loading tests

142
Q

What are three different positive results from doing repetitive spinal loading that would suggest that you found a directional preference?

A

Decreased pain territory
Decreased severity of distal pain or paresthesia
Increased AROM

143
Q

What are the roles of radiographs, MRI and discography in diagnosing lumbar disc derangements?

A

Imaging not indicated unless more aggressive Tx needed

Xray, dynamic views, CT
MRI reveals annual tears

144
Q

What is the most common positive exam finding in patients with spondylolisthesis?

A

Step off defect test

145
Q

What muscles are most commonly in need of stretching for spondylolisthesis?

A

Hamstrings

146
Q

How common is it to have a positive SLR or neurological deficits in spondylolisthesis?

A

SLR rarely positive

NR deficits not common

147
Q

What are the imaging choices for confirming a spondylolysis diagnosis?
What are the advantages and disadvantages of each?

A

Radiograph is initial imaging

CT is best for occult spondy but high radiation, and don’t know if its active or inactive

SPECT 🌟 for active occult but high radiation

MRI

148
Q

What are the most common pain referral patterns for Maigne’s syndrome (TLJ syndrome)?

A

Follows cluneal nerves (gluteal) to SI joints

149
Q

How does a psoas syndrome differ from a psoas myofascial pain syndrome?

A

Psoas syndrome the TLJ is pain generator vs psoas being pain generator in a MFPT

150
Q

What are the pain referral patterns for psoas syndrome (2) vs psoas myofascial pain syndrome (3)?

A

Psoas syndrome = TLJ joint dysfunction = P referred to iliac crest and buttock

Psoas MFTP: paraspinals, anterior thigh, iliac crest

151
Q

What is the treatment program for psoas syndrome vs psoas MFTP?

A

Psoas syndrome

  • in office: adjust TLJ, stretch/relax psoas
  • home: psoas stretch, TLJ self mob

Psoas MFTP
-in office: treat the trigger point

152
Q

What is the pain referral pattern for a QL myofascial pain syndrome? (4)

A

Greater trochanter
SI joint
Ischial tuberosity
Iliac crest

153
Q

When performing the prone extension test, what are the various possible findings and what do they mean?

A

LBP aggravated by resisted ext → extensor strain

LBP aggravated by passive overpressure → Lumbar joint (facet, disc derangement, sublux, sprain, spondylolisthesis)

LBP w/ hypermobility → segmental instability

Leg sx aggravated in pts >55 (sustained) → spinal stenosis, osteophytic root compression

Leg sx centralize w/ repetition → disc lesion (deranged or hern)

154
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of cauda equina syndrome? (Indicate which sx is MC)

A

Urinary retention — MC
Incontinence
Paresthesia in saddle distribution
Altered anal sphincter tone

155
Q

What do you do next if you get a hard positive SLR in a patient with low back and leg pain?

A

Hard (+) SLR confirm with Braggard, Bowstring, Bonnet

156
Q

What do you do next if you get a soft positive SLR in a patient with low back and leg pain?

A

Soft (+) SLR do Max SLR and/or Seated SLR

157
Q

What do you do next if you get a hard or soft positive Bechterew’s test in a patient with low back and leg pain?

A

Hard (+) Bechterew: confirm with Bragard, bowstring, bonnet

Soft (+) Bechterew: confirm with slump test

158
Q

If you got negative tension test, what do you do?

A

Go right to max SLR

159
Q

What are extra spinal causes of sciatica?

A

DDX list
• Piriformis syndrome
• Pelvic/gynecologic conditions (including endometriosis**)
◦ **tissue can wrap around sciatic nerve. May get sciatica when this female has her menses and the tissue is engorged with blood.
• Herpes zoster
• Diabetic neuropathy
• HIV/Lyme disease neuropathy
• Pregnancy/delivery (prolonged time in lithotomy position)
• Trauma to nerve or surrounding structures (hip/pelvis/biceps femoris)

160
Q

What is the most common age range for lumbar disc herniations?

A

30-55yo

161
Q

What combination of clues would support a lumbar disc herniation?

