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Cytodiagnostics > Study Questions > Flashcards

Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are benefits to cytologic sampling?

A 
Easier to collect
Less discomfort
Less likely to result in serious complications
Costs less
Faster turn-around time
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2
Q

What are the major limiting factors to cytologic sampling?

A 
Low cellularity or hemodilute samples
Thick preparations
Not representative of lesion
Rough handling
Mixed cell populations
Lesion requiring tissue architecture
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3
Q

Which sample tube should be used for culture?

A

Plain red top tube

EDTA in purple tops may be bactericidal/static

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4
Q

Which sample tube should be used for cytology (when cell counts are desired)?

A

Purple EDTA tube

Prevents cells from clumping, easier to look at sample

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5
Q

Why is it important to make slides at the sime of collection for fluid samples?

A

To limit cellular swelling and artifact

Example given - macrophage erythrophagocytosis

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6
Q

What is a “smear” artifact? What is the cause? What sample is most commonly affected?

A

Nuclear streaming from ruptured cells due to excessive tissue handling

Lymphoid samples most commonly affected

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7
Q

When is heat fixation necessary?

A

Gram stain

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8
Q

What are the steps to preparing a tissue imprint for cytology from a biopsy sample?

A
  1. Blot away excessive fluid on a clean paper towel or gauze before imprinting
  2. Imprint internal cut surface in linear fashion BEFORE exposure to formalin

Do not smear- may call cell rupture
May need to use a scalpel to grid sample

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9
Q

Why is clinical history important?

A

Signalment, lesion description, medications, etc. important for interpretation and differentials

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10
Q

What is kohler illumination?

A

Close condenser to see octagon

Move octagon to center, focus to make edges crisp

Open back up

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11
Q

Which cell types does not stain well with Diff Quik?

A

Mast cell

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12
Q

What are the five main classifications of lesions?

A
  1. Cystic
  2. Hemorrhagic
  3. Inflammatory
  4. Neoplastic
  5. Mixed
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13
Q

What are follicular cysts composed of? When might this type of cyst become inflamed?

A

Contain keratinized cells, amorphous material, and cholesterol crystals

Becomes inflamed if they rupture into deeper tissues

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14
Q

What are two types of pigment seen with hemorrhage?

A

Hemosiderin (black)
Hematoidin (golden)

Seen within macrophages

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15
Q

What are primary considerations for the different types of inflammation?

A

Neutrophilis: abscess, sterile inflammation, immune-mediated disease, neoplasia

Neutrophils and macrophages: foreign bodies, injection site reactions, panniculitis, furunculosis, infectious etiologies

Eosinophils: allergy/hypersensitivity, infectious etiologies (fungal/oomycets, parasites), eosinophilic granuoma complex, neoplasms

Lymphoplasmacytic: mixed - antigenic/immune stimulation, early viral infection, chronic inflammation, regressing histiocytomas; monomorphic - neoplasia

Mixed: reactive hyperplasia

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16
Q

What are degenerative changes (ie. what cell do they affect, what part of the cell, and where do they occur)? What are the implications of degenerate changes? Can degenerate changes be an artifact?

A

Affect nucleus of cell - karyolysis, karyorrhexis, pyknosis

Indicates cell death

Karyolysis - bacterial infection and rapid cell death
Karryorrhexis/pyknois - “regular” cell death

Yes, can be artifact from sitting in tube too long

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17
Q

What are the four categories of tissue of origin for neoplastic lesions? Be able to describe the cytologic features of each

A
  1. Epithelial
  2. Mesenchymal
  3. Round
  4. Neuroendocrine
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18
Q

What are the eight criteria of malignancy? How many are recommended to differentiate benign from malignant lesions cytologically?

A
  1. Anisokaryosis
  2. Pleomorphism
  3. High variable N:C ratio
  4. Mitotic figures
  5. Prominent nucleoli
  6. Coarse/clumped chromatin
  7. Nuclear molding
  8. Multinucleation

< 3: benign

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19
Q

Why do you need to use caution when interpreting mixed cell populations?

A

Mimics malignancy

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20
Q

Describe the cytologic features of epithelial cells

A

Readily exfoliate

Cohesive clusters and sheets

Distinct cytoplasmic borders with desmosomes

Round, oval, or polygonal cells

Acinar formation (glandular)

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21
Q

Which specific epithelial neoplasms typically require histopathology to determine their biological behavior?

