Study Hall Flashcards

1
Q

A set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.

A

Acceptance Criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Within the quality management system, accuracy is an assessment of correctness

A

Accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A documented tabulation of schedule activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier, and a sufficiently detailed scope of work description so project team members understand what work is to be performed.

A

Activity List

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The realized cost incurred for work performed on an activity during a specific time period.

A

Actual Cost (AC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A development approach in which the requirements are subject to a high level of uncertainty and volatility and are likely to change throughout the project.

A

Adaptive Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A diagram that shows large numbers of ideas classified into groups for review and analysis.

A

Affinity Diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The process of classifying items into similar categories or collections on the basis of their likeness.

A

Affinity Grouping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A term used to describe a mindset of values and principles as set forth in the Agile Manifesto

A

Agile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A method used to evaluate identified options in order to select the options or approaches to use to perform the work of the project.

A

Alternative Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A state of being unclear, having difficulty in identifying the cause of events, or having multiple options from which to choose.

A

Ambiguity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A method for estimating the duration or cost of an activity or a project using historical data from a similar activity or project.

A

Analogous Estimating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A template, document, output, or project deliverable.

A

Artifact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A factor in the planning process that is considered to be true, real, or certain, without proof or demonstration.

A

Assumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An assessment that ensures assumptions and constraints are integrated into the project plans and documents, and that there is consistency among them.

A

Assumption and Constraint Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A project document used to record all assumptions and constraints throughout the project.

A

Assumption Log

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The right to apply project resources, expend funds, make decisions, or give approvals.

A

Authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An ordered list of work to be done.

A

Backlog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Progressive elaboration of the content in the backlog and (re)prioritization of it to identify the work that can be accomplished in an upcoming iteration.

A

Backlog Refinement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The approved version of a work product, used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

A

Baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Supporting documentation outlining the details used in establishing project estimates such as assumptions, constraints, level of detail, ranges, and confidence levels.

A

Basis of Estimates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The comparison of actual or planned products, processes, and practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.

A

Benchmarking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by a project or program.

A

Benefits Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

All documents used to solicit information, quotations, or proposals from prospective sellers

A

Bid Documents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The meetings with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. Also known as contractor conferences, vendor conferences, or pre-bid conferences

A

Bidder Conference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An obstacle that prevents the team from achieving its objectives. Also known as an impediment

A

Blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The approved estimate for the project or any work breakdown structure (WBS) component or any schedule activity

A

Budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed.

A

Budget at Completion (BAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A graphical representation of the work remaining in a timebox, or the work completed toward the release of a product or project deliverable.

A

Burn Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A value proposition for a proposed project that may include financial and nonfinancial benefits.

A

Business Case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A one-page, visual summary that describes the value proposition, infrastructure, customers, and finances. These are often used in Lean Startup situations.

A

Business Model Canvas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The net quantifiable benefit derived from a business endeavor that may be tangible, intangible, or both.

A

Business Value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A rhythm of activities conducted throughout the project.

A

Cadence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A visual representation that helps trace an undesirable effect back to its root cause.

A

Cause and Effect Diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A modification to any formally controlled deliverable, project management plan component, or project document

A

Change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A process whereby modifications to documents, deliverables, or baselines associated with the project are identified, documented, approved, or rejected

A

Change Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.

A

Change Control Board (CCB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A component of the project management plan that establishes the change control board, documents the extent of its authority, and describes how the change control system will be implemented.

A

Change Control Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A set of procedures that describes how modifications to the project deliverables and documentation are managed and controlled

A

Change Control System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A comprehensive list of changes submitted during the project and their current status

A

Change Log

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A comprehensive, cyclic, and structured approach for transitioning individuals, groups, and organizations from a current state to a future state with intended business benefits.

A

Change Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A formal proposal to modify a document, deliverable, or baseline

A

Change Request

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. Also known as a project charter

A

Charter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A tally sheet that can be used as a checklist when gathering data

A

Check Sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The process(es) performed to formally complete or close a project, phase, or contract

A

Closing Process Group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated

A

Communications Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A characteristic of a program or project or its environment that is difficult to manage due to human behavior, system behavior, and ambiguity

A

Complexity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A type of cognitive bias that confirms preexisting beliefs or hypotheses.