A

Discogenic clues:
◦ Sx centralization with repetitive/sustained loading ,**
◦ Decreased sagittal thoracolumbar ROM
,**
◦ Positive Valsalva,**
◦ Sitting poorly tolerated
,**
◦ DeJeurine’s triad,**
◦ Flexion load sensitivity
,**
◦ Sensitive to axial loading (e.g., dSLR) ,**
◦ Positive XSLR (well leg causes bad leg P) *
◦ Mannequin sign

  • herniation
  • *derangement
162
Q

Which is the single most specific clue for a lumbar disc herniation?

A

Positive XSLR (well leg)

163
Q

What was recommended in lecture as your early intervention package of interventions for a lumbar disc derangement? (4)

A
  • HVLA manipulation (OV)
  • Flexion-distraction therapy (OV)
  • Directional preference exercises (home-based)
  • Hip hinge/Neutral pelvis/abdominal bracing (behavioral modification)
164
Q

What was recommended in lecture as your post-acute intervention package of interventions for a lumbar disc derangement? (2)

A
  • Lumbar stabilization rehab (home-based or supervised; when patients can sit comfortably?)
  • Neuromob procedures (OV & home based sliders/tensioners)
165
Q

What are the 2 clinical presentations of lumbar spinal stenosis?

A
  1. Neurogenic claudication “lumbar spinal stenosis with neurogenic claudication”
  2. Radicular/sciatica “lumbar spinal stenosis with sciatica”
166
Q

What are some of the key signs and symptom that would suggest lumbar spinal stenosis?

A

• >60 with neurogenic pain
◦ Made worse by extension: walking, standing, hyperextension
◦ Made better by flexion: sitting, walking uphill, squatting
• Wide gait +LR 13
• Improved walking tolerance w/ spinal flexion -LR 0.5
• “Heaviness” or “tired legs”
• Paresthesia, odd sensations, usually non-dermatomal

167
Q

What are some of the key differentiating features between neurogenic and vascular claudication?

A

Neurogenic/Stenosis:

  • Location: thighs
  • Increased mm weakness after walking.
  • decrease P bending over
  • increases P walking downhill/increased lordosis
  • LE pulses will be present
  • Shopping cart sign will be present

PAD/vascular claudication

  • Location: lower leg MC
  • unchanged after walking
  • decrease P sitting, stopping
  • increase P walking uphill, increased metabolic demand
  • LE pulse absent
  • Shopping cart sign absent
168
Q

What conditions are suggested by a positive Kemp’s test that aggravates leg symptoms?

A

True (+)
- IVF encroachment: osteophyte/spurring, IVF stenosis, disc hern

(+) Local P

  • joint lesion: facet/lig/disc lesion
  • facet

(-) kemps is better clue against facet syndrome. “Pertinent negative”

169
Q

What are key clues from the Hx that would suggest lumbar functional instability?

A

Hx
• episodic nature triggered by trivial events
• Reports of catching, locking, giving away
• Immediate pain with sitting
• Temporary response to manipulation
• Decreased response to manipulation over time

170
Q

What are key clues from the PE that would suggest lumbar functional instability?

A

PE
• Altered quality of movement (e.g. painful arc)
• Specific segmental findings (e.g. positive prone instab test, decreased resistance with prone joint play)
• Evidence of poor motor control (e.g. poor motor control during single leg stand, segmental abnormal movement)

171
Q

What is the proposed clinical decision making rule for identifying patients that would benefit from a lumbar stabilization program?

A

<40 yo
Ave >91˚ flexion in both legs SLR
Positive prone instab test
Aberrant movement with lumbar flexion

172
Q

In hip conditions, what is the “C” sign?

A

When the patient cups their hand over their greater troch and says that’s where the pain is.

173
Q

In hip conditions, where is the most common location of the pain at least initially?

A
  • MC location groin (84%)
  • Buttock (76%)
  • Ant thigh (59%)
  • Post thigh (43%)
  • Must ddx from knee lesion ANT Knee (69%)
  • Shin (47%)
  • Calf (29%)
174
Q

In hip lesions, which muscle is most likely to go into spasm?