A

Mammary tumors

Hepatocellular tumors

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22
Q

What is the most common epithelial tumor in the dog?

A

Mast cell tumor

OR

Adenexal neoplasm (when the whole group is lumped together)

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23
Q

Wat is the most common route for metastatic spread of epithelial tumors?

A

Lymphatics

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24
Q

What are the two types of perianal neoplasms?How do they differ cytologically and in biologic behavior?

A

1) Circumanal gland (hepatoid): look similar to hepatocytes with a lot of cytoplasm and pink hue, round nucleus with visible nucleoli, “reserve cells” may be present. Most are benign.
2) Anal sac apocrine gland: clumps or sheets with indistinct cell borders, appear lysed or “neuroendocrine”, large UNIFORM nuclei. Most are malignant.

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25
Q

What is a common paraneoplastic syndrome associated with anal sac apocrine gland adenocarcinomas?

A

Hypercalcemia of malignancy

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26
Q

What are the cytologic features of neuroendocrine tumors?

A

Exfoliate well

Free nuclei in background of cytoplasm (fragile cells)

Minimal atypia (hard to diagnose malignancy)

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27
Q

How would you determine the biological behavior of a neuroendocrine neoplasm?

A

Histopathology

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28
Q

What are two defining features of thyroid neoplasms?

A

Colloid

Tyrosine granules

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29
Q

In what species are thyroid tumors functional?

A

Cat

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30
Q

What breeds are overrepresented for nonchromaffin chemoreceptor tumors?

A

Brachycephalic breeds (Boxers, Boston Terriers)

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31
Q

Which neuroendocrine tumor can be an incidental finding?

A

Pheochromocytoma

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32
Q

Which neuroendocrine tumor is typically seen with other concurrent neoplasms?

A

Pheochromocytoma

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33
Q

Describe the cytologic features of mesenchymal cells

A 
Variable exfoliation
Cells individually arranges
Indistinct, wispy cytoplasmic borders
Spindle-shaped, fusiform, stellate cells
Oval nucleus
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34
Q

Which specific mesencymal neoplasms typically require histopathology to determine their biological behavior?

A

Muscle tumors:
Leiomyoma/sarcoma
Myxoma/sarcoma

Cartilaginous tumors:
Chondroma/sarcoma

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35
Q

What is the most common route of spread for mesenchymal neoplasms?

A

Hematogenous routes

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36
Q

What tissue do mesenchymal cells arise from?

A

Soft tissue
Bone
Cartilage

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37
Q

What other tumors can feel like a lipoma?

A

Mast cell tumors

Soft tissue sarcomas (specifically perivascular wall tumors)

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38
Q

What additional cell population may be present in injection site sarcoma in cats?

A

Lymphoid cells

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39
Q

Why are certain soft tissue sarcomas placed into the same category and not differentiated further?

A

Not differentiated anymore because basic biologic behavior and treatment for all of these tumors is the same

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40
Q

Why is hemangiosarcoma poorly exfoliative?

A

Poorly exfoliative

Dependent on aspiration technique

Tumor cells are lining blood vessel so need to aspirate capsule of tumor to get diagnosis

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41
Q

What other tumor(s) must synovial cell sarcoma be distinguished from?

A

Histiocytic sarcoma

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42
Q

Know the signalment, anatomic site, and biologic behavior for mesenchymal tumors

A

Liposarcoma: older dogs, ventrum and extremities, malignant

Perivascular wall tumors: extremities

Fibrosarcoma: older dogs, may be associated with injection sites, malignant but slow to metastasize

Hemangiosarcoma: older, large breed dogs, spleen, lifer, R atrium, retroperitoneal space, bone, dermal. Malignant, poor prognosis

Synovial cell sarcoma: elbow, stifle, and shoulder. Locally invasive, 25% metastasis

Histiocytic sarcoma: rottweilers, stifle

Snyovial myxoma: doberman, stifle

Osteosarcoma: large breed dogs, away from elbow, towards knee, rapid metastasis (worse prognosis in appendicular skeleton than axial)

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43
Q

What are the 6 categories of round cell neoplasms?

A
  1. Lymphoma
  2. Plasma cell
  3. Histiocytoma/histiocytic neoplasia
  4. TVT
  5. Mast cell tumor
  6. Melanoma
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44
Q

How do round cell tumors typically metastasize?