A

Confirmation Bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The degree to which the results meet the set quality requirements.

A

Conformance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A limiting factor that affects the execution of a project, program, portfolio, or process

A

Constraint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

An event or occurrence that could affect the execution of the project, which may be accounted for with a reserve.

A

Contingency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with active response strategies.

A

Contingency Reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The practice of delivering feature increments immediately to customers, often through the use of small batches of work and automation technology

A

Continuous Delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified product, service, or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it.

A

Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The process of comparing actual performance with planned performance, analyzing variances, assessing trends to effect process improvements, evaluating possible alternatives, and recommending appropriate corrective action as needed.

A

Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A graphic display of process data over time and against established control limits, which has a centerline that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values toward either control limit.

A

Control Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

A

Cost Baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A financial analysis method used to determine the benefits provided by a project against its costs.

A

Cost-Benefit Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A component of a project or program management plan that describes how costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.

A

Cost Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

All costs incurred over the life of the product by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements, appraisal of the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failure to meet requirements.

A

Cost of Quality (COQ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost.

A

Cost Performance Index (CPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A category of contract that involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus an award fee representing seller profit.

A

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract) plus a fixed amount of profit (fee).

A

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract), and the seller earns its profit if it meets defined performance criteria.

A

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A type of contract involving payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit.

A

Cost-Reimbursable Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the actual cost.

A

Cost Variance (CV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A method used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources.

A

Crashing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Standards, rules, or tests on which a judgment or decision can be based or by which a product, service, result, or process can be evaluated.

A

Criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible duration.

A

Critical Path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A method used to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of schedule flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule model.

A

Critical Path Method (CPM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A chart indicating features completed over time, features in other states of development, and those in the backlog.

A

Cumulative Flow Diagram (CFD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The total elapsed time from the start of a particular activity or work item to its completion.

A

Cycle Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A diagram that shows the average cycle time of the work items completed over time.

A

Cycle Time Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A brief, daily collaboration meeting in which the team reviews progress from the previous day, declares intentions for the current day, and highlights any obstacles encountered or anticipated.

A

Daily Standup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A set of charts and graphs showing progress or performance against important measures of the project.

A

Dashboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Methods used to collect, assess, and evaluate data and information to gain a deeper understanding of a situation.

A

Data Gathering and Analysis Methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

A diagramming and calculation method for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.

A

Decision Tree Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A method used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts.

A

Decomposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

A checklist of all the criteria required to be met so that a deliverable can be considered ready for customer use.

A

Definition of Done (DoD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project.

A

Deliverable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with delivering the scope and quality that the project was undertaken to achieve.

A

Delivery Performance Domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

A method used to create and evolve the product, service, or result during the project life cycle, such as a predictive, iterative, incremental, agile, or hybrid method

A

Development Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with the development approach, cadence, and life cycle phases of the project.

A

Development Approach and Life Cycle Performance Domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

A collection of practices for creating a smooth flow of deliveries by improving collaboration between development and operations staff.

A

DevOps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A product or service that is delivered, used, and stored in an electronic format.

A

Digital Product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A relationship that is based on best practices or project preferences.

A

Discretionary Dependency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The total number of work periods required to complete an activity or work breakdown structure component, expressed in hours, days, or weeks. Contrast with effort.

A

Duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.

A

Earned Value (EV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

An analysis method that uses a set of measures associated with scope, schedule, and cost to determine the cost and schedule performance of a project.

A

Earned Value Analysis (EVA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The number of labor units required to complete a schedule activity or work breakdown structure component, often expressed in hours, days, or weeks. Contrast with duration.

A

Effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The ability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as well as the collective emotions of groups of people.

A

Emotional Intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Conditions, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project, program, or portfolio.

A

Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

A large, related body of work intended to hierarchically organize a set of requirements and deliver specific business outcomes.

A

Epic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

A quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome of a variable, such as project costs, resources, effort, or durations.

A

Estimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The expected total cost of completing all work expressed as the sum of the actual cost to date and the estimate to complete.

A

Estimate at Completion (EAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The expected cost to finish all the remaining project work.

A

Estimate to Complete (ETC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Methods used to develop an approximation of work, time, or cost on a project.

A

Estimating Methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Those processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project requirements.

