Study notes Flashcards

1
Q

Controlled drug definition

A

Controlled drug means any substance, preparation, mixture, or article specified or described in Schedule 1, Schedule 2, or Schedule 3 to this Act; and includes any controlled drug analogue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Class A/B/C definition

A

Class A/B/C controlled drug means the controlled drugs specified or described in Schedule 1/2/3 to this Act; and includes any controlled drug analogue (C only).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

R v Strawbridge

A

It is not necessary for the Crown to establish knowledge on the part of the accused. In the absence of evidence to the contrary knowledge on her part will be presumed, but if there is some evidence that the accused honestly believed on reasonable grounds that her act was innocent, then she is entitled to be acquitted unless the jury is satisfied beyond reasonable doubt that this was not so.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 things to prove guilty knowledge

A

Knew about … (importation, supply, etc.), and
Knew the … substance was a controlled drug, and
Intended to cause the …

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In realtion to importing, when is someone liable and when does liability cease? / When is importation complete? / What must be proved for importation?

A

Criminal liability arises as soon as the drugs cross NZ’s border, and an importer may therfore be convicted under section 6(1)(a) even if the drugs are intercepted by Customs and never reach the addressee (the intended recipient).

Hoever, the offence does not end at the border; the process of importation continues while the goods are in transit, and only concludes when they have reached their final destination and are available to the consignee.

Anyone who knowingly assists in facilitating the process up until that point may be liable as a party to the importation.

The Crown must prove not only that the defendant’s conduct in some way contributed to the actual importation of the drug, it must also prove the defendant’s guilty knowledge.

Thie will involve proof that the defendant:
- knew about the importation, and
- knew the imported substance was a controlled drug, and
- intended to cause the importation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Wilful blindness

A

In terms of proving guilty knowledge, proof that the defendant deliberately turned a blind eye to the facts will suffice.

In R v Martin the defendant was arrested when she arrived at Auckland airport with over $4 milion worth of cocaine in her suitcase. She cliamed she had no knowledge of the drugs despite the highly suspicous circumstances in which she had obtained the suitcase from Nigerian organised criminals.

In this matter the Judge stated “… it will suffice if the Crown can prove beyond reasonable doube that the accused (importer) had her suspicions aroused as to what she was carrying, but deliberately refrained from making further inquiries or confirming her suspicion because she wanted to remain in ignorance. If that is proved, the law presumes knowledge on the part of the accused. The fault lies in the deliberate failure to inquire when the accused knows there is reason for inquiry”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

R v Rua

A

The words “produce” or “manufacture” in s6(1)(b) broadly cover the creation of controlled drugs by some form of process which changes the original substances into a particular controlled drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Produce vs manufacture

A

To “produce” means to bring something into being, or to bring something into existence from its raw materials or elements.

Manufacturing is the process of synthesis; combining components or processing raw materials to create a new substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is the offence of manufacturing complete?

A

The offence is complete once the prohibited substance is created, whether or not it is in a useable form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cannabis preparations (s29B)

A

Section 29B deals specifically with producing cannabis preparations.

It provides that a cannabis preparation is produced by subjecting cannabis plant to some kind of processing that renders it unrecognisable as plant material – for example, producing cannabis pol or baking a cannabis cake.

It is for the prosecution to prove that the preparation to which the charge relates contains any tetrahydrocannabinols.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Definition of supply

A

Supply includes distribute, give, and sell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Offers to supply or administer - proof

A
  • The communicating of an offer to supply or administer a controlled drug (the actus reus)
  • An intention that the other person believes the offer to be genuine (the mens rea).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

R v During

A

“An offer is an intimation by the person charged to another that he is ready on request to supply to that other drugs of a kind prohibited by the statute”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

R v Brown

A

The defendant is guilty in the following instances:
(1) offers to supply a drug that he has on hand
(2) offers to supply a drug that wil be procured at some future date
(3) offers to supply a drug that he mistakenly believes he can supply
(4) offers to supply a durg deceitfully, kniwng he will not supply that drug

“… the making of such an intimation, with the intention that is should be understood as a genuine offer, is an offence”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Proof of age

A

The best evidence possible in the circumstances should be aduced by the prosecution in proof of the victim’s age.