A

Lymphatics

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45
Q

What are defining features of plasma cells?

A

Dark blue cytoplasm

Perinuclear colorless area (their golgi)

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46
Q

Know signalment and biologic behavior differences between histiocytoma and histiocytic sarcoma

A

Histiocytoma: young dogs, usually on head or trunk, benign

Histiocytic sarcoma: bernese mountain dogs, rottweilers, flat-coated retrievers, goldens, skin of extremities, spleen, LNs, lung, BM, meninges, periarticular, can be disseminated

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47
Q

What are the hematologic and biochemical changes that can be seen with the hemophagocytic variant of histiocytic sarcoma?

A

Hematologic: anemia, thrombocytopenia

Biochemical: hypoalbuminemia, hypocholesterolemia

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48
Q

What are the typical locations for TVT? Why?

A

Nasal cavity and mucus membranes of external genitalia

Sniffing butts

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49
Q

Which round cell tumor may be difficult to diagnose using quick type stains (Diff Quik)?

A

Mast Cell Tumors

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50
Q

What 4 components may be seen with mast cell tumors?

A
  1. Mast cells
  2. Eosinophilic inflammation
  3. Reactive fibroblasts
  4. Collagen lysis
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51
Q

Know about signalment and anatomic site differences for the round cell tumors.

A

Lymphoma: lymph nodes (dogs), GI (cat), horse

Plasma cell tumor: dogs > cats; extramedullary = digits, ears, oral, GI, liver, spleen

Histiocytoma: pink, hairless region on trunk/head; young animals; regress

Histiocytic sarcoma: Bernese Mtn Dogs, Goldens, Flat Coats, Rotties; skin, spleen, LN, lung, marrow, meninges, periarticular; met everywhere

TVT: dogs; on nose, external genitalia, anus

MCT: can see in young animals; more aggressive in dogs than cats/horses; poorer prognosis if nails, scrotum, mucocutaneous sites; cats can get visceral form

Melanoma: dogs/horses; oral/digit more aggressive than trunk; horses get at the base of the tail, perineum, lips, eyelids

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52
Q

Cytologic description of reactive lymphoid hyperplasia

A

Predominately small, well-differentiated lymphocytes

Increased number of intermediate lymphocytes, large lymphoblasts, plasma cells, neuts, eos, macrophages

Low numbers of mast cells

Lymphoglandular bodies

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53
Q

Cytologic description of lymphadenitis

A

Inflammatory cells

Look for etiologic agent

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54
Q

For lymphoma of peripheral lymph nodes in dogs, what percent of blasts can lead to a reliable diagnosis of lymphoma?

A

> 50%

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55
Q

Cytologic description of metastatic neoplasia

A

Presence of cells not normally seen or not seen in large numbers in lymph nodes

Usually display malignancy

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56
Q

What signalment and clinical findings are important with Feline Hodgkin’s-like lymphoma?

A

Adult

Enlarge LN in neck, then moves down to thorax

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57
Q

What signalment information is important with distinctive peripheral lymphoid hyperplasia of cats?

A

Young cats (< 2 years old) with diffuse lymphadenomegaly

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58
Q

What signalment and clinical findings are important with feline small-cell lymphoma?

A

Older, geriatric cats

FeLV neg

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59
Q

In an animal with generalized lymphadenopathy, what does the FNA cytology finding of reactive lymphoid hyperplasia in multiple nodes imply?

A

Non-specific

Indicates antigenic stimulation with many etiologies possible

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60
Q

What is a lymphoglandular body?

A

Cytoplasmic fragments

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61
Q

Which tests are useful to phenotype lymphoma?

A

Flow cytometry

IHC, ICC

62
Q

What condition can be associated with a “false-positive” PCR for antigen receptor rearrangement (PARR)?

A

Chronic antigenic stimulation

63
Q

What test is required to diagnose feline Hodgkin’s-like lymphoma?

A

Histology and IHC

64
Q

Which type of feline ailmentary lymphoma often occurs in the stomach or colon as a solitary mass?

A

Large cell (typically B cell)

65
Q

Which type of feline ailmentary lymphoma is most common?

