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Spinal Anatomy Exam 3 > Study Questions > Flashcards

Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the classifications of scoliosis according to the Scoliosis Research Society? (6) (N.D. ELMS)

A

magnitude, location, direction, etiology, structural scoliosis and non-structural scoliosis

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2
Q

What does magnitude of scoliosis refer to?

A

the length and angle of the curve deviation on x-ray

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3
Q

What is often used to measure the magnitude of scoliosis?

A

the Cobb Method

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4
Q

What does location of scoliosis infer?

A

the location of the vertebral segment forming the apex of the curve deviation

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5
Q

What does direction of scoliosis refer to?

A

the side the convexity of the curve will bend toward

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6
Q

What does etiology of scoliosis mean

A

the cause of the scoliosis

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7
Q

What is structural scoliosis

A

a more radical form of scoliosis, it may worse, associated with structural deformities of the vertebra or intervertebral disc, frequently has a fixed angle of trunk rotation

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8
Q

What is nonstructural scoliosis

A

a mild form of scoliosis, unlikely to worsen, not associated with structural deformities of the vertebra or intervertebral disc and lacks a fixed angle of trunk rotation

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9
Q

What are some of the classifications of scoliosis based on etiology (5)

A

congenital, neuromuscular, neurofibromatosis, nerve root irritation, idiopathic

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10
Q

What is the classification of scoliosis that is unique to the individual patient

A

idiopathic scoliosis

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11
Q

What does idiopathic scoliosis infer

A

the scoliosis is unique to the individual, it has no known cause, unknown etiology

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12
Q

What is the incidence of idiopathic scoliosis in the population

A

1% to 4% of the population

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13
Q

Based on age of onset, what are the types of idiopathic scoliosis (3)

A

infantile, juvenile, and adolescent

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14
Q

What is the age range for infantile idiopathic scoliosis

A

from birth to 3 years old

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15
Q

what is the age range for juvenile idiopathic scoliosis

A

from 3 years old to 10 years old

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16
Q

what is the age range for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis

A

over 10 years old

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17
Q

identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of infantile idiopathic scoliosis

A

left thoracic, male, less than 1% incidence

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18
Q

identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of juvenile idiopathic scoliosis

A

right thoracic, females over 6 years old, and 12%-21% incidence

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19
Q

identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of adolescent idiopathic scoliosis

A

right thoracic or right thoracic AND left lumbar, females, and 80% incidence

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20
Q

what are the transition zones of the vertebral column

A 
occipitocervical
cervicothoracic
thoracolumbar
lumbosacral
sacrococcygeal zones
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21
Q

what are the possible transition zone - segmental combinations

A

cervicalization of occiput, occipitalization of C1
dorsalization of C7, cervicalization of T1
lumbarization of T12, dorsalization of L1
sacralization of L5, dorsalization of S1
coccygealization of S5, sacralization of Co1

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22
Q

what is/are the characteristic(s) of cervicalization of occiput

A

an increase in occipital bone size, formation of new or larger lines, on the occipital bone

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23
Q

what is/are the characteristic(s) of occipitalization of C1

A

the atlas may be partially or completely fused to the occiput

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24
Q

what is another way of implying occipitalization of C1

A

atlas assimilation

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25
Q

what is the incidence of occipitalization of C1

A

0.1 to 0.8%

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26
Q

when do the centers of ossification for the odontoid process first appear

A

during the last trimester in utero

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27
Q

when do the bilateral ossification centers for the odontoid process fuse

A

at or shortly after birth

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28
Q

what joint forms between the odontoid process ossification centers and the centrum of C2

A

the subdental synchondrosis

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29
Q

ossification between the odontoid process and centrum joint of C2 first appears at what age

A

4 years old

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30
Q

a joint between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 is last identified at what age

A

7 years old

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31
Q

what is the name given to the condition in which the joint formed between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 persists beyond age 7?

A

os odontoideum

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32
Q

what is the name given to the joint between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 which is still evident beyond age 7

A

persistent subdental synchondrosis

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33
Q

what is the name given to the joint formed between the tip of the dens and the odontoid process centers of ossification

A

tip of the dens synchondrosis

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34
Q

at what age will the tip of the dens center of ossification appear

A

sometime in early adolescence

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35
Q

at what age will the tip of the dens fuse with the odontoid process

A

before age 12

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36
Q

what is a terminal ossicle

A

a persistence beyond age 12 of the joint formed between the tip of the dens and odontoid process centers of ossification

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37
Q

what is a basilar impression

A

persistence of the nonunion of the basilar and condylar parts of the chondrocranium such that the cartilage deforms due to the weight of the brain

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38
Q

what is a basilar invagination

A

the upper cervical spine appears to be invaginated into the skull on x-ray analysis

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39
Q

what is/are the characteristic(s) of dorsalization of C7

A

the addition of a rib and changes in superior articular facet orientation are typical

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40
Q

what is the incidence of rib-related changes following dorsalization of C7

A

for 0.5 to 2.5% of the population

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41
Q

what is the gender bias suggested in dorsalization of C7

A

female

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42
Q

what percent of the population may demonstrate thoracic-like features at C7

A

up to 46%

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43
Q

what rib-related changes may accompany cervicalization of T1

A

the first rib may decrease in mean relative length or become absent

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44
Q

what will result from fusion of a short rib to the T1 transverse process

A

the transverse foramen

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45
Q

what is the incidence of cervicatlization of T1 in the population

A

up to 28% of the population

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46
Q

what rib-related changes may accompany dorsalization of L1

A

elongated bones shaped like ribs may appear

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47
Q

what is the incidence of lumbar ribs in the population

A

over 7% of the population demonstrates lumbar ribs

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48
Q

what is the gender bias associated with dorsalization of L1

A

males are two to three times more affected

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49
Q

what alteration in C7 facet orientation may accompany dorsalization

A

the superior articular facet of c7 may change from back, upward, and medial to that of a typical thoracic facet…back, upward, and lateral; the inferior articular facet is unchanged

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50
Q

what alteration in c6 facet orientation may accompany dorsalization

A

c6 demonstrates a change in inferior articular facet orientation from forward, lateral, and downward to forward, medial, and downward; the superior articular facet unchanged

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51
Q

what t1 facet orientation changes may accompany cervicalization

A

the superior articular facet may change from back, upward, and lateral to back, upward, and medial; the inferior articular facet is unchanged

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52
Q

what c7 facet orientation changes may accompany cervicalization

A

the inferior articular facet may change from forward, medial, and downward to forward, lateral, and downward; the superior articular facet is unchanged