In practice this generally involves producing the victim’s birth certifiate in conjunction with independent evidence that identifies the victim as the person named in the certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Is it possible to be charged with attempted possession?

A

It is an offence to attempt to gain possession of a drug, a charge which covers someone obtaining something innocuous in the mistaken belief that it is a drug.

In R v Jay the Police found the respondent J in possession of a plastic bag containing plant material. J admitted that he thought it was cannabis and that he had purchased it from another person. On analysis the plant material was found to be hedge clippings.

The Court in this matter held that the commission of the offence of receiving cannabis was not legally impossible, although in the circumstances it was factually impossible. As the respondent had criminal intent and did an act for the purpose of accomplishing his object he was guilty of an attempt to commit an offence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Presumption for supply - LSD, Cannabis, Meth, Cocaine

A

LSD - 2.5 milligrams or 25 flakes, tablets etc.
Cannabis resin and extract (oil) - 5 grams
Cannabis plant - 28 grams or 100 or more cigarettes
Meth - 5 grams
Cocaine - 0.5 grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The presumption that a drug is for sale/supply may be rebutted if the person is able to prove

A

If the person is able to prove, on the balance of probabilities, that they did not intend to commit a ‘dealing’ offence, notwithstanding the amount. For example, the defence may argue that the suspect was heavily addicted and required large amounts for personal use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Conspiracy if done in another country

A

s6(2A) of the MODA75 concerns conspiracy with one or more people to commit drug dealing offences.

Where there is a conspiracy to import controlled drugs into NZ and the agreement or unlawful acts are carried out in foreign territory, there may be a problem regarding jurisdiction.

It will be necessary to prove that the defendant had done something to complete the conspiracy in NZ for the offence to come within the jurisdiction of the NZ courts.

In R v Johnston the Court of Appeal held that the used of the NZ Customs and postal service by the conspirators in posting cannabis resin from England to NZ was sufficient to bring the matter within the jurisdiction of the NZ courts.

R v Greenfield reinforced that the offence of conspiracy turns on the agreement and does not necessitate any further involvement in the commission of the crime. The conspiracy is
complete once the agreement has been made.

In R v Lambert the Court held that there can be a conspiracy between two people, that one
will supply the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Defence to Misuse of Drugs Act 1975, Section 9

A

Misuse of Drugs Act 1975, Section 9(4)
It shall be a defence to a charge under subsection (1) of this section if the person charged proves that the prohibited plant to which the charge relates was of the species Papaver somniferum, and that it was not intended to be a source of any controlled drug or that it was not being developed as a strain from which a controlled drug could be produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ingredients of allowing premises

A

Misuse of Drugs Act 1975, Section 12
Every person commits an offence against this Act who knowingly permits any premises [or any vessel, aircraft, hovercraft, motor vehicle, or other mode of conveyance] to be used for the purpose of the commission of an offence against this Act.

22
Q

Ingredients of obstructs

A

Misuse of Drugs Act 1975, Section 16
Every person commits an offence against this Act who wilfully obstructs, hinders, resists, or deceives any other person in the execution of any powers conferred on that other person by or pursuant to this Act.

23
Q

Difference in obstruction in Summary Offences Act and MODA75

A

The offence of obstruction in the MODA relates specifically to obstructing anyone who is executing powers pursuant to the MODA75.

24
Q

Regulation 11 relating to offering, accepting, disposing of needles and syringes

A

S11 Health (Needles and Syringes) Regulations 1998.
Every person commits an offence who-
(a) Offers to any other person, for use by that other person, a used needle or used syringe; or
(b) Accepts for use a used needle or used syringe; or
(c) Disposes of a needle or syringe in a public place.

25
Q

Ingredients for 12A

A

Misuse of Drugs Act 1975, Section 12A
(1) Every person commits an offence against this Act who supplies, produces, or manufactures-
(a) Any equipment or material that is capable of being used in, or for, the commission of an offence against section 6(1)(b) or section 9; or
(b) Any precursor substance-
Knowing that the equipment, material or substance is to be used in, or for the commission of an offence against those provisions.