A

?

175
Q

What is the log roll screen?

A

Pt lies supine

Doc place one hand at knee, one at ankle and roll leg internally and externally

176
Q

What are a couple of other signs that suggest that the hip may be the source of the patient’s pain?

A

P aggravated with weight
Associated with pain and decreased IR
(+) anvil test, circumspection, Faber, hip scouring
Assess active and pROM as well

Limp, groin P, limited hip IR = predictive of hip disorder than spine disorder

177
Q

According to a small 2004 study, what combination of 3 findings are most helpful at differentiating hip pain from lumbar pain?

A

Limp
Groin P
Limited hip IR

Suggestive of hip (NOT spine)

178
Q

What are 4 local causes of lateral hip pain?

A

Gluteus medius tendinopathy
ITB tendinopathy
Trochanteric bursitis
External snapping hip (ITP/Glute max)

179
Q

What causes an external snapping hip syndrome? Internal snapping hip?

A

External: ITB/Glute max
Internal: iliopsoas

180
Q

What were two exam findings that most strongly support a diagnosis of g medius tendinopathy?

A
  • lateral hip pain w/ single leg stand <30 sec

- resisted Fader test

181
Q

What are 5 intracapsular causes of anterior hip pain? What are 2 extracapsular causes of anterior hip pain?

A

Intracapsular:

  • Hip OA
  • FAI (femoroacetabular impingement)
  • Labral tear
  • AVN
  • Stress fx

Extracapsular:

  • Adductor tear
  • Internal snapping hip (e.g. iliopsoas)
182
Q

What are the 4 seronegative arthropathies?

A

Psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosis spondylitis (AS)
Reiter’s syndrome
Enteric arthritis (UC, Crohn’s disease)

183
Q

What are 5 screening questions for AS?

A
Morning stiffness?
Improves with exercise?
Onset pain before 40 yo?
Slow onset?
Pain persisting > 3 months?
184
Q

What 6 tests are recommended to perform on a patient to see if they have SI pain? Which 5 should be interpreted as a group? What is their combined +LR?

A

ASLR

Thigh thrust
Sacral thrust
Gaenslen’s
SI compression
SI distraction

3+ (+)ve tests = LR 4.1

185
Q

There are 6 tests recommended to perform on a patient to see if they have SI pain:
ASLR

Thigh thrust
Sacral thrust
Gaenslen’s
SI compression
SI distraction

3+ (+)ve tests = LR 4.1

What other findings can raise the +LR to 6.9?

A

No centralization with repetitive movements

186
Q

What two pieces of information does a positive active SLR tell you?

A
  • Suggests the SI joint is the pain generator

- possible SI functional instability

187
Q

What should you immediately do if it the active SLR is positive for pain when you are performing the test?

A

Retest with abdominal bracing, or trochanteric belt (preggo)

188
Q

What are three conditions associated with the piriformis?

A
  • Spasm
  • Syndrome
  • Myofascial pain syndrome
189
Q

What are some important contributions to an SI problem?

A
  • Sacroiliac muscle imbalance pattern
  • Lower cross syndrome
  • Tight hamstrings
  • LLI
190
Q

What muscles are inhibited/short in a dysfunctional Sacroiliac muscle imbalance pattern as suggested by Janda?

A

◦ Ipsi glut max inhibited
◦ Ipsi iliopsoas short and tight
◦ Ipsi piriformis short and tight
◦ Contra glut med inhibited

191
Q

What are the two different neurological presentations of lumbar spinal stenosis? (Which one is MC?)

A
  • Neurogenic claudication - MC

* Radicular/sciatica

192
Q

What are some of the clues that would support each of these two different designations: neurogenic claudication stenosis vs radicular/sciatica stenosis?

A

Neurogenic claudication:

  • leg P with walking
  • leg P sensitive to spinal position

Radicular:

  • leg P unrelated to body position
  • unilateral or bilateral leg pain
  • may occur alone or w/neuro claud
193
Q

It is convenient to organize the various signs and symptoms of stenosis into MECHANICAL clues and NEUROLOGICAL clues. Cite three examples from each category.