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53
Q

what l1 facet orientation changes may accompany dorsalization

A

the superior articular facet may change from concave, back, upward, and medial to flat, back, upward, and lateral; the inferior articular facet is unchanged

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54
Q

what t12 orientation changed may accompany dorsalization

A

the inferior articular facet may change from convex, forward, lateral, and downward to flat, forward, medial, and downward; the superior articular facet is unchanged

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55
Q

what rib-related changes may accompany lumbarization of t12

A

a significant shortening of the mean relative length of 113 mm of the 12th rib or it becomes absent

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56
Q

what t12 facet orientation changes may accompany lumbarization

A

the superior articular facet may change from flat, back, upward, and lateral to concave, back, upward, and medial; the inferior articular facet is unchanged

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57
Q

what t11 facet orientation changes may accompany lumbarization

A

the inferior articular facet may change from flat, forward, medial, and downward to convex, forward, lateral, and downward; the superior articular facet is unchanged

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58
Q

what unique characteristics of lumbarization of s1 were stressed in class

A

squaring of the the vertebral body of s1 and flaring of the sacral ala

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59
Q

what is characteristic of sacralization of l5

A

l5 may be partially or completely fused to the sacrum

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60
Q

what is the incidence of sacralization of l5 in the population

A

41 to 85%

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61
Q

which segment demonstrates the greatest morphological variation along the spine

A

l5

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62
Q

what is the incidence of variation within the sacrococcygeal region in the population

A

up to 14%

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63
Q

what is characteristic of sacralization of co1

A

the premature fusion of co1 to the sacrum

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64
Q

what is squaring of the vertebral body of s1

A

the s1 vertebral body has similar anterior and posterior heights, hence a lack of wedging

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65
Q

what if flaring of the sacral ala

A

the transverse process of the ala appears to elevate as though separating from the rest of the sacral ala

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66
Q

which of the muscles attaching to spinous processes represent layer one of the back

A

trapezius, latissimus dorsi

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67
Q

which of the muscles attaching to spinous processes represent layer two of the true back

A

rhomboid major, rhomboid, minor

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68
Q

which muscles attaching to transverse processes represent layer two of the true back

A

levator scapulae

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69
Q

the trapezius is innervated by what nerve

A

the spinal accessory nerve

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70
Q

what forms the spinal accessory nerve innervating the trapezius

A

c1-c5 cord levels contribute to the spinal root of the spinal accessory nerve

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71
Q

the latissimus dorsi is innervated by what nerve

A

the thoracodorsal nerve

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72
Q

what forms the thoracodorsal nerve innervating the latissimus dorsi

A

ventral rami from c6-c8

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73
Q

which of the muscles of the true back are innervated by the dorsalscapular nerve

A

levator scapulae, rhomboid major, rhomboid minor

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74
Q

what forms the dorsal scapular nerve

A

the ventral ramus of c5

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75
Q

the levator scapulae is innervated by what nerves

A

the dorsal scapular nerve (ventral ramus of c5) and branches from c3, c4 ventral rami

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76
Q

the rhomboid major is innervated by what nerves

A

the dorsal scapular nerve (ventral ramus of c5) and branches from c4 ventral ramus

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77
Q

the rhomboid minor is innervated by what nerves

A

the dorsal scapular nerve (ventral ramus of c5) and branches from c4 ventral ramus

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78
Q

what muscles lie just beneath the trapezius in the neck

A

splenius capitis and splenius cervicis

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79
Q

what does the word ‘splenius’ mean

A

it is the Greek word for bandage

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80
Q

what part of the vertebra forms the osseous origin for the splenius muscles

A

the spinous process

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81
Q

what is the innervation of the splenius capitis

A

dorsal rami of middle cervical spinal nerves (c3-c5 cord levels)`

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82
Q

splenius cervicis will attach to what locations on the spine

A

lateral mass of c1 and posterior tubercle of transverse process on c1-c4

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83
Q

what is the innervation of the splenius cervicis

A

dorsal rami of lower cervical spinal nerves (c5-c7 cord levels)

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84
Q

which muscles represent the fourth layer of the true back

A

the erector spinae or sacrospinalis muscles

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85
Q

which muscles are identified as erector spinae or sacrospinalis muscles

A

iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis

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86
Q

what osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the iliocostalis lumborum

A

spinous processes of t11-t12, l1-l5, median sacral crest, lateral sacral crest

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87
Q

what is the insertion for the iliocostalis lumborum

A

costal angles of the lower 6-9 ribs (rib 6-rib 12 or rib 3-rib 12)

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88
Q

what is the innervation of the iliocostalis lumborum

A

dorsal rami of lower thoracic and all lumbar spinal nerves

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89
Q

which subdivision of the iliocostalis muscle appears to have a reversal of origin-insertion

A

iliocostalis lumborum pars lumborum

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90
Q

what osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the iliocostalis thoracis

A

none

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91
Q

what osseous part of the vertebral column serves as an insertion for the iliocostalis thoracis

A

transverse process of c7

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92
Q

which subdivision of the iliocostalis primarily originates and inserts on the ribs

A

iliocostalis thoracis

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93
Q

what is the innervation of the iliocostalis thoracis

A

dorsal rami of upper 6 thoracic spinal nerves (t1-t6 cord levels)

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94
Q

what osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the iliocostalis cervicis

A

none

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95
Q

what is the innervation of the iliocostalis cervicis

A

dorsal rami of t1, t2 spinal nerves, sometimes c8 spinal nerve (c8, t1, and t2 cord levels)

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96
Q

what osseous part of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the longissimus thoracis

A

accessory process and transverse processes of l1-l5, spinous processes of l3-l5 and median sacral crest s1-s3

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97
Q

which erector spinae muscle is attached to the accessory processy

A

longissimus thoracis

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98
Q

what is the innervation of the longissimus thoracis

A

dorsal rami of all thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves (cord levels t1-t12, l1-l5)

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99
Q

what ossesous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the longissimus thoracis pars lumborum

A

accessory process and medial part of transverse process of l1-l5

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100
Q

what is the insertion for the longissimus thoracis pars lumborum

A

posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) of the innominate bone

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101
Q

which subdivision of the longissimus muscle appears to have a reversal of origin-insertion

A

longissimus thoracis pars lumborum

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102
Q

what is the innervation of the longissimus cervicis

A

dorsal rami of c4-c8 and t1-t2 spinal nerves (c4-c8 and t1-t2 cord levels)

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103
Q

what is the innervation of the longissimus capitis

A

dorsal rami of c1-c3 or c4 spinal nerves (c1-c3 or c4 cord levels)