A

Small cell, well-differentiated lymphoma

66
Q

Feline lymphocytic inflammatory bowel disease and ____ lymphoma can be difficult to distinguish cytologically and histologically

A

Ailmentary

Small cell, well-differentiated

67
Q

Can lymph node FNA cytology definitively diagnose that a lymph node is completely free of metastatic neoplasia? Why or why not?

A

No

Early metastatic disease might be missed on cytology (starts as focal accumulations)

68
Q

Is it possible for a lymph node to contain metastatic neoplastic cells and still be normal sized?

A

Yes

Metastasis starts as focal accumulations of abnormal cells

69
Q

Is prognosis worse for B cell or T cell lymphoma?

A

B is better than T

70
Q

What substage of lymphoma is better ( A or B)?

A

A

A = not clinical
B = clinically ill
71
Q

Which lymphoma phenotype is more commonly associated with hypercalcemia?

A

T cell lymphomas

72
Q

Is it possible to definitively phenotype lymphoma using routine FNA cytology alone?

A

No

73
Q

For a cat with enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes from which FNA cytology revealed a small lymphoid population, could the small lymphocytes be a reactive cell population?

A

Yes

74
Q

For a cat with enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes from which FNA cytology revealed a small lymphoid population, could the small lymphocytes be a neoplastic population?

A

Yes

75
Q

For a cat with enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes from which FNA cytology revealed a small lymphoid population, could one use flow cytometry of the LN FNA to tell if vells are likely reactive or neoplastic?

A

Yes, but less reliable than PARR

76
Q

For a cat with enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes from which FNA cytology revealed a small lymphoid population, could one use PCR for PARR of LN to tell if cells are reactive or neplpastic?

A

Yes

77
Q

For a cat with enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes from which FNA cytology revealed a small lymphoid population, what type of info is provided by flow cytometry and other immunodiagnostics?

A

Phenotype

78
Q

For a cat with enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes from which FNA cytology revealed a small lymphoid population, what type of info is provided by PARR?

A

Clonality of lymphocytes

79
Q

What lymphoid populations are expected in the spleen?

A

Mixed lymphoid populations - predominance of small, some intermediates, some large cells

80
Q

What is extramedually hematopoiesus and what is the clincal signficance?

A

Blood elements produced outside bone marrow, most commonly in liver and spleen

Similar cell populations to bone marrow

Benign

81
Q

What are the three types of feline ailmentary lymphoma?

A
  1. Small cell, well-differentiated
  2. Large granular lymphoma
  3. Large cell (typically B cell)
82
Q

Which type of hepatic biopsy yields a sample most representative of hepatic architecture?

A

Wedge biopsy

83
Q

What diseases are most likely to yield a diagnostic sample when blind FNA is used to collect the sample?

A

Diffuse disease

Hepatic lipidosis
Vacuolar hepatopathy
Lymphoma
Neutrophilic hepatitis

84
Q

What is the utility of ultrasound-guided FNA of focal hepatic lesions?

A

Useful to distinguish inflammatory, hyperplastic, and neoplastic lesions

85
Q

What is the significane of nuclear crystals identified in hepatic cytology?

A

No real significance

86
Q

When can hepatocellular binucleation be observed?

A

Hyperplasia or well-differentiated carcinoma

87
Q

What are the two typs of hepatocellular vacuolar degeneration and why does each occur?

A
  1. Distinct - lipid accumulation

2. Indistinct - water or glycogen

88
Q

What type of vacuolar degeneration is observed more commonly in cats?

A

Distinct

89
Q

What type of vacuolar degeneration is observed more commonly in dogs?

A

Indistinct

90
Q

What liver pigments are most commonly observed?

A

Bile
Lipofuscin
Hemosiderin
Copper

91
Q

What are bile casts and why do they occur?

A

Cholestasis

92
Q

With cytology, is it possible to tell the difference between hepatitis and cholangitis?

A

No

93
Q

What is the most common type of inflammation in the liver and is cytology relatively insensitive or sensitive for detecting it?

A

Non-neutrophilic inflammation

Insensitive

Usually very focal

94
Q

What is the significance of a small cell lymphoid infiltrate into a liver?

A

Inflammation or lymphoma

95
Q

Compare and contrast nodular hyperplasia with hepatocellular regeneration

A 
Nodular hyperplasia:
Idiopathic, older dogs
No clinical signs, inc ALP
Vacuolar degeneration
Pigment
EMH
Hepatocellular regneration:
Result of chronic hepatitis
Bile in vacuoles
Bile casts
Clumped fibroblasts
96
Q

What are the metastatic rates of the three morphologic forms of canine hepatocellular carinoma?