(2) Every person commits an offence against this Act who has in his or her possession-
(a) Any equipment or material that is capable of being used in, or for, the commission of an offence against section 6(1)(b) or section 9; or
(b) Any precursor substance with the intention that the equipment, material, or substance is to be used in, or for, the commission of an offence against that provision.

26
Q

Term equipment and 4 examples

A

The term equipment is not defined by statute, but will include the implements, apparatus and other hardware used in the manufacturing, producing or cultivating process.
Examples may include: glassware, condensers, heating mantles etc used in the manufacture of meth; or pots, lights, timers, water pumps etc used in cultivating cannabis.

27
Q

What is a controlled delivery?

A

A controlled delivery occurs when a consignment of illicit drugs is detected often concealed in some other goods, in circumstances making it possible for the delivery of those goods to be made under the control and surveillance of NZ Customs and Police Officers, with a view to identifying and securing evidence against those involved for the importation/exportation.

This could also incorporate couriers caught body packing or travelling with drugs concealed within their luggage.

28
Q

Option 1 & 2 for controlled deliveries

A

A clean controlled delivery, where no drugs are left within the consignment. This eliminates any risk of the drugs being lost but also gives greater freedom in organising the surveillance of the consignment and reduces the risk of alarming the targets who may have arranged counter-surveillance. However, at the termination of the operation only importation and/or conspiracy charges are likely to be filed on those apprehended.

Leave an amount of the drug within the consignment to enable the option of charging an offender with a possession for supply charges and also provides the availability of emergency powers should the drugs move to persons or places that are not covered by search warrants. The remainder of the drugs are substituted. Consequently, any consignment with drugs still in it requires greater security, and recovery on termination is paramount.

29
Q

Who leads the controlled drug delivery operation?

A

Power to undertake a controlled delivery is vested in a Customs Officer only, under s12 of the MODAA78. Police assist Customs when a controlled delivery operation is undertaken.

In the event that the controlled delivery operation is successful Police make the arrest and conduct the prosecution.

30
Q

4 ways controlled deliveries can come about

A
  • International Mail Centre – Inside a mail article
  • International Airport – Arriving courier using either body packing, internal concealment or
    concealed within luggage
  • Imported air freight – Within a freight consignment which can be either commercial or
    private
  • Imported sea freight – As with air freight but arrive via sea
  • Transhipped air or sea freight – Transiting through New Zealand with a final destination in
    another country
  • Arriving commercial vessel – Hidden on board or attached to a vessel that is either unloading or picking up cargo from New Zealand before continuing onto another country
31
Q

4 things to consider with an Observation Post for controlled delivery

A

When you have identified a suitable address, you must profile it by
considering:
* proximity to target address – close enough to be effective, far enough
away to be unobtrusive
* unobstructed line of sight to target address
* access to and from address without arousing suspicion (consider
equipment and staff that will need to discretely enter and leave the
address)
* ability to beam signals and/or tap into Telecom cables (video and audio
interception)
* phone lines available in street
* other conditions relating to the vicinity of the OP, eg parking, schools,
other neighbourhood activities, lighting and animals.

32
Q

Points to consider when profiling the addressee of a controlled delivery

A

Consider:
* previous occupiers
* real person or false name?
* connections to delivery address
* relevant convictions / notings / associations
* travel / connections to country of origin
* bank accounts – large deposits, overseas transfers.
* full identification of target if possible
* photographs (casual / formal / surveillance)
* police intelligence held (NIA, previous investigations, MO section, IMP,
arresting officers)
* suspect’s knowledge surrounding covert enforcement techniques
* suspect’s knowledge / skill surrounding technology (phones, faxes,
computers etc)
* suspect’s travel history including passport holdings
* other agency intelligence held (Fisheries, Customs, Immigration, Internal
Affairs etc)
* financial profile
* family members / associates / vehicles / addresses and places frequented
* general lifestyle (sports and other interests)
* business associations
* tracking device for vehicles – variety of options
* risk assessment – firearms required.

33
Q

Internal search differences

A

Standard of proof
S13A - Reasonable cause to believe (and not arrested)
S23 - Must be under arrested for offences against s6, 7 or 11 of MODA. Constable must have reasonable grounds to believe person has secreted within body any property that may be evidence of the offence with which person is charged or other offence against s6, 7 or 11 MODA (s23(2)(b)).