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104
Q

which erector spinae muscles attach to cervical articular processes

A

longissimus cervicis and longissimus capitis

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105
Q

what is the innervation of the spinalis thoracis

A

dorsal rami of all thoracic and upper lumbar spinal nerves

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106
Q

what is the innervation of the spinalis cervicis

A

dorsal rami of all cervical spinal nerves (c1-c8 cord levels)

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107
Q

what is the innervation of the spinalis capitis

A

dorsal rami of lower cervical and upper thoracic spinal nerves

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108
Q

which muscles are identified as transversospinalis muscles

A

semispinalis, multifidis, and rotators

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109
Q

based on the name of this group, what is the origin-insertion of the transversospinalis

A

transerve process origin, spinous process insertion

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110
Q

how many vertebrae can be attached to a single segment by the transversospinalis muscles

A

as many as nine vertebrae

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111
Q

what segment will represent the lowest attachment site for the semispinalis thoracis

A

t12

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112
Q

what is the innervation of the semispinalis thoracis

A

dorsal rami of t1-t6 spinal nerves (cord levels t1-t6)

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113
Q

what osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the semispinalis cervicis

A

transverse tubercles of t1-t5 or t6 and articular processes of c4-c7

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114
Q

what is the innervation of the semispinalis cervicis

A

dorsal rami of c6-c8 spinal nerves (cord levels c6-c8)

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115
Q

what ossesous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the semispinalis capitis

A

transverse tubercles of c7, t1-t6 or t7 and articular processes of c4-c6

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116
Q

what is the innervation of the semispinalis capitis

A

dorsal rami of c1-c6 spinal nerves (cord levels c1-c6)

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117
Q

the biventer cervicis is formed by the fusion of what muscles

A

semispinalis capitis and spinalis capitis

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118
Q

what regional subdivisions are now identified with multifidis muscles

A

lumbar multifidis, thoracic multifidis and cervical multifidus

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119
Q

which transversospinalis muscle attaches to articular and mammillary processes along the spine

A

multifidis

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120
Q

what is the innervation of the classic multifidis

A

dorsal rami of c3-c8, t1-t12, l1-l5 and s1 spinal nerves (same cord levels)

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121
Q

contraction of multifidis cervicis will result in what movements (3)

A

alters the zygaphphyseal capsular ligament response to load distribution

determines the cervical spine response to injury as evidenced by neck pain

is a significant contributor to postural control of the head and neck

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122
Q

which subdivision of multifidis may demonstrate a reversal of origin-insertion

A

multifidis lumborum

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123
Q

contraction of multifidis lumborum will result in what movements (3)

A

lateral flexion and rotation of the lumbar spine

maintaining of the lumbar lordotic curve

prevents entrapment of lumbar zygapophyseal capsular ligament during movement

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124
Q

which muscles of the spine exhibit a reversal of the expected origin-insertion combination

A

iliocostalis lumborum pars lumborum, longissimus thoracic pars lumborum and multifidis lumborum

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125
Q

what will replace muscles spanning one or two segmental levels in the cervicals and lumbars

A

deep layers of the multifidis

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126
Q

which suboccipital muscle lacks an attachment to the skull

A

obliquus capitis inferior

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127
Q

which nerve will innervate all suboccipital muscles

A

the dorsal ramus of c1, the suboccipital nerve

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128
Q

what is the origin of the obliquus capitis inferior

A

c2 spinous process and lamina

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129
Q

what is the insertion of the obliquus capitis inferior

A

transverse process of c1

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130
Q

contraction of obliquus capitis inferior will result in what movement

A

turns the face to the side

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131
Q

an increase in the density of muscle spindles is most apparent in which suboccipital muscle

A

obliquus capitis inferior

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132
Q

suboccipital muscle feedback relays to what additional locations in the brain

A

extraocular nuclei of origin, primary visual cortex and vestibular nuclei

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133
Q

what is the result of communication between suboccipital muscles, visual centers and vestibular centers

A

coordination of head and eye position

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134
Q

what is the proposed function of the suboccipital muscle group

A

postural stabilizers of the atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial joints

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135
Q

which suboccipital muscles are known to attach to dura mater

A

rrectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor and obliquus capitis inferior

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136
Q

interspinalis is paired in which regions of the spine

A

cervical and lumbar regions

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137
Q

based on the density of muscle spindles, what is the proposed function of the interspinalis

A

act as a proprioceptive transducer in conjunction with intertranversarii to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture

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138
Q

intertransversarii are paired in which regions of the spine

A

cervical and lumbar regions

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139
Q

which muscle group is innervated by both dorsal rami and ventral rami of spinal nerves

A

intertransversarii

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140
Q

based on the density of muscle spindles, what is the proposed function of the intertransversarii

A

acts as a proprioceptive transducer in conjunction with interspinalis to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture

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141
Q

what is the origin of the longus colli

A

vertebral bodies of c5-c6, t1-t3 and anterior tubercles of transverse processes c3-c5

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142
Q

what will innervate the longus colli

A

ventral rami of c2-c6 or c7 spinal nerves

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143
Q

what is the insertion of the longus capitis

A

basilar part of the occipital bone

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144
Q

what will innervate the longus capitis

A

the ventral rami of c1-c3 spinal nerves

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145
Q

what is the origin of the rectus capitis anterior

A

lateral mass and costal element of the transverse process of c1

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146
Q

what will innervate the rectus capitis anterior

A

ventral rami of c1-c2 spinal nerves

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147
Q

what is the insertion of the rectus capitis lateralis

A

jugular process of the occipital bone

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148
Q

what will innervate the rectus capitis lateralis

A

ventral rami of c1-c2 spinal nerves

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149
Q

what is the insertion of the anterior scalene

A

ridge and anterior scalene tubercle of the first rib

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150
Q

what will innervate the anterior scalene

A

the ventral rami of c2-c6 spinal nerves

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151
Q

what is the insertion of the middle scalene

A

between the tubercle and groove for the subclavian artery on the first rib

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152
Q

contraction of middle scalene will result n what movements

A

laterally flex the neck; elevate the first rib

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153
Q

what will innervate the middle scalene

A

the ventral rami of c3-c8 spinal nerves

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154
Q

what will innervate the posterior scalene

A

the ventral rami of c6-c8 spinal nerves

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155
Q

the quadratus lumborum is implicated in the formation of which ligament

A

the iliolumbar ligament

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156
Q

what osseous part of the vertebral column serves as an origin to the quadratus lumborum