A

Massive - 5%
Nodular - 90%
Diffuse - 100%

97
Q

What is the most common hepatic neoplasm?

A

Lymphoma

98
Q

What is the most common primary hepatic tumor of dogs and what is its site predilection?

A

Massive hepatocellular carcinoma

Left lateral liver lobe

99
Q

What is the most common primary hepatic tumor of cats?

A

Bile duct carcinoma

100
Q

A large amount of distinct vacuolar degeneration is identified in the hepatic FNA of a cat. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?

A. Incidental finding of lipid accumulation within hepatocytes
B. Incidental finding of glycogen accumulation within hepatocytes
C. Hepatic lipidosis
D. Steroid hepatopathy
E. Vacuolar degeneration due to toxic insult

A

Hepatic lipidosis

101
Q

What sample tube do you need to put body cavity fluid in for cytology? Culture?

A

Cytology: EDTA purple top

Culture: plain red top tube

102
Q

If there will be a delay in processing a fluid sample (eg. Transport >30 min), what two things should you do?

A
  1. Prepare direct smear immediately after collection

2. Keep fluid refrigerated

103
Q

What are the four parts of body cavity effusion analysis?

A
  1. Physical features (color/clarity)
  2. Protein concentration
  3. Cell count
  4. Microscopic evaluation
104
Q

What is the predominant cell type in normal body cavity fluid of the following species:

Dogs/cats?
Equine?

A

Dogs/cats = mostly mononuclear phagocytes, low number of small lymphs/neuts, mesothelial cells

Equine = neutrophils predominate (low numbers), minimal reactive mononuclear
phagocytes, small lymphs, mesothelial cells

105
Q

How do transudates form and what are some common clinical conditions that result in their formation?

A

Decreased oncotic pressure or increased hydrostatic pressure

Liver, intestinal, renal disease or iatrogenic (fluid overload) = anything that causes decreased abumin

106
Q

What biochemical test can you perform to daignose a chylous effusion?

A

Triglycerides

107
Q

Which is the least useful fluid classification and why?

A

Modified transudate

Can be caused by many clinical conditions

108
Q

How do exudates form and what sare come common clinical conditions that result in their formation?

A

Exudative processes = increased vascular permeability and inflammation

Non-septic: chemical peritonitis, FIP, sterile FB, neoplasia, pancreatitis, abscess

Septic: puncture wounds, bite wounds, perforation, abscess

109
Q

What are 3 common causes of a non-septic exudate and how would you diagnose each one?

A

Uroperitoneum: fluid:serum creatinine ratio (>2:1)

Bile peritonitis: fluid:serum bilirubin ratio (>2:1)

FIP: very high protein concentration, A:G ratio <0.8

110
Q

What must be present to diagnose a septic exudate?

A

Intracellular organisms

111
Q

How would you distinguish between true and iatrogenic hemorrhage in effusion?

A

Erythrophagocytosis +/- hemosiderin

Presence of platelets (true hemorrhagic effusions - will NOT see platelets)

112
Q

What are the common neoplastic effusions?

A 
Lymphoma
Hemangiosarcoma
Carcinoma
Mesothelioma
MCT
113
Q

True or False: Synovial fluid analysis usually yields a specific clinical diagnosis

A

False

114
Q

What are some causes of decreased synovial fluid viscosity?

A

Breakdown by bacterial or WBC proteases

Dilution

Decreased production from synovium damage

115
Q

What are the 3 ways one can assess the viscocity of synovial fluid?

A

String test
Mucin clot test
Microscopic exam

116
Q

What is the cytologic appearance of synovial fluid that has normal viscosity?

A

Dense, granular, eosinophilic background

“Pink shag carpet”

117
Q

What leukocyte count and cytologic appearance (background, predominant nucleated cell) can be seen with each of the following?:

Normal synovial fluid

Synovial fluid from an animal with non-inflammatory joint disease

Synovial fluid from an animal with inflammatory joint disease

A

Normal synovial fluid:
Mononuclear cells predominate, dense eosinophilic background. Most species <500 cells/uL

Synovial fluid from an animal with non-inflammatory joint disease
Increased numbers of mononuclear cells (may be reactive)

Synovial fluid from an animal with inflammatory joint disease
Neutrophils predominate

118
Q

True or False - definitive diagnosis of degenerative joint disease (DJD) can be made with synovial fluid analysis alone?