A

Executing Process Group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The estimated value of an outcome expressed in monetary terms.

A

Expected Monetary Value (EMV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Knowledge that can be codified using symbols such as words, numbers, and pictures.

A

Explicit Knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

A relationship between project activities and non-project activities.

A

External Dependency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

A schedule compression method in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration.

A

Fast Tracking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

A set of related requirements or functionalities that provides value to an organization.

A

Feature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

A type of fixed-price contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), regardless of the seller’s costs.

A

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

A type of activity where the length of time required to complete the activity remains constant regardless of the number of people or resources assigned to the activity.

A

Fixed Duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

An agreement that sets the fee that will be paid for a defined scope of work regardless of the cost or effort to deliver it.

A

Fixed-Price Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

A type of contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), and the seller can earn an additional amount if the seller meets defined performance criteria.

A

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

A fixed-price contract, but with a special provision allowing for predefined final adjustments to the contract price due to changed conditions, such as inflation changes, or cost increases (or decreases) for specific commodities.

A

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FPEPA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The measure of how efficiently work moves through a given process or framework.

A

Flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The depiction in a diagram format of the inputs, process actions, and outputs of one or more processes within a system.

A

Flowchart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

An estimate or prediction of conditions and events in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast.

A

Forecast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

An estimate of the amount of business functionality in an information system, used to calculate the functional size measurement of a software system.

A

Function Point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

A bar chart of schedule information where activities are listed on the vertical axis, dates are shown on the horizontal axis, and activity durations are shown as horizontal bars placed according to start and finish dates.

A

Gantt Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The framework for directing and enabling an organization through its established policies, practices, and other relevant documentation.

A

Governance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

A category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use but do not share the same requirements for quality.

A

Grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

A chart that begins with high-level information that is progressively decomposed into lower levels of detail.

A

Hierarchy Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

A bar chart that shows the graphical representation of numerical data.

A

Histogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

A combination of two or more agile and nonagile elements, having a nonagile end result.

A

Hybrid Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

A strategic planning method that serves as a visual roadmap for the organization during product development.

A

Impact Mapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

An obstacle that prevents the team from achieving its objectives. Also known as a blocker.

A

Impediment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

An adaptive development approach in which the deliverable is produced successively, adding functionality until the deliverable contains the necessary and sufficient capability to be considered complete.

A

Incremental Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

A contract that provides for an indefinite quantity of goods or services, with a stated lower and upper limit, within a fixed time period.

A

Indefinite Delivery Indefinite Quantity (IDIQ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

A graphical representation of situations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes.

A

Influence Diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

A visible, physical display that provides information to the rest of the organization, enabling timely knowledge sharing.

A

Information Radiator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.

A

Initiating Process Group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

A relationship between two or more project activities.

A

Internal Dependency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Skills used to establish and maintain relationships with other people.

A

Interpersonal Skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

A current condition or situation that may have an impact on the project objectives.

A

Issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

A project document where information about issues is recorded and monitored.

A

Issue Log

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

A timeboxed cycle of development on a product or deliverable in which all of the work that is needed to deliver value is performed.

A

Iteration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

A detailed plan for the current iteration.

A

Iteration Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

A meeting to clarify the details of the backlog items, acceptance criteria, and work effort required to meet an upcoming iteration commitment.

A

Iteration Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

A meeting held at the end of an iteration to demonstrate the work that was accomplished during the iteration.

A

Iteration Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

A development approach that focuses on an initial, simplified implementation then progressively elaborates adding to the feature set until the final deliverable is complete

A

Iterative Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

A visualization tool that shows work in progress to help identify bottlenecks and overcommitments, thereby allowing the team to optimize the workflow.

A

Kanban Board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

A gathering of team members and other key stakeholders at the outset of a project to formally set expectations, gain a common understanding, and commence work.

A

Kickoff Meeting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

A mixture of experience, values and beliefs, contextual information, intuition, and insight that people use to make sense of new experiences and information.

A

Knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

The amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.

A

Lag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

The concept of deferring a decision to allow the team to consider multiple options until the cost of further delay would exceed the benefit.

A

Last Responsible Moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

The amount of time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor activity.

A

Lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

The time between a customer request and the actual delivery.