A

transverse process of l5

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157
Q

what will innervate the quadratus lumborum

A

the ventral rami of t12 and l1-l3 or l4 spinal nerves

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158
Q

what is the origin of the psoas major

A

vertebral bodies t12, l1-l5, s1 and transverse processes of l1-l5

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159
Q

what will innervate the psoas major

A

primarily the ventral rami of l2 and l3, may include ventral rami of l1 and l4 spinal nerves

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160
Q

what is the origin of the psoas minor

A

vertebral bodies t12, l1

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161
Q

what will innervate the psoas minor

A

the ventral ramus of l1 spinal nerve

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162
Q

what will innervate the iliacus

A

the femoral nerve, primarily the ventral rami of l2 and l3

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163
Q

what will innervate the levator costarum brevis

A

the dorsal rami of t1-t12 spinal nerves

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164
Q

what will innervate the levator costarum longus

A

the dorsal rami of the lower thoracic spinal nerves

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165
Q

what will innervate the serratus posterior superior

A

the ventral rami of t2-t5 spinal nerves…intercostal nerves

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166
Q

what will innervate the serratus posterior inferior

A

the ventral rami of t9-t11 (the intercostal nerves) and the ventral ramus of t12 (the subcostal nerve)

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167
Q

the ligamentous sacro-iliac joints (or most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column) are examples of which joint classification

A

syndesmosis

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168
Q

what are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

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169
Q

what is the generic function of ligaments

A

stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint

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170
Q

what are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

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171
Q

what are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors

A

located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

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172
Q

what are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

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173
Q

what is the function of type 4 articular receptors

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

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174
Q

type 4a articular receptors would be present in what locations

A

fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels

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175
Q

type 4b articular receptors would be present in what locations

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

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176
Q

what are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane

A

synovial villi

articular fat pads or Haversian glands

synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

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177
Q

what is the apparent function of synovial villi

A

increase the surface of synovial membrane available for secretion-absorption phenomena

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178
Q

articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column

A

lumbar zygapophyses

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179
Q

what is the unique name of the inner or luminal layer of the synovial membrane

A

synovial lamina intima

180
Q

what is the specific function of type b synovial cells

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

181
Q

which collagen fiber type predominates in articular cartilage

A

type 2

182
Q

what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage

A

form a network for water retention

183
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties

A

cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

184
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

185
Q

what are the properties of synovial fluid

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

186
Q

what is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)

A

within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus

187
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial

A

plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

188
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joint would be classified as uniaxial

A

hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

189
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

190
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial

A

ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis, diarthrosis spheroidal, diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications given to the same type of joint

191
Q

diarthrosis ginglymus joints are commonly called _______ joints based on action

A

synovial hinge

192
Q

diarthrosis trochoid joints are commonly called ______ joints based on action

A

syonival pivot

193
Q

what are the common ligaments of the vertebral column

A

those ligaments commonly found between vertebral couples from c2/c3 to l4/l5

194
Q

what is the maximum number of common ligaments identified with a vertebral couple

A

8

195
Q

what is the reason the nine common ligaments are identified but only eight will be attached at any specific vertebral couple

A

the ligamentum nuchae and supraspinous ligaments attach to the spinous tubercles, but only one of these will be identified at a single vertebral couple

196
Q

in the fetus, which vertebral levels will demonstrate intervertebral discs

A

those between c2 and co1 exclusively

197
Q

what is the number of true intervertebral discs identified in the adult

A

23

198
Q

in the adult, which vertebral levels will demonstrate a true intervertebral disc

A

those between c2 and s1 inclusive

199
Q

what is the percent of intervertebral disc height contribution to the length of each region of the vertebral column

A

cervical - 22-25%

thoracic - 20%

lumbar - 33%

200
Q

what is the effect of aging on the intervertebral disc nucleus pulposus

A

it becomes more fibrous as water and proteoglycan concentrations diminish

201
Q

what is the cervical nucleus polposus composed of

A

fibrocartilage

202
Q

what is the consequence of non-aggregated glycosaminoglycans in the lumbar nucleus pulposus

A

the nucleus pulposus will lose water under deformation conditions

203
Q

what cell is associated with the nucleus pulposus until about age eleven

A

notochord cells

204
Q

which type of collagen is dominant in the nucleus pulposus

A

collagen type 2

205
Q

what is unusual about the cervical annulus fibrosus

A

it lacks any lamellar or layered organization

206
Q

what is the appearance of the cervical annulus fibrosus

A

a horse-shoe with the anterior margin thick and the lateral margins tapering to the uncinated processes; the posterior margin is thin

207
Q

what is the organization of the lumbar annulus fibrosus

A

it has 12-14 concentric cylindrical lamellae

208
Q

what is the consequence of aggregated glycosaminoglycans in the lumbar annulus fibrosus

A

the annulus fibrosus will retain water under deformation conditions

209
Q

which type of collagen is dominant in the annulus fibrosus

A

collagen type 1

210
Q

what is the organizational pattern for collagen fibers in the annulus fibrosus

A

they are parallel with one another in a single lamellus and angled

211
Q

what is the organization of collagen fibers between lamellae

A

collagen fibers will be angled in the opposite direction such that a spiral-counterspiral organization is observed

212
Q

what is the average angle of collagen fibers within the annulus fibrosus

A

50 to 60 degrees

213
Q

what is the principal type of collagen fiber within the cartilage end plate

A

the type 2 collagen fiber

214
Q

what is the direction of collagen fibers within the cartilage end plate

A

collagen fibers are aligned anterior to posterior

215
Q

what cell type is associated with the cartilage end plate

A

chondrocytes

216
Q

what is the earliest indicator of intervertebral disc pathology or degeneration

A

changes in the histology of the cartilage end plate

217
Q

what part of the intervertebral disc is the ‘growth plate’

A

the transition zone

218
Q

what part of the intervertebral disc is innervated

A

the outer lamellae of the annulus fibrosus

219
Q

what part of the cervical intervertebral disc is highly innervated

A

the middle third of the annulus fibrosus

220
Q

what is the relationship between size of the intervertebral disc and receptor endings

A

the larger the disc, the greater the variety of receptor endings

221
Q

what is the proposed function of receptor ending density in the anterior part of the intervertebral disc

A

they provide feedback during extension

222
Q

what forms the posterior neural plexus of the vertebral column

A

the sinu-vertebral nerve (sinus vertebral nerve, recurrent meningeal nerve)

223
Q

what forms the anterior neural plexus of the vertebral column

A

fibers from the ventral primary ramus

224
Q

what is the name given to the white ramus communicans which becomes embedded within the annulus fibrosus of the intervertebraldisc

A

the paradiscal ramus communicans

225
Q

what innervates the outer lamellae of the annulus fibrosus at the lateral part of the intervertebral disc