A

Mechanical clues

  • pain with walking
  • flexion relieves
  • extension makes it worse

Neurological clues

  • proprioception/balance affected
  • basic neuro: SMR deficits 50% of the time (rarely +ve SLR)
  • rarely CES present
194
Q

Besides leg pain, how else might a stenosis patient describe their leg symptoms?

A

“Heaviness,” “tired legs”

Paresthesia, “odd sensation,” usually non dermatomal

195
Q

Are the extremity Sx more commonly unilateral or bilateral in stenosis?

A

Bilateral

196
Q

When there are bilateral symptoms in stenosis, is this due to cord involvement?

A

unlikely

197
Q

Diagnosis of spinal stenosis is contingent on what 3 factors?

A
  • Signs and Sx
  • Radiographic evidence
  • R/o other back and leg causes
198
Q

Cite 5 competing causes of lumbar radicular syndromes other than stenosis.

A
  • Lumbar disk hern
  • SOL
  • Osteophytes NR compression
  • Compression Fx
  • Spinal infection
199
Q

Cite 5 peripheral nerve causes of sciatica in an older patent.

A
  • Piriformis syndrome
  • Diabetic neuropathy
  • Herpes zoster
  • Compartment syndromes
  • Peroneal nerve compression
200
Q

What is the sequencing for ordering ancillary studies in a suspected lumbar stenosis case?

A

Xray
MRI/CT
Electromyographic paraspinal mapping

201
Q

What is the role of electromyographic paraspinal mapping?

A

Surgery

It maps the involved muscles and checks what degree the nerve potentials are being affected

202
Q

What are the initial ancillary tests of choice for a suspected PAD case? What is the gold standard test?

A

Duplex/Doppler US
Ankle-brachial index
Magnetic 🧲 resonance angiography 🌟

203
Q

How and when does a treadmill test fit in?

A

When you need to DDX leg pain from stenosis vs PAD

  • Stenosis patients can walk further uphill (because spinal flexion relieves)
  • PAD patients cannot walk as far (because increased mm oxygen demand)
204
Q

What would be some components of a conservative care program for PAD? (3)

A
  • Walking ‘near pain threshold’ at least 3x/week
  • Lifestyle changes: stop smoking, improve diet
  • Toe raise 3x/day
205
Q

Using the 4 block “main tool boxes” for treatment, outline various treatment approaches for lumbar stenosis.

A
  • CMT: joint manipulation/mob, flexion-distraction therapy
  • STM: PIR, IASTM, treat any spasm or MFTPs
  • Activity Mod: avoid prolonged standing, avoid arms overhead
  • Exercise: flexion-based exercises, core stab exercises, walking program
206
Q

What are some additional aides or supports that could be recommended to the stenosis patient? (3)

A

Lumbosacral corset: improve walking distance

US: 5 sessions/week for 3 weeks

Wheeled walker: improve P and walking distance

207
Q

Explain what we know about prognosis for spinal stenosis.

A

Not as good for disc hern, non-specific LBP or spondylolysis or -listhesis

😊 30-50% of cases of mild-mod stenosis are favorable w/o Tx
😊👩🏻‍⚕️ 50-70% treated non-surgically
👩🏻‍⚕️💉 20-40% will have surgery eventually

208
Q

What are medically-based options for the stenosis patient if usual conservative care does not work?

A
  • Epidural transformational steroid injections
  • Surgical decompression w/ or w/o lumbar fusion
  • Lumbar decompression
209
Q

What are indications for surgery for stenosis?

A
  • Severe leg P
  • Significant difficulty walking
  • progressive neuro loss
  • CES Sx (bowel or bladder dysfunction)
  • failure of conservative treatment
210
Q

What do we know about the timing of the surgery for stenosis patient?

A
  • Surgery delay of 3+ months did not worsen prognosis
  • Leg P lasting >1 year long may have poorer surgical outcome

So a treatment trial of 3 months is a viable option