A

False

119
Q

What are the four general differentials for a non-inflammatory joint fluid?

A

Trauma
DJD
Hemarthrosis
Neoplasia

120
Q

Why is it useful to radiograph the affected joint(s) in an animal that has a non-inflammatory joint fluid?

A

DJD cannot be diagnosed via fluid analysis – requires rads

121
Q

What joint is usually affected in dogs that have lymphoplasmacytic synovitis and with what specific orthopedic finding is this often associated with?

A

Stifle; generally reflect CCL disease

122
Q

How many joints does one need to sample (i.e., how many joints need to be arthrocentesed) to diagnose the most common inflammatory joint disease of dogs?

A

3

123
Q

What is the most common inflammatory joint disease of dogs and how does it present radiographically?

A

Idiopathic immune-mediated non-erosive polyarthritis

Only radiographic changes if erosive?

124
Q

Is the polyarthropathy observed in an E. canis-infected dog likely due to primary joint infection or secondary immune attack/complex deposition?

A

Secondary immune attack/complex deposition

125
Q

How does one definitively diagnose the most common inflammatory joint disease of dogs?

A

(Idiopathic)

Must exclude all other causes

126
Q

True or False – the rheumatoid factor (RF) test has good sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of idiopathic erosive polyarthritis (rheumatoid arthritis) in dogs.

A

False

127
Q

True or False – a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test along with other specific clinical signs is necessary to diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).

A

True

128
Q

What is the most common inflammatory joint disease of cats and what are some specific factoids about this disease (Re: etiology, gender predisposition, radiographic presentation)?

A

Feline chronic progressive polyarthritis; young male cats, viral infections (feline syncytium-forming virus is often isolated); often co-infected with FeLV; radiographically = erosive disease

129
Q

What is the most common inflammatory joint disease of large animals?

A

Septic joint

130
Q

Why is it useful to radiograph affected joints and potentially other body parts (e.g., thorax, abdomen) in a dog that has an inflammatory polyarthropathy?

A

Radiograph joint to assess erosive or non-erosive (differential list changes).

Radiograph other parts to see if there is an inciting cause (pneumonia, neoplasia etc).

131
Q

Synovial fluid was collected from the swollen left carpus of a 6 year old mixed breed dog that
was febrile, had a stiff, stilted posture, and was reluctant to walk. The results are summarized
below:
Color/clarity: colorless/slightly cloudy
Protein: 4.0 g/dL
Viscosity: moderately decreased
Nucleated cells: 25,000/mL, predominantly mature, nondegenerate, windrowing
neutrophils
The above results are best interpreted as
A. Within normal limits
B. Consistent with non-inflammatory joint disease; considerations include DJD, neoplasia,
trauma, hemarthrosis
C. Consistent with inflammatory joint disease; considerations include infectious, immunologic
(nonerosive vs. erosive), nonimmunologic causes

A

C

132
Q

Normal nucleated cell counts of synovial fluid from most species, dog, cats, cattle

A

Most species: <500 cells/uL
Dogs: <3000
Cats: <1000
Cattle: <1000

133
Q

Respiratory washes are typically most useful for what type of infiltrate?
a. Interstitial disease (interstitial pattern)

b. Peribronchial infiltrate (bronchial/alveolar pattern)
c. Nodular disease (mass)

A

B. Peribronchial infiltrate

134
Q

Why is it important to make slides at time of collection with fluid samples?

A

Cells absorb water, swell, and lyse with time – altered morphology

135
Q

What is the preferred additive for preserving respiratory wash samples during transport >24 hours?

A

Serum

136
Q

List differentials for following types of respiratory wash samples:
Neutrophilic
Mixed
Eosinophilic
Hemorrhagic

A

Neutrophilic: septic or non-septic – tissue irritation/necrosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome, inflammatory airway disease, neoplasia

Mixed: persistent infection/inflammation (bronchitis, recurrent airway obstruction, fungal/protozoal sepsis, viral), foreign material, lipid pneumonia

Eosinophilic: allergic/hypersensitivity, parasitic, eosinophilic
bronchopneumopathy, lymphatoid granulomatosis, inflammatory airway disease

Hemorrhagic: EIPH, asthma, trauma, coagulopathy, thromboembolism, neoplasia

137
Q

What are the common tumors of small animal eyelids?