A

fibers from the ventral primary ramus

fibers from the white ramus communicans

fibers from the paradiscal ramus communicans

fibers from the gray ramus communicans

226
Q

what structure is formed following migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord

A

the perichordal blastema

227
Q

what is formed wihin the perichordal blastemal between the sclerotomites

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner

228
Q

what does the intrasclerotomal fissure of von Ebner become

A

the perichordal disc

229
Q

what part of the intervertebral disc will the notochord form

A

the nucleus pulposus

230
Q

what part of the intervertebral disc will the peridchordal disc form

A

the annulus pulposus

231
Q

what is the earliest indicator of the position of the adult intervertebral disc

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure of fissure of von Ebner

232
Q

what will the ligamenetum nuchae be attached to

A

the external occipital protuberance

external occipital crest

posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of c1

spinous tubercles between c2 and c7 inclusive

233
Q

what is the name given to the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae

A

the funicular layer or part

234
Q

what is the name given to the deep layer of the ligamentum nuchae

A

the lamellar layer or part

235
Q

what are the attachment sites for the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae

A

external occipital protuberance

external occipital crest

spinous tubercle c7

236
Q

what is the histological make-up of the ligamentum nuchae in quadrupeds

A

it is a yellow elastic ligament

237
Q

what is the primary yellow elastic or elastic ligament of the spine

A

the ligamentum flavum

238
Q

what will the supraspinous ligament be attached to

A

the spinous tubercles along the vertebral from c7 to sacrum

239
Q

what is the termination level inferiorly for the supraspinous ligament according to current literature

A

primarily at L4 (73%); between L4 and L5 (5%)

240
Q

where is the supraspinous ligament said to be best developed

A

in the lumbar spine

241
Q

what is now thought to be a major function of the supraspinous ligament

A

it is a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

242
Q

what will the intertransverse ligament be attached to

A

the transverse tubercles and transverse processes of adjacent vertebrae along the vertebral column from C1 to L5

243
Q

what is the status of the cervical intertransverse ligament

A

it is said to be paired with an anterior and a posterior intertransverse ligament present

244
Q

what is the status of the lumbar intertransverse ligament

A

it is well developed with two parts identified; a ventral slips and a dorsal slip

245
Q

what part of the lumbar intertransverse ligament covers the intervertebral foramen

A

the ventral slip

246
Q

what part of the intertransverse ligament in the lumbar spine divides the body wall into an anterior muscular compartment and a posterior muscular compartment

A

the dorsal slip

247
Q

what are the attachment sites of the anterior atlanto-occipital ligament

A

it is attached to the upper margin of the anterior arch of c1 and to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum

248
Q

what is the median thickening of the anterior atlanto-occipital ligament called

A

the anterior longitudinal ligmanet

249
Q

what is the classic function of the anterior atlanto-occipital ligament

A

it brakes or limits ‘extension’ of the skull over the cervical spine

250
Q

what is the classic function of the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament

A

it brakes or limits axial rotation, flexion, and perhaps lateral bending of the skull on atlas

251
Q

what amount of flexion-extension is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint

A

about 25 degrees

252
Q

what amount of axial rotation is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint

A

about three to eight degrees one side axial rotation

253
Q

what amount of lateral bending is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint

A

about five degrees

254
Q

which motion is best accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint

A

flexion-extension

255
Q

what are the joint surfaces of the median atlanto-axia joint at the anterior bursa

A

the fovea dentis of c1 and the facet for fovea dentis of c2

256
Q

what are the joint surfaces of the median atlanto-axial joint at the posterior bursa

A

the groove for the transverse atlantal ligament of c2 and the transverse atlantal ligmanent

257
Q

what ligament is formed by the transverse atlantal ligament and its perpendicular extensions

A

the cruciate ligament or cruciform ligament

258
Q

what is the function of the transverse atlantal ligament

A

it is the primary stabilizer of the atlanto-axial joint; restricting the distance of c2 from the anterior arch of c1

259
Q

what is the ADI

A

the ATLANTO-DENTAL INTERSPACE, a radiographic distance between the surfaces of the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint

260
Q

what is the ADI of children compared with that of adults

A

about 4.5 mm in children; a range of 2-3 mm or about 2.5 mm in adults

261
Q

what are the characteristics of the capsular ligament of the lateral atlanto-axial joint

A

it is lax or loose and demonstrates a meniscoidal fold within the joint cavity

262
Q

where is the accessory atlanto-axial ligament observed

A

anterior to the membrane tectoria/tectorial membrane

263
Q

what are the attachment sites for the accessory atlanto-axial ligament

A

the base of the odontoid process and vertebral body of axis to the tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament on the lateral mass of c1; a superior continuation may attach on the occipital bone just behind that of the alar ligament

264
Q

what ligament forms the posterior boundary of the spinal canal at the c1/c2 vertebral couple

A

the posterior atlanto-axial ligament

265
Q

what are the degrees of movement facilitated at the atlanto-axial joint

A

about 20 degree flexion-extension
40 degrees one side axial rotation
5 degrees of lateral bending

266
Q

the occiput-c1-c2 joint complex accounts for what percent of all cervical axial rotation

A

about 60%

267
Q

what name is given to the occipital-c2 region of the spine

A

the craniovertebral junction

268
Q

what ligaments are present at the occipito-axial joint

A

the apical ligament of the dens/apicodental ligament
alar ligaments
mebrana tectoria/tectorial membrane

269
Q

what ligament attaches to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum and the tip of the odontoid process of c2

A

the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament

270
Q

embryologically, what forms the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament

A

the notochord

271
Q

what is the function of the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament

A

it has no known function

272
Q

what ligament attaches to the posterolateral part of the odontoid process of c2 and to surfaces on the medial border of the occipital condyle or as far anterior as the anterolateral margin of the foramen magnum

A

the alar ligament

273
Q

what is the function of the alar ligament

A

together they function to resist axial rotation

274
Q

what forms the cranial continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

the membrana tectoria

275
Q

what ligament is anterior to the dura mater of the medualla oblongata-spinal cord junction

A

the membrana tectoria

276
Q

what is the function of the membrana tectoria

A

it resists flexion and extension of the skull on the upper cervical spine

277
Q

list, in order, the ligaments in a midsagittal plane from the dura mater at the level of the medulla oblongata to the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint

A

membrana tectoria
the cruciate ligament
the capsular ligament of the posterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint
the apical ligament of the dens