A

Lead Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

A diagram showing the trend over time of the average lead time of the items completed in work.

A

Lead Time Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

A one-page template designed to communicate a business plan with key stakeholders in an efficient and effective manner.

A

Lean Startup Canvas

143
Q

The knowledge gained during a project, which shows how project events were addressed or should be addressed in the future, for the purpose of improving future performance.

A

Lessons Learned

144
Q

A project document used to record knowledge gained during a project, phase, or iteration so that it can be used to improve future performance for the team and the organization.

A

Lessons Learned Register

145
Q

The series of phases that a project passes through from its start to its completion. Also known as project life cycle.

A

Life Cycle

146
Q

A tool used to evaluate the total environmental impact of a product, process, or system.

A

Life Cycle Assessment (LCA)

147
Q

A document used to record and describe or denote selected items identified during execution of a process or activity. Usually used with a modifier, such as issue, change, or assumption.

A

Log

148
Q

The process of gathering and organizing data about product requirements and analyzing them against available alternatives including the purchase or internal manufacture of the product.

A

Make-or-Buy Analysis

149
Q

An amount of the project budget or project schedule held outside of the performance measurement baseline for management control purposes that is reserved for unforeseen work that is within the project scope.

A

Management Reserve

150
Q

A relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work.

A

Mandatory Dependency

151
Q

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with assessing project performance and taking appropriate actions to maintain acceptable performance.

A

Measurement Performance Domain

152
Q

Measures that characterize physical or functional attributes relating to system operation.

A

Measures of Performance

153
Q

A means for achieving an outcome, output, result, or project deliverable.

A

Method

154
Q

A system of practices, techniques, procedures, and rules used by those who work in a discipline.

A

Methodology

155
Q

A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it.

A

Metric

156
Q

A significant point or event in a project, program, or portfolio.

A

Milestone

157
Q

A type of schedule that presents milestones with planned dates.

A

Milestone Schedule

158
Q

A concept used to define the scope of the first release of a solution to customers by identifying the fewest number of features or requirements that would deliver value.

A

Minimum Viable Product (MVP)

159
Q

Creating simplified representations of systems, solutions, or deliverables, such as prototypes, diagrams, or storyboards.

A

Modeling

160
Q

Collect project performance data, produce performance measures, and report and disseminate performance information.

A

Monitor

161
Q

Those processes required to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate corresponding changes.

A

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

162
Q

A method of identifying the potential impacts of risk and uncertainty using multiple iterations of a computer model to develop a probability distribution of a range of outcomes that could result from a decision or course of action.

A

Monte Carlo Simulation

163
Q

A visualization chart for tracking moods or reactions to identify areas for improvement.

A

Mood Chart

164
Q

A method used to estimate cost or duration by applying an average or weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates.

A

Multipoint Estimating

165
Q

An index that measures the willingness of customers to recommend an organization’s products or services to others.

A

Net Promoter Score

166
Q

A sequence of activities connected by logical relationships in a project schedule network diagram.

A

Network Path

167
Q

Something toward which work is to be directed, a strategic position to be attained, a purpose to be achieved, a result to be obtained, a product to be produced, or a service to be performed.

A

Objective

168
Q

A risk that would have a positive effect on one or more project objectives.

A

Opportunity

169
Q

A hierarchical representation of the project organization, which illustrates the relationship between project activities and the organizational units that will perform those activities.

A

Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

170
Q

Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases that are specific to and used by the performing organization

A

Organizational Process Assets (OPA)

171
Q

Means of receiving information without direct communication by overhearing and through nonverbal cues

A

Osmotic Communication

172
Q

An end result or consequence of a process or project

A

Outcome

173
Q

An estimating method in which an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data and project parameters

A

Parametric Estimating

174
Q

Integrated scope, schedule, and cost baselines used for comparison to manage, measure, and control project execution.

A

Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB)

175
Q

A review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a project or program.

A

Phase Gate

176
Q

A proposed means of accomplishing something.

A

Plan

177
Q

The authorized budget assigned to scheduled work.

A

Planned Value (PV)

178
Q

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with the initial, ongoing, and evolving organization and coordination necessary for delivering project deliverables and results.

A

Planning Performance Domain

179
Q

Those processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve.