A

Meibomian gland adenoma, sebaceous epithelioma

138
Q

Which species are affected by:
Ocular Chlamydiosis?
Viral conjunctivitis? What type of inflammation?
Eosinophilic conjunctivitis/keratitis?

A

Ocular Chlamydiosis?
Cats, horses, guinea pigs

Viral conjunctivitis? What type of inflammation?
Feline herpes, canine distemper, equine adenovirus; lymphocytic/plasmacytic → neutrophilic with chronicity

Eosinophilic conjunctivitis/keratitis? What cells types may be present?
Cats, horses; may see mast cells

139
Q

What cells types may be present with eosinophilic conjunctivitis/keratitis?

A

Eosinophils

Mast cells

140
Q

Which species more commonly are affected by squamous cell carcinoma of the cornea?

A

Horses

141
Q

Normal leukocyte count for CSF samples

A

< 5 WBC/uL

0 RBC/uL

142
Q

True or False - CNS disease causes consistent changes to CSF that are reproducible from animal to animal and correspond to the specific cause and severity of the disease.

A

False

143
Q

What specific sample handling issues apply to CSF?

A

Process or preserve within 60 min – cells rapidly degrade; preserve with serum

144
Q

When can one observe an increased protein concentration in the CSF, but a normal leukocyte count?

A

Damage to BBB (leakage)

CSF obstruction

Localized tissue damage/necrosis

Infectious/neoplastic etiology for ↑protein production

145
Q

When can one observe an increased percentage of neutrophils in the CSF, but a normal leukocyte count?

A

Early/mild inflammatory disease – IVDD, fracture, severe seizures, CNS necrosis, cervical stenotic myelopathy

146
Q

What is the most common type of pleocytosis seen with the following diseases?

Bacterial infection in CNS of most species (e.g., abscess, meningitis)

Viral infections

Acute alphaviral (EEE, WEE, VEE) infection

Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis (GME)

Aberrant parasitic migration

FIP

Chronic FIP

Necrotizing, nonsuppurative meningoencephalitis of toy breed dogs

Feline polioencephalomyelitis

Meningioma

A

Bacterial infection in CNS of most species (e.g., abscess, meningitis) – neutrophilic

Viral infections – lymphocytic

Acute alphaviral (EEE, WEE, VEE) infection – neutrophilic

Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis (GME) – neutrophilic, mixed

Aberrant parasitic migration – eosinophilic

FIP – neutrophilic

Chronic FIP – mixed cell

Necrotizing, nonsuppurative meningoencephalitis of toy breed dogs – lymphocytic

Feline polioencephalomyelitis – lymphocytic

Meningioma – neutrophilic

147
Q

What are the possible pleocytoses seen with steroid responsive meningitis arteritis (SRMA) in dogs, and which one is most common?

A

Neutrophilic (acute stage), mixed cell (chronic stage

148
Q

In the situations below, which site (AO vs LS) would abnormal CSF tap more likely?

A Dachshund with acute T3 - L3 signs due to intervertebral disc rupture at T13

A

LS – collect fluid caudal to lesion

149
Q

A colorless and clear AO CSF sample was collected from a dog with a history of seizure.
PROTEIN = 50 mg/dL
WBC = 250/µL, predominantly small, well differentiated lymphocytes
The results are best interpreted as
A. Lymphocytic pleocytosis with normal microprotein concentration
B. Within normal limits
C. Lymphocytic pleocytosis with increased microprotein concentration
D. Increased microprotein concentration with normal cell count
E. Increased microprotein concentration with increased neutrophil percentage

A

C. Lymphocytic pleocytosis with increased microprotein concentration

150
Q

The neurologic signs and CSF analysis results are most consistent with which of the following
CNS diseases?
A. A bacterial abscess within the cerebrum
B. Aberrant parasitic migration
C. A fungal infection
D. Rabies, canine distemper, or necrotizing, nonsuppurative meningoencephalitis
E. An extradural compressive lesion, such as IVDD
F. The CSF analysis results are normal; therefore the patient does not have CNS disease

A

D. Rabies, canine distemper, or necrotizing, nonsuppurative meningoencephalitis

Cytodiagnostics (1 decks)

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