278
Q

for the cervical spine below c2, what is the range of flexion-extension

A

about 90 degrees or about 18 degrees per couple

279
Q

for the cervical spine below c2, what is the range of one side lateral bending

A

about 50 degrees or about 10 degrees per couple

280
Q

for the cervical spine below c2, what is the range of one side axial rotation

A

about 33 degrees or about six degrees per couple

281
Q

what are the joint surfaces of the constocentral joint of the first, eleventh and twelfth ribs

A

the superior costal facet on the vertebral body of t1, t11 or t12 and the articular surface of the head of the first, eleventh or twelfth rib

282
Q

an intra-articular ligament will be identified with which ribs

A

ribs 2-9

283
Q

at what rib will the superior costotransverse ligament be absent

A

the first rib

284
Q

what ligaments will attach to the neck of the twelfth rib

A

the superior costotransverse ligament from t11 and the lumbocostal ligament from l1

285
Q

which ribs will have an attachment for the inferior costotransverse ligament

A

rib 1-11

286
Q

what ligament ‘fills’ the costotransverse foramen

A

the inferior costotransverse ligament

287
Q

which vertebrae will have an attachment for the lateral costotransverse ligament

A

t1-t11

288
Q

at what rib will the lateral costotransverse ligament be absent

A

the twelfth rib

289
Q

which vertebral couples of the thoracic spine have the great motion

A

t11/t12 and t12/l1

290
Q

which range of motion is greatest for lower thoracic vertebral couples

A

flexion-extension

291
Q

which range of motion is least for lower thoracic vertebral couples

A

one side axial rotation

292
Q

which ligaments replace the intertransverse ligament at the lumbosacral joint

A

the iliolumbar ligament and lumbosacral ligament

293
Q

what muscle is intimately attached to the superior iliolumbar ligament

A

quadratus lumborum

294
Q

which of the current ligaments from the iliolumbar ligament complex represents the iliolumbar ligament of classical description

A

the superior iliolumbar ligament

295
Q

which ligament from the iliolumbar ligament complex represents the lumbosacral ligament of classical descriptions

A

the inferior iliolumbar ligament

296
Q

which vertebral couple of the lumbar spine has the greatest range of motion

A

l5/s1

297
Q

which range of motion is greatest for all lumbar vertebral couples

A

flexion-extension

298
Q

which range of motion is least for l1-l5 vertebral couples

A

one side axial rotation

299
Q

which range of motion is least for the l5-s1 vertebral couple

A

one side lateral bending

300
Q

what ligament represents the continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament at the sacrococcygeal joint

A

the deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

301
Q

list, in order, from cranial to caudal the ligaments forming the anterior boundary of the spinal canal

A

the membrana tectoria
posterior longitudinal ligament
deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

302
Q

what ligament represents the homolog of the ligamentum flavum at the sacrococcygeal joint

A

the superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

303
Q

list, in order, from cranial to caudal the ligaments forming the posterior boundary of the spinal canal

A

the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament
posterior atlanto-axial ligament
ligamentum flavum
superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

304
Q

which gender has greater unevenness of the auricular surfaces of the sacro-iliac joint

A

males

305
Q

what forms the accessory sacro-iliac joint

A

the sacral tuberosity and the iliac sulcus

306
Q

what pathological or age-related modifications of the sacro-iliac joint may occur

A

degenerative arthrosis and ankylosis

307
Q

what is the age and surface bias associated with degenerative arthrosis of the sacro-iliac joint

A

age 40

the iliac auricular surface

308
Q

what is the age and gender bias associated with ankylosis of the sacro-iliac joint

A

age 50

male (particularly African American males)

309
Q

which is the strongest of the sacro-iliac ligaments

A

the interosseous sacro-iliac ligament

310
Q

what passes between the layers of the interosseous sacro-iliac ligament

A

dorsal rami from the sacral spinal nerves

311
Q

what ligament blends with the lateral border of the long posterior sacro-iliac ligament

A

the sacrotuberous ligament

312
Q

what is formed by the continuation of the sacrotuberous ligament along the ischial ramus

A

the falciform process

313
Q

what seperates the greater sciatic and lesser sciatic foramen

A

the sacrospinous ligament

314
Q

what vertebral levels correspond to the position of the manubrium sterni

A

t3-t4

315
Q

what separates the manubrium sterni and corpus sterni

A

the manubriosternal symphysis

316
Q

what vertebral levels correspond to the position of the corpus sterni

A

t5-t9

317
Q

how many sternabrae form the corpus sterni

A

4 sternabrae

318
Q

what surface feature on the corpus sterni identifies the location of the synchondroses

A

transverse lines

319
Q

what articular sites for the costal cartilage of ribs will be identified on the corpus sterni

A

costal notches 2-7

320
Q

what feature of the corpus sterni is present in 4-7% of the population

A

a sternal foramen

321
Q

what are the primary parts of the vertebral end of a typical rib

A

the head, neck and tubercle

322
Q

what attaches to the crest of the neck of the rib

A

the superior costotransverse ligament

323
Q

what attaches to the non-articular surface of the tubercle of a rib

A

the lateral costotransverse ligament

324
Q

what features may be identified on the body (corpus or shaft) of a typical rib

A

the costal angle and costal groove

325
Q

what attaches to the costal angle of a rib

A

the iliocostalis muscle and thoracolumbar aponeurosis/fascia

326
Q

what attaches to the scalene tubercle of the first rib

A

the anterior scalene muscle

327
Q

which groove on the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is close to the vertebral end

A

the groove for the subclavian artery and the first thoracic nerve

328
Q

which grove on the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is close to the sternal end

A

the groove for the subclavian vein

329
Q

is either the costal angle or costal groove apparent on the first rib

A

neither the costal angle nor the costal groove are apparent on the first rib

330
Q

what does the interarticular ligament of the head of the second rib join to

A

the interarticular crest on the head of the second rib and the interbertebral disc between t1-t2

331
Q

what specifically will attach to the crest of the neck of the second rib

A

the superior costotransverse ligament from the transverse process of t1

332
Q

what specifically attaches to the back of the neck of the second rib

A

the inferior costotransverse ligament from the transverse process of t2

333
Q

what specifically attaches tot he non-articular surface of the tubercle of the second rib

A

the lateral costotransverse ligament from the transverse tubercle of t2

334
Q

what unique feature is present on the body (corpus or shaft) of the second rib

A

the tuberosity for the serratus anterior

335
Q

what features are identified on the body (corpus or shaft) of rib 10

A

the costal angle and the costal groove

336
Q

what features may be present on the body of the eleventh rib

A

the costal angle and costal groove are under-developed

337
Q

what is the condition of the body of rib 12

A

the costal angle and costal groove are absent and it is the shortest of all the ribs