A

Planning Process Group

180
Q

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives

A

Portfolio

181
Q

The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.

A

Portfolio Management

182
Q

Within the quality management system, precision is an assessment of exactness

A

Precision

183
Q

A development approach in which the project scope, time, and cost are determined in the early phases of the life cycle

A

Predictive Approach

184
Q

A scatter diagram that plots effort against value so as to classify items by priority

A

Prioritization Matrix

185
Q

Methods used to prioritize portfolio, program, or project components, as well as requirements, risks, features, or other product information

A

Prioritization Schema

186
Q

A method used to develop a range of estimates along with the associated probabilities within that range

A

Probablistic Estimating

187
Q

A grid for mapping the probability of occurrence of each risk and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs

A

Probability and Impact Matrix

188
Q

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside of the performing organization

A

Procurement Management Plan

189
Q

An artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end item in itself or a component item

A

Product

190
Q

A hierarchical structure reflecting a product’s components and deliverables

A

Product Breakdown Structure

191
Q

A series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from concept through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retirement

A

Product Life Cycle

192
Q

The integration of people, data, processes, and business systems to create, maintain, and evolve a product or service throughout its life cycle.

A

Product Management

193
Q

A person responsible for maximizing the value of the product and accountable for the end product

A

Product Owner

194
Q

The features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result.

A

Product Scope

195
Q

Related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated manner to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually

A

Program

196
Q

The application of knowledge, skills, and principles to a program to achieve the program objectives and obtain benefits and control not available by managing program components individually

A

Program Management

197
Q

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available

A

Progressive Elaboration

198
Q

A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

A

Project

199
Q

A high-level overview of the goals, deliverables, and processes for the project

A

Project Brief

200
Q

A calendar that identifies working days and shifts that are available for scheduled activities

A

Project Calendar

201
Q

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

A

Project Charter

202
Q

The framework, functions, and processes that guide project management activities in order to create a unique product, service, or result to meet organizational, strategic, and operational goals

A

Project Governance

203
Q

A person who helps the project team to achieve the project objectives, typically by orchestrating the work of the project

A

Project Lead

204
Q

The series of phases that a project passes through from its start to its completion

A

Project Life Cycle

205
Q

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

A

Project Management

206
Q

A term that describes the knowledge within the profession of project management

A

Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK)

207
Q

A management structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques

A

Project Management Office (PMO)

208
Q

The document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed

A

Project Management Plan

209
Q

A logical grouping of project management inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs. The Project Management Process Groups include Initiating processes, Planning processes, Executing processes, Monitoring and Controlling processes, and Closing processes

A

Project Management Process Group

210
Q

The members of the project team who are directly involved in project management activities

A

Project Management Team

211
Q

The person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives. See also project lead

A

Project Manager

212
Q

A collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables

A

Project Phase

213
Q

An event at the end of a phase or project to assess the status, evaluate the value delivered, and determine if the project is ready to move to the next phase or transition to operations

A

Project Review

214
Q

An output of a schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources

A

Project Schedule

215
Q

A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities

A

Project Schedule Network Diagram

216
Q

The work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions

A

Project Scope

217
Q

The description of the project scope, major deliverables, and exclusions

A

Project Scope Statement

218
Q

A set of individuals performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives

A

Project Team

219
Q

A concise, high-level description of the project that states the purpose and inspires the team to contribute to the project

A

Project Vision Statement

220
Q

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with establishing project processes, managing physical resources, and fostering a learning environment

A

Project Work Performance Domain

221
Q

A working model used to obtain early feedback on the expected product before actually building it

A

Prototype

222
Q

The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements

A

Quality

223
Q

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how applicable policies, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve the quality objectives

A

Quality Management Plan

224
Q

A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it

A

Quality Metrics

225
Q

The basic principles that should govern the organization’s actions as it implements its system for quality management

A

Quality Policy

226
Q

A project document that includes quality management issues, recommendations for corrective actions, and a summary of findings from quality control activities and may include recommendations for process, project, and product improvements

A

Quality Report

227
Q

A written record of regular entries for evolving aspects of a project, such as risks, stakeholders, or defects

A

Register

228
Q

An analytical method where a series of input variables are examined in relation to their corresponding output results in order to develop a mathematical or statistical relationship

