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Security+ > Study Questions (51 - 100) > Flashcards

Study Questions (51 - 100) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a difference between TFTP and FTP?

A. TFTP is slower than FTP.
B. TFTP is more secure than FTP.
C. TFTP utilizes TCP and FTP uses UDP.
D. TFTP utilizes UDP and FTP uses TCP.

A

D

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2
Q

A system administrator decides to use SNMPv3 on the network router in AuthPriv mode. Which of the following algorithm combinations would be valid?

A. AES-RC4
B. 3DES-MD5
C. RSA-DSA
D. SHA1-HMAC

A

B

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3
Q

Which of the following are encryption algorithms that can use a 128-bit key size? (Select TWO).

A. AES
B. RC4
C. Twofish
D. DES
E. SHA2
A

A C

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4
Q

Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?

A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer

A

B

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5
Q

Which of the following specifications would Sara, an administrator, implement as a network access control?

A. 802.1q
B. 802.3
C. 802.11n
D. 802.1x

A

D

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6
Q

Which of the following is characterized by an attacker attempting to map out an organization’s staff hierarchy in order to send targeted emails?

A. Whaling
B. Impersonation
C. Privilege escalation
D. Spear phishing

A

A

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7
Q

Which of the following defines when Pete, an attacker, attempts to monitor wireless traffic in order to perform malicious activities?

A. XSS
B. SQL injection
C. Directory traversal
D. Packet sniffing

A

D

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8
Q

Which of the following provides the MOST protection against zero day attacks via email attachments?

A. Anti-spam
B. Anti-virus
C. Host-based firewalls
D. Patch management

A

A

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9
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely ensure that swap space on a hard disk is encrypted?

A. Database encryption
B. Full disk encryption
C. Folder and file encryption
D. Removable media encryption

A

B

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10
Q

Which of the following access controls enforces permissions based on data labeling at specific levels?

A. Mandatory access control
B. Separation of duties access control
C. Discretionary access control
D. Role based access control

A

A

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11
Q

A username provides which of the following?

A. Biometrics
B. Identification
C. Authorization
D. Authentication

A

B

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12
Q

Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following?

A. Password security
B. Regular auditing
C. Baseline management
D. Individual accountability

A

D

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13
Q

Privilege creep among long-term employees can be mitigated by which of the following procedures?

A. User permission reviews
B. Mandatory vacations
C. Separation of duties
D. Job function rotation

A

A

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14
Q

In which of the following scenarios is PKI LEAST hardened?

A. The CRL is posted to a publicly accessible location.
B. The recorded time offsets are developed with symmetric keys.
C. A malicious CA certificate is loaded on all the clients.
D. All public keys are accessed by an unauthorized user.

A

C

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15
Q

Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the following?

A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI

A

A

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16
Q

Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test that an application’s security controls are in place?

A. Code review
B. Penetration test
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan

A

B

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17
Q

Which of the following would be used to identify the security posture of a network without actually exploiting any weaknesses?

A. Penetration test
B. Code review
C. Vulnerability scan
D. Brute Force scan

A

C

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18
Q

A security administrator has just finished creating a hot site for the company. This implementation relates to which of the following concepts?

A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Succession planning
D. Integrity

A

B

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19
Q

In the initial stages of an incident response, Matt, the security administrator, was provided the hard drives in question from the incident manager. Which of the following incident response procedures would he need to perform in order to begin the analysis? (Select TWO).

A. Take hashes
B. Begin the chain of custody paperwork
C. Take screen shots
D. Capture the system image
E. Decompile suspicious files
A

A D

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20
Q

Which of the following is used to certify intermediate authorities in a large PKI deployment?

A. Root CA
B. Recovery agent
C. Root user
D. Key escrow

A

A

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21
Q

Which of the following components MUST be trusted by all parties in PKI?

A. Key escrow
B. CA
C. Private key
D. Recovery key

A

B

22
Q

Which of the following should Matt, a security administrator, include when encrypting smartphones? (Select TWO).

A. Steganography images
B. Internal memory
C. Master boot records
D. Removable memory cards
E. Public keys
A

B D

23
Q

When checking his webmail, Matt, a user, changes the URL’s string of characters and is able to get into another user’s inbox. This is an example of which of the following?

A. Header manipulation
B. SQL injection
C. XML injection
D. Session hijacking

A

D

24
Q

Elliptic curve cryptography: (Select TWO)

A. is used in both symmetric and asymmetric encryption.
B. is used mostly in symmetric encryption.
C. is mostly used in embedded devices.
D. produces higher strength encryption with shorter keys.
E. is mostly used in hashing algorithms.

A

C D

25
Q

Which of the following is the below pseudo-code an example of?

IF VARIABLE (CONTAINS NUMBERS = TRUE) THEN EXIT

A. Buffer overflow prevention
B. Input validation
C. CSRF prevention
D. Cross-site scripting prevention

A

B

26
Q

Which of the following would an antivirus company use to efficiently capture and analyze new and unknown malicious attacks?

A. Fuzzer
B. IDS
C. Proxy
D. Honeynet

A

D

27
Q

Why is it important for a penetration tester to have established an agreement with management as to which systems and processes are allowed to be tested?