338
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 3-7 in the typical adult skeleton

A

typical, true (costae verae), vertebrosternal

339
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton

A

atypical, true (costae verae), vertebrosternal

340
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton

A

typical, false (costae spuriae), vertebrochondral

341
Q

what are the classifications of rib 10 in the typical adult skeleton

A

atypical, false (costae spuriae), vertebrochondral

342
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 11 and 12 in the typical adult skeleton

A

atypical, false (costae) spuriae), vertebral

343
Q

what are the examples of the typical syndesmosis from the vertebral column

A

most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column and anterior thorax

344
Q

which cartilage joint forms between ossification centers within a cartilage template

A

ampiarthrosis synchondrosis

345
Q

which classification of cartilage joint is primary, temporary and composed of hyaline cartilage

A

ampiarthrosis synchondrosis

346
Q

what are examples of a permanent ampiarthrosis synchondrosis

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

347
Q

which cartilage joint occurs between bones formed by endochondral ossification

A

ampiarthrosis symphysis

348
Q

what are the characteristics of an ampiarthrosis symphysis

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and the occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

349
Q

which ribs demonstrate costochondral joints

A

all 12 ribs

350
Q

what are the joint surfaces of the costochondral joint

A

the costal cartilage with the sternal end of each rib

351
Q

what is the joint classification of the costochondral joint

A

cartilaginous ampiarthrosis synchondrosis

352
Q

what is the sternocostal or sternochondral joint

A

the joint between the costal cartilage and the costal notches of the sternum

353
Q

what ribs will participate in the sternocostal or sternochondral joint

A

rib 1 to rib 7

354
Q

what is the classification of the first sternocostal or sternochondral joint

A

cartilaginous ampiarthrosis synchondrosis

355
Q

what is the classification of the secon-seventh sternocostal or sternochondral joint

A

synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia)

356
Q

which of the sternocostal or sternochondral ligaments is unique to the second sternocostal or sternochondral joint

A

the intra-articular ligament

357
Q

what joint classification is associated with the intra-articular ligament of the second sternocostal or sternochondral joint

A

fibrous ampiarthrosis syndesmosis

358
Q

what is the classification of the sixth through the ninth interchondral joints

A

synovial plane diarthrosis arthrodia

359
Q

what is the classification of the fifth-sixth or ninth-tenth interchondral joint

A

fibrous ampiarthrosis syndesmosis

360
Q

which costal cartilages fail to form a joint at their sternal end

A

the eleventh and twelfth costal cartilges

361
Q

what is the homolog of the intertransverse ligament at the sacrococcygeal joint

A

the lateral sacrococcygeal ligament

362
Q

what is the homolog of the capsular ligament at the sacrococcygeal joint

A

the intercornual ligament

363
Q

what is the auricular surface of sacrum composed of

A

true articular cartilage, a modification of hyaline cartilage

364
Q

what is the auricular surface of the ilium composed of

A

articular cartilage, interspersed with fibrocartilage

365
Q

how many primary centers of ossification appear in the manubrium

A

1-3 centers have been identified

366
Q

how many primary centers of ossification appear in the corpus sterni

A

typically 6

367
Q

what are the locations of the primary centers of ossification in the corpus sterni

A

one in each of the first two sternabrae and bilateral centers in the last two sternabrae

368
Q

in what part of the sternum will a secondary center of ossification appear

A

the xiphoid process

369
Q

in what part of the rib will primary centers of ossification appear

A

the body (corpus, shaft)

370
Q

in what parts of the rib will secondary centers of ossification appear

A

the head, articular surface of the tubercle and the non-articular surface of the tubercle

371
Q

which ribs will demonstrate primary centers of ossification for the body (corpus or shaft)

A

all ribs; ribs 1-12

372
Q

which ribs will demonstrate secondary centers of ossification

A

ribs 1-10

373
Q

how does rib 1 differ in ossification centers from typical ribs

A

rib 1 has two secondary centers of ossification; one for the head and one for the tubercle; typical ribs have three secondary centers of ossfication

374
Q

how do ribs 11 and 12 differ in ossification centers from typical ribs

A

ribs 11 and 12 do not have secondary centers of ossification

375
Q

what are the four sub-classifications of synarthrosis joints based on Latin groupings

A

suture, gomphosis, schindylesis and syndesmosis

376
Q

what are the characteristics of sutura vera (true sutures)

A

sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembranous ossification

377
Q

what are the characteristics of sutura notha (false sutures)

A

sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification

378
Q

which sutures will interlock and overlap at their edges

A

limbous sutures

379
Q

which sutures demonstrate non-interlock, but will overlap at their edges

A

squamous sutures

380
Q

which sutures will neither interlock nor overlap at their edges

A

harmonia sutures

381
Q

what is the classification of a joint with a ‘fissure-like” condition

A

schindylesis

382
Q

what are the typical examples of the plane suture or harmonia suture

A

cruciate suture made up of the intermaxillary, interpalatine and palate-maxillary sutures

383
Q

what are the examples of the gomphosis joint

A

maxilla-root of tooth; mandible-root of tooth

384
Q

what forms a bullet-like chin

A

a large mental protuberance

385
Q

what forms an indented chin

A

well developed bilateral mental tubercles and a slight mental protuberance

386
Q

what is the tip of the external occipital protuberance called

A

the inion

387
Q

what is the name of the linear elevation lateral to the external occipital protuberance

A

superior nuchal line

388
Q

what is the appearance of suture intersections just above the zygomatic arch called

A

the pterion

389
Q

what point on the skull are used to measure the skull size

A

the nasion, vertex, inion and gnathion

390
Q

what points on the skull are used to measure cranial vault capacity

A

the nasion, vertex and inion

391
Q

what is the appearance of the suture intersections over the hard palate called

A

the cruciate or cruciform suture

392
Q

what is the posterior boundary of the anterior cranial fossa

A

a line drawn along the lesser wing of the sphenoid, anterior clinoid processes, and sphenoidal jugum

393
Q

what ostia are observed in the anterior cranial fossa

A

cribriform plate, anterior and posterior ethmoid foramina and foramen cecum

394
Q

what passes through the cribriform plate

A

fila olfactoria of cranial nerve 1, the olfactory nerve

395
Q

what is the posterior boundary of the middle cranial fossa

A

superior border of petrous part of temporal bone, posterior clinoid processes and dorsum sella of sphenoid bone