A

Regression Analysis

229
Q

Requirements imposed by a governmental body. These requirements can establish product, process, or service characteristics, including applicable administrative provisions that have government-mandated compliance

A

Regulations

230
Q

A method for creating estimates that are derived from performing a comparison against a similar body of work, taking effort, complexity, and uncertainty into consideration

A

Relative Estimating

231
Q

One or more components of one or more products, which are intended to be put into production at the same time

A

Release

232
Q

The plan that sets expectations for the dates, features, and/or outcomes expected to be delivered over the course of multiple iterations

A

Release Plan

233
Q

The process of identifying a high-level plan for releasing or transitioning a product, deliverable, or increment of value

A

Release Planning

234
Q

A formal record or summary of information

A

Report

235
Q

A condition or capability that is necessary to be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need

A

Requirement

236
Q

A record of product requirements and other product information, along with whatever is recorded to manage it

A

Requirements Documentation

237
Q

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed

A

Requirements Management Plan

238
Q

A grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them

A

Requirements Traceability Matrix

239
Q

A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk, often used with a modifier (e.g. management reserve, contingency reserve) to provide further detail on what types of risk are meant to be mitigated)

A

Reserve

240
Q

A method used to evaluate the amount of risk on the project and the amount of schedule and budget reserve to determine whether the reserve is sufficient for the remaining risk

A

Reserve Analysis

241
Q

A hierarchical representation of resources by category and type

A

Resource Breakdown Structure

242
Q

A component of the project management plan that describes how project resources are acquired, allocated, monitored, and controlled

A

Resource Management Plan

243
Q

An assignment that can be delegated within a project management plan such that the assigned resource incurs a duty to perform the requirements of the assignment

A

Responsibility

244
Q

A grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package

A

Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

245
Q

An output from performing project management processes and activities. See also deliverable

A

Result

246
Q

A regularly occurring workshop in which participants explore their work and results in order to improve both the process and product

A

Retrospective

247
Q

Action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications

A

Rework

248
Q

An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives

A

Risk

249
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs

A

Risk Acceptance

250
Q

A backlog that includes product work and actions to address threats and opportunities

A

Risk-Adjusted Backlog

251
Q

The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward

A

Risk Appetite

252
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact

A

Risk Avoidance

253
Q

A hierarchical representation of potential sources of risks

A

Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)

254
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity

A

Risk Enhancement

255
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the team acknowledges that a risk is outside of its sphere of influence and shifts the ownership of the risk to a higher level of the organization where it is more effectively managed

A

Risk Escalation

256
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to ensure that an opportunity occurs

A

Risk Exploiting

257
Q

An aggregate measure of the potential impact of all risks at any given point in time in a project, program, or portfolio

A

Risk Exposure

258
Q

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed

A

Risk Management Plan

259
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to decrease the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat

A

Risk Mitigation

260
Q

A repository in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded

A

Risk Register

261
Q

A project document that summarizes information on individual project risks and the level of overall project risk

A

Risk Report

262
Q

The process of analyzing the status of existing risks and identifying new risks. May also be known as risk reassessment

A

Risk Review

263
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team allocates ownership of an opportunity to a third party who is best able to capture the benefit of that opportunity

A

Risk Sharing

264
Q

The measure of acceptable variation around an objective that reflects the risk appetite of the organization and stakeholders. See also risk appetite

A

Risk Threshold

265
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response

A

Risk Transference

266
Q

A high-level time line that depicts such things as milestones, significant events, reviews, and decision points

A

Roadmap

267
Q

A defined function to be performed by a project team member, such as testing, filing, inspecting, or coding

A

Role

268
Q

An iterative planning method in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level

A

Rolling Wave Planning

269
Q

An analytical method used to determine the basic underlying reason that causes a variance or a defect or a risk

A

Root Cause Analysis

270
Q

A graph that shows the relationship between two variables

A

Scatter Diagram

271
Q

An output of a schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources. Also known as project schedule

A

Schedule

272
Q

The approved version of a schedule model that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results

A

Schedule Baseline

273
Q

A method used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope

A

Schedule Compression

274
Q

Estimates or predictions of conditions and events in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at the time the schedule is calculated