Class of drugs
S13A - Must be Class A or B.
S23 - Any Class. Arrestable under s6, 7, 11 (i.e. A, B or C).

Search for
S13A - Only Class A or B drugs secreted for unlawful purpose.
S23 - Class A, B or C and any property that may be evidence of offence for which charged,
or property of which possession constitutes offence against s6, 7 or 11.

Who may request?
S13A - Any Constable or Customs Officer.
S23 - Constable.

Who do they request?
S13A - District Court judge for a Detention Warrant.
S23 - Require suspect to permit medical practitioner to conduct internal examination.
Type of medical practitioner

S13A - Approved by Commissioner of Police or Chief Executive of Customs.
S23 - Nominated for the purpose by the constable.

Detention time limit
S13A - 7 days – renewable in periods of 7 days to maximum of 21 days.
S23 - Suspect fails to permit examination and Court satisfied that requirement for internal examination properly made on reasonable grounds. Then Court may decline to consider bail application and order continued detention in Police custody until the earlier of 2 days after day on which internal examination was required or the person permits the examination to occur.

34
Q

Disclosure of evidential transcript at court

A

Analysis of the intercepted communications, (also referred to as ‘sessions’), are painstaking, and require patience, dedication and attention to detail. Each session is carefully analysed and a transcript of all relevant evidence is made. The evidential transcript must be a verbatim copy of the recorded version of the conversation. However, when it is presented to the Court, the recording will be played back in such a manner that extraneous or inadmissible evidence is not disclosed.

35
Q

4 things that must be done in the first 24 hours for O/C phone

A

Trapping or pre loading phone data
TSP liaison
Draft a production order application early
No Search Warrant required for Emergency situations
Analysts
Proving phone ownership

36
Q

Evidential material definition

A

In relation to an offence or a suspected offence, means evidence of the offence, or any other item, tangible or intangible, of relevance to the investigation of the offence.

37
Q

Interception device definition

A

(a) Means any electronic, mechanical, electromagnetic, optical, or electro-optical instrument, apparatus, equipment or other device that is used or is capable of being used to intercept or record a private communication (including a telecommunication); but
(b) Does not include a hearing aid or similar device used to correct subnormal hearing of the user to no better than normal hearing.

38
Q

Requirement for using a surveillance device for interception or trespass

A

A serious offence – an offence punishable by 7 years of imprisonment or more (or against certain sections of the Arms Act).

39
Q

4 times when a surveillance device warrant is required

A

-Use of an interception device to intercept a private communication.
-Use of a tracking device, except where a tracking device is installed solely for the purpose of ascertaining whether a thing has been opened, tampered with, or in some other way dealt with, and the installation of the device does not involve trespass to land or trespass to goods.
-Observation of private activity in private premises, and any recording of that observation, by means of a visual surveillance device.
-Use of a surveillance device that involves trespass to land or trespass to goods.
-Observation of private activity in the curtilage of private premises, and any recording of that observation, if any part of the observation or recording is by means of a visual surveillance device, and the duration of the observation, for the purposes of a single investigation, or a connected series of investigations, exceeds-
-3 hours in any 24-hour period; or
-8 hours in total.

40
Q

How many days can a surveillance warrant be in force?

A

Specify a period up to 60 days for which the warrant may be in force.

41
Q

Does a CHIS have to named in a warrant – legislation s64 Evidence Act or case law R v McGinty

A

Disclosure of the identity of alleged informants was not required under the Act, and the trial Judge was correct in deleting from the application certain parts which would have been likely to lead to the identification of informants. However, the trial Judge was entitled to insist on disclosure if he saw fit.

S64 of the Evidence Act 2006 grants privilege to informers that protects their identity and extends to information that is likely to disclose that identity. It is good practice not to state the name of any CHIS. You are not required by law to name your CHIS. Good practice is for you to use their registered code number. If the application is subsequently disclosed, the informer’s anonymity will be protected.