396
Q

what prominent parts of the brain rest on the middle cranial fossa

A

temporal poles of temporal lobes of cerebrum, hypophysis cerebri, optic chiasma

397
Q

what bony feature is prominent in the median plane of the middle cranial fossa

A

sella turcica

398
Q

which cranial nerves exit the skull via middle cranial fossa ostia

A

cranial nerves 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

399
Q

what are the contents of the optic canal

A

the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

400
Q

what are the contents of the superior orbital fissure

A

the ophthalmic veins, the oculomotor nerve, the trochlear nerve, the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, and the abducent nerve

401
Q

the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa via which opening

A

the foramen rotundum

402
Q

what are the contents of the foramen ovale

A

the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (Vc) and the lesser petrosal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve

403
Q

the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa via which opening

A

the foramen ovale

404
Q

what are the contents of the foramen spinosum

A

the nervus spinosus from the mandibular division of the trigeminal never and the middle meningeal artery

405
Q

what opening allows a branch of cranial nerve Vc to enter the middle cranial fossa from the infratemporal region

A

the foramen spinosum

406
Q

which ostia will not exit the skull from the middle cranial fossa in the living person

A

the foramen lacerum, the hiatus for the greater (superficial) petrosal nerve and the hiatus for the lesser petrosal nerve

407
Q

what forms the roof of the posterior cranial fossa

A

the tentorium cerebelli

408
Q

what part of the central nerve system occupies the posterior cranial fossa

A

the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata

409
Q

which cranial nerves exit posterior cranial fossa ostia

A

cranial nerve 7 (facial), 8 (vestibulocochlear/auditory), 9 (glossopharyngeal), 10 (vagus), 11 (Spinal accessory), and 12 (hypoglossal)

410
Q

meningeal nerves in the foramen magnum are derived from which cord levels

A

c1-c3 cord levels

411
Q

which arteries arise in the posterior cranial fossa and descend through the foramen magnum to supply the spinal cord

A

anterior and posterior spinal arteries

412
Q

what are the contents of the internal acoustic meatus

A

cranial nerves 7 (facial nerve) and 8 (vestibulcochlear/auditory nerve), the nervus intermedius/nerve of Wrisberg/sensory foot of 7 and the motor root of 7, the vestibular and cochlear roots of 8 and the internal auditory/internal labyrinthine artery and vein

413
Q

what are the contents of the jugular foramen

A

the jugular bulb, the inferior petrosal sinus, the tympanic body/tympanic glomus or jugular body/jugular glomus, cranial nerves 9 (glossopharyngeal), 10 (vagus) and 11 (spinal accessory)

414
Q

what can the five layers of the scalp spell

A

SCALP

skin, connective tissue, aponeurosis, loose connective tissue, periosteum

415
Q

what are the principal sources of blood to the scalp

A

internal carotid and external carotid artery branches

416
Q

which divisions of the trigeminal nerve receive sensory information from the scalp

A

all 3 divisions: ophthalmic nerve, maxillary nerve, and mandibular nerve

417
Q

which ventral rami nerve(s) and cord levels of origin supply the scalp

A

greater auricular nerve - c2, c3 ventral rami branches;

lesser occipital nerve - c2, c3 ventral rami branches

418
Q

which dorsal ramus nerve branch (name and cord level of origin) supplies the scalp

A

greater occipital nerve - c2, c3 communicating branch

419
Q

what type of motor fibers to skeletal muscle are given off by the facial nerve

A

branchial efferent (BE)

420
Q

what are the lymph nodes located along the base of the head collectively called

A

collar chain nodes

421
Q

what is the third layer of the scalp associated with

A

muscular component of the scalp

422
Q

what is unusual/unique about the muscles of the face

A

they do not act as lever muscles; they do not attach to bone at both origin and insertion

423
Q

which muscles lack any attachment to bone

A

orbicularis oris, procerus and risorius

424
Q

what is the source of innervation for all muscles of faciaql expression

A

facial nerve branches

425
Q

which divisions of the trigeminal nerve receive sensory information from the face

A

all 3 divisions: ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular

426
Q

what opening(s) are located along the superior wall of the orbit

A

optic canal

427
Q

what is the name given to the medial wall of the orbit

A

lamina papyracea

428
Q

what features may be observed on the medial wall of the orbit

A

lacrimal groove, fossa for the lacrimal sac, anterior ethmoid foramen and posterior ethmoid foramen

429
Q

what opening(s) are located along the lateral wall of the orbit

A

superior orbital fissure

430
Q

what opening(s) are located along the inferior wall of the orbit

A

inferior orbital fissure

431
Q

what is contained in the inferior orbital fissure

A

maxillary division of trigeminal nerve

432
Q

what are the layers of the eyelid

A

skin, orbicularis oculi muscle, tarsal plate/tarsus, palpebral conjunctiva

433
Q

what are the names given to the modified sebaceous gland in the tarsus of the eyelid

A

tarsal or Meibomian gland

434
Q

what is the function of the Meibomian gland

A

produces a thick, hydrophobic substance that prevents tears from overflowing onto the cheeks along the margin of the eyelid

435
Q

what is the ciliary gland

A

the modified sebaceous gland at the base of the eyelash

436
Q

what are the names given to the modified sebaceous glands of the palpebra

A

tarsal gland or Meibomian gland and ciliary duct

437
Q

what is the name given to the inner mucous membrane of the eyelid

A

palpebral conjunctiva

438
Q

which cranial nerves are involved in the Visceral Efferent (VE) parasympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland

A

facial and trigeminal (maxillary and ophthalmic divisions/branches)

439
Q

preganglionic visceral efferent fibers of cranial nerve VII will exit the pons in what nerve

A

nervus intermedius, nerve of Wrisberg, sensory root of facial nerve

440
Q

what are the names of the ganglion of synapse in the efferent pathway to the lacrimal gland

A

pterygopalatine ganglion, sphenopalatine ganglion, Meckel’s ganglion

441
Q

parasympathetic stimulation of blood vessels in the lacrimal gland will result in what events

A

vasodilation of blood vessels, increased availability of water to secretory units, thinner or more watery product in lumen

442
Q

what is the origin for the sympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland

A

lateral horn/intermediolateral cell column T1, T2

443
Q

sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal gland will result in what events

A

vasoconstriction of blood vessels, limited availability of water to secretory units, more viscous or thicker product formed in glandular lumen

444
Q

what are the names of the layers of the eyeball

A

fibrous tunic, uveal tract and retina

445
Q

what are the parts of the fibrous tunic of the eyeball

A

cornea and sclera

446
Q

what are the parts of the uveal tract of the eyeball

A

iris, ciliary body, choroid and pupil

Spinal Anatomy Exam 3 (1 decks)

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