A

Schedule Forecasts

275
Q

A component of the project or program management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule

A

Schedule Management Plan

276
Q

A representation of the plan for executing the project’s activities including durations, dependencies, and other planning information, used to produce a project schedule along with other scheduling artifacts

A

Schedule Model

277
Q

A measure of schedule efficiency expressed as the ratio of earned value to planned value

A

Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

278
Q

A measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the planned value

A

Schedule Variance (SV)

279
Q

The sum of the products, services, and results to be provided as a project. See also project scope and product scope

A

Scope

280
Q

The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results

A

Scope Baseline

281
Q

The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources

A

Scope Creep

282
Q

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated

A

Scope Management Plan

283
Q

A graph that displays cumulative costs over a specified period of time

A

S-Curve

284
Q

A cross-functional team in which people assume leadership as needed to achieve the team’s objective

A

Self-Organizing Team

285
Q

An analysis method to determine which individual project risks or other sources of uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes by correlating variations in project outcomes with variations in elements of a quantitative risk analysis model

A

Sensitivity Analysis

286
Q

The practice of leading the team by focusing on understanding and addressing the needs and development of team members in order to enable the highest possible team performance

A

Servant Leadership

287
Q

An analytical method that models the combined effect of uncertainties to evaluate their potential impact on objectives

A

Simulation

288
Q

An estimating method that involves using data to calculate a single value which reflects a best guess estimate

A

Single-Point Estimating

289
Q

A precise statement of the needs to be satisfied and the essential characteristics that are required

A

Specification

290
Q

A person or group who provides resources and support for the project, program, or portfolio and is accountable for enabling success

A

Sponsor

291
Q

A short time interval within a project during which a usable and potentially releasable increment of the product is created. See also iteration

A

Sprint

292
Q

An individual, group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project, program, or portfolio

A

Stakeholder

293
Q

A method of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project

A

Stakeholder Analysis

294
Q

A matrix that compares current and desired stakeholder engagement levels

A

Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

295
Q

A component of the project management plan that identifies the strategies and actions required to promote productive involvement of stakeholders in project or program decision making and execution

A

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

296
Q

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with stakeholders

A

Stakeholder Performance Domain

297
Q

A project document that includes information about project stakeholders including an assessment and classification of project stakeholders

A

Stakeholder Register

298
Q

A document established by an authority, custom, or general consent as a model or example

A

Standard

299
Q

A narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by the project

A

Statement of Work (SOW)

300
Q

A regularly scheduled meeting to exchange and analyze information about the current progress of the project and its performance

A

Status Meeting

301
Q

A report on the current status of the project

A

Status Report

302
Q

An advisory body of senior stakeholders who provide direction and support for the project team and make decisions outside the project team’s authority

A

Steering Committee

303
Q

A visual model of all the features and functionality desired for a given product, created to give the team a holistic view of what they are building and why

A

Story Map

304
Q

A unit used to estimate the relative level of effort needed to implement a user story

A

Story Point

305
Q

A high-level document that explains an organization’s vision and mission plus the approach that will be adopted to achieve this mission and vision, including the specific goals and objectives to be achieved during the period covered by the document

A

Strategic Plan

306
Q

Documents created prior to or at the start of the project that address strategic, business, or high-level information about the project

A

Strategy Artifacts

307
Q

A method in which multiple team members focus collectively on resolving a specific problem or task

A

Swarm

308
Q

Analysis of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of an organization, project, or option

A

SWOT Analysis

309
Q

Personal knowledge that can be difficult to articulate and share such as beliefs, experience, and insights

A

Tacit Knowledge

310
Q

The deliberate adaptation of approach, governance, and processes to make them more suitable for the given environment and the work at hand

A

Tailoring

311
Q

A visual representation of the progress of the planned work that allows everyone to see the status of the tasks

A

Task Board

312
Q

A document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as well as establishes clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members

A

Team Charter

313
Q

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with the people who are responsible for producing project deliverables that realize business outcomes

A

Team Performance Domain

314
Q

Quantifiable measures of technical performance that are used to ensure system components meet the technical requirements

A

Technical Performance Measures

315
Q

A partially complete document in a predefined format that provides a defined structure for collecting, organizing, and presenting information and data