42
Q

Criteria for a surveillance device warrant

A

S51 Search and Surveillance Act 2012
(a)There are reasonable grounds-
(i)To suspect that an offence has been committed, or is being committed, or will be committed in respect of which this Act or any enactment specified in column 2 of the Schedule authorises the enforcement officer to apply for a warrant to enter premises for the purpose of obtaining evidence about the suspected offence; and
(ii)To believe that the proposed used of the surveillance device will obtain information that is evidential material in respect of the offence; and
(b)The restrictions in s45 do not prevent the issuing of a surveillance device warrant in the circumstances.

43
Q

Definition of an informer

A

Evidence Act 2006
S 64 Informers:
(1) An informer has a privilege in respect of information that would disclose, or is likely to
disclose, the informer’s identity.
(2) A person is an informer for the purposes of this section if the person-
(a) has supplied, gratuitously or for reward, information to an enforcement agency, or to a representative of an enforcement agency, concerning the possible or actual commission of an offence in circumstances in which the person has a reasonable expectation that his or her identity will not be disclosed; and
(b) is not called as a witness by the prosecution to give evidence relating to that information.
(3) An informer may be a member of the police working undercover.

44
Q

4 points for unplanned entry into a clan lab

A

Immediately remove persons of interest from the premises
Isolate the site and maintain a safety perimeter
Preserve the crime scene
Notify their duty Inspector or Duty NCO, contact the NCLRT and where appropriate the local fire service and ambulance
Seek advice from a NCLRT member or the Fire Service about decontamination procedures
Occupants of the address and staff who have entered the address are to remain separated
until decontamination issues have been addressed
Seek medical advice if you experience any adverse effects

45
Q

90 second rule

A

This rule assumes that if offender(s) are present and moving inside the Laboratory then the atmosphere will sustain life. It assumes that the IET (wearing the minimum level of PPE for the IET) may safely enter and extract suspects for a period of up to ninety seconds.

46
Q

Definition of emergency

A

Hazardous Substances & New Organisms Act 1996
135. In this part of this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, emergency means:
(a) Actual or imminent danger to human health or safety; or
(b) A danger to the environment or chattels so significant that immediate action is required
to remove the danger
-arising from a hazardous substance or new organism

47
Q

6 points for large scale commercial cultivation

A

(i) Volume of cannabis found in the defendant’s possession;
(ii) Admissions made by the defendant;
(iii) Intercepted communications;
(iv) Observation evidence, particularly over extended periods;
(v) Significant cash holdings and/or movements;
(vi) Evidence, including records, of proposed and/or actual sales;
(vii) Evidence of an extensive and sophisticated ongoing operation involving regular crop rotation;
(viii) Evidence of extensive crop yields;
(ix) Expected evidence at trial of co-offenders (i.e. taken after plea and sentence), informants or other Crown witnesses

48
Q

S16 of Bail Act

A

s16 Bail Act 2000
A defendant who is charged with or convicted of a drug dealing offence may be granted bail by order of a High Court Judge or District Court Judge but not otherwise.

49
Q

Definition of dealing offence

A

S3 Bail Act 2000
(a) any offence against s6 or 12C(1)(a) of the MODA75 in relation to a Class A controlled
drug or a Class B controlled drug; or
(b) An attempt to commit an offence referred to in paragraph (a)

50
Q

Statutory limitation for drug charges

A

s28(a) allows you to file charging documents at any time for offence of: dealing (s6), cultivating (s9), aiding offences against corresponding law in another country (s10). S28(b) states the limitation period for any other offence against the Act or any regulations made under it, is four years after the date on which the offence was committed.

51
Q

Who proves drug is useable?

A

While it is necessary that the amount of the controlled drug is of a useable quantity, under s29A it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove that fact unless the defendant puts the matter in issue.

52
Q

Three steps for using certificate of analysis instead of calling ESR analyst to give evidence

A

In person to the analyst who is to issue the certificate, or to a person authorised by the analyst to receive it.

By registered post or by courier post with signature required in a sealed package to an employee who has been authorised by the analyst in charge at the laboratory.

s31(3)(a) of the MODA75 says that the defendant must be given a copy of the analyst’s certificate, and written notice that the analyst will not be called, at least seven clear days before the hearing at which it is to be presented as evidence. If they do not wish to accept the certificate as evidence, the defendant has to give notice in writing, at least three days before the hearing, that they wish the analyst to be called as a witness by the prosecution.