A. Penetration test results are posted publicly, and some systems tested may contain corporate secrets.
B. Penetration testers always need to have a comprehensive list of servers, operating systems, IP subnets, and department personnel prior to ensure a complete test.
C. Having an agreement allows the penetration tester to look for other systems out of scope and test them for threats against the in-scope systems.
D. Some exploits when tested can crash or corrupt a system causing downtime or data loss.

A

D

28
Q

A system administrator is using a packet sniffer to troubleshoot remote authentication. The administrator detects a device trying to communicate to TCP port 49. Which of the following authentication methods is MOST likely being attempted?

A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. LDAP

A

B

29
Q

An administrator wants to minimize the amount of time needed to perform backups during the week. It is also acceptable to the administrator for restoration to take an extended time frame. Which of the following strategies would the administrator MOST likely implement?

A. Full backups on the weekend and incremental during the week
B. Full backups on the weekend and full backups every day
C. Incremental backups on the weekend and differential backups every day
D. Differential backups on the weekend and full backups every day

A

A

30
Q

Which of the following can be used in code signing?

A. AES
B. RC4
C. GPG
D. CHAP

A

C

31
Q

Which of the following can use RC4 for encryption? (Select TWO).

A. CHAP
B. SSL
C. WEP
D. AES
E. 3DES
A

B C

32
Q

Which of the following defines a business goal for system restoration and acceptable data loss?

A. MTTR
B. MTBF
C. RPO
D. Warm site

A

C

33
Q

Which of the following defines an organization goal for acceptable downtime during a disaster or other contingency?

A. MTBF
B. MTTR
C. RTO
D. RPO

A

C

34
Q

If Organization A trusts Organization B and Organization B trusts Organization C, then Organization A trusts Organization C. Which of the following PKI concepts is this describing?

A. Transitive trust
B. Public key trust
C. Certificate authority trust
D. Domain level trust

A

A

35
Q

Which of the following is an attack vector that can cause extensive physical damage to a datacenter without physical access?

A. CCTV system access
B. Dial-up access
C. Changing environmental controls
D. Ping of death

A

C

36
Q

Which of the following concepts is BEST described as developing a new chain of command in the event of a contingency?

A. Business continuity planning
B. Continuity of operations
C. Business impact analysis
D. Succession planning

A

D

37
Q

An ACL placed on which of the following ports would block IMAP traffic?

A. 110
B. 143
C. 389
D. 465

A

B

38
Q

Which of the following provides the HIGHEST level of confidentiality on a wireless network?

A. Disabling SSID broadcast
B. MAC filtering
C. WPA2
D. Packet switching

A

C

39
Q

Which of the following controls should be used to verify a person in charge of payment processing is not colluding with anyone to pay fraudulent invoices?

A. Least privilege
B. Security policy
C. Mandatory vacations
D. Separation of duties

A

C

40
Q

Which of the following allows a company to maintain access to encrypted resources when employee turnover is high?

A. Recovery agent
B. Certificate authority
C. Trust model
D. Key escrow

A

A

41
Q

Which of the following network architecture concepts is used to securely isolate at the boundary between networks?

A. VLAN
B. Subnetting
C. DMZ
D. NAT

A

C

42
Q

In which of the following categories would creating a corporate privacy policy, drafting acceptable use policies, and group based access control be classified?

A. Security control frameworks
B. Best practice
C. Access control methodologies
D. Compliance activity

A

B

43
Q

Which of the following devices is typically used to provide protection at the edge of the network attack surface?

A. Firewall
B. Router
C. Switch
D. VPN concentrator

A

A

44
Q

A malicious program modified entries in the LMHOSTS file of an infected system. Which of the following protocols would have been affected by this?

A. ICMP
B. BGP
C. NetBIOS
D. DNS

A

C

45
Q

In an enterprise environment, which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent users from accessing inappropriate websites when AUP requirements are constantly changing?

A. Deploy a network proxy server.
B. Configure Internet content filters on each workstation.
C. Deploy a NIDS.
D. Deploy a HIPS.

A

A

46
Q

How often, at a MINIMUM, should Sara, an administrator, review the accesses and right of the users on her system?

A. Annually
B. Immediately after an employee is terminated
C. Every five years
D. Every time they patch the server

A

A

47
Q

Matt, an IT security technician, needs to create a way to recover lost or stolen company devices.
Which of the following BEST meets this need?

A. Locking cabinets
B. GPS tracking
C. Safe
D. Firewalls

A

B

48
Q

An IT security technician needs to establish host based security for company workstations. Which of the following will BEST meet this requirement?

A. Implement IIS hardening by restricting service accounts.
B. Implement database hardening by applying vendor guidelines.
C. Implement perimeter firewall rules to restrict access.
D. Implement OS hardening by applying GPOs.

A

D

49
Q

Jane, an IT security technician, receives a call from the vulnerability assessment team informing her that port 1337 is open on a user’s workstation. Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware?

A. Logic bomb
B. Spyware
C. Backdoor
D. Adware

A

C

50
Q

Which of the following is the MOST specific plan for various problems that can arise within a system?

A. Business Continuity Plan
B. Continuity of Operation Plan
C. Disaster Recovery Plan
D. IT Contingency Plan

A

D

Security+ (14 decks)

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