A

Template

316
Q

A document describing deliverables that will be tested, tests that will be conducted, and the processes that will be used in testing

A

Test Plan

317
Q

A risk that would have a negative effect on one or more project objectives

A

Threat

318
Q

A predetermined value of a measurable project variable that represents a limit that requires action to be taken if it is reached

A

Threshold

319
Q

The number of items passing through a process

A

Throughput

320
Q

A diagram that shows the accepted deliverables over time

A

Throughput Chart

321
Q

A type of contract that is a hybrid contractual arrangement containing aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts

A

Time and Materials Contract (T&M)

322
Q

A short, fixed period of time in which work is to be completed

A

Timebox

323
Q

The quantified description of acceptable variation for a quality requirement

A

Tolerance

324
Q

An analytical method that uses mathematical models to forecast future outcomes based on historical results

A

Trend Analysis

325
Q

A framework for considering the full cost of doing business by evaluating a company’s bottom line from the perspective of profit, people, and the planet

A

Triple Bottom Line

326
Q

A lack of understanding and awareness of issues, events, path to follow, or solutions to pursue

A

Uncertainty

327
Q

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with risk and uncertainty

A

Uncertainty Domain

328
Q

An artifact for describing and exploring how a user interacts with a system to achieve a specific goal

A

Use Case

329
Q

A brief description of an outcome for a specific user, which is a promise for a conversation to clarify details

A

User Story

330
Q

The assurance that a product, service, or result meets the needs of the customer and other identified stakeholders. See also verification

A

Validation

331
Q

The worth, importance, or usefulness of something

A

Value

332
Q

A project delivery support structure that focuses on coaching teams; building agile skills and capabilities throughout the organization; and mentoring sponsors and product owners to be more effective in those roles

A

Value Delivery Office (VDO)

333
Q

A collection of strategic business activities aimed at building, sustaining, and/or advancing an organization

A

Value Delivery System

334
Q

The value of a product or service that an organization communicates to its customers

A

Value Proposition

335
Q

A display of the critical steps in a process and the time taken in each step used to identify waste

A

Value Stream Map

336
Q

A lean enterprise method used to document, analyze, and improve the flow of information or materials required to produce a product or service for a customer

A

Value Stream Mapping

337
Q

A measure that appears to show some result but does not provide useful information for making decisions

A

Vanity Metric

338
Q

A quantifiable deviation, departure, or divergence away from a known baseline or expected value

A

Variance

339
Q

A method for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance

A

Variance Analysis

340
Q

A projection of the amount of budget deficit or surplus, expressed as the difference between the budget at completion and the estimate at completion

A

Variance at Completion (VAC)

341
Q

A measure of a team’s productivity rate at which the deliverables are produced, validated, and accepted within a predefined interval

A

Velocity

342
Q

A chart that tracks the rate at which the deliverables are produced, validated, and accepted within a predefined interval

A

Velocity Chart

343
Q

The evaluation of whether or not a product, service, or result complies with a regulation, requirement, specification, or imposed condition. See also validation

A

Verification

344
Q

A group of people with a shared goal who work in different locations and who engage with each other primarily through phone and other electronic communications

A

Virtual Team

345
Q

A summarized, high-level description about the expectations for a product such as target market, users, major benefits, and what differentiates the product from others in the market

A

Vision Statement

346
Q

Artifacts that organize and present data and information in a visual format, such as charts, graphs, matrices, and diagrams

A

Visual Data and Information

347
Q

A planning method used to provide products, services, and results that truly reflect customer requirements by translating those customer requirements into the appropriate technical requirements for each phase of project or product development

A

Voice of the Customer

348
Q

The possibility for rapid and unpredictable change

A

Volatility

349
Q

Activities that consume resources and/or time without adding value

A

Waste

350
Q

A document that provides detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the work breakdown structure

A

WBS Dictionary

351
Q

The process of evaluating scenarios in order to predict their effect on project objectives

A

What-If-Scenario Analysis

352
Q

An estimating method in which subject matter experts go through multiple rounds of producing estimates individually, with a team discussion after each round, until a consensus is achieved

A

Wideband Delphi

353
Q

A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables

A

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

354
Q

The work defined at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure for which cost and duration are estimated and managed

A

Work Package