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Patho 2 Exam 1 > Study Guide Questions > Flashcards

Study Guide Questions Flashcards

1
Q

sickness or deviation from a healthy state

A

Illness

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2
Q

rapid onset, short duration

A

Acute illness

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3
Q

Permanent impairment

A

Chronic illness

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4
Q

biologic or psychologic alteration that results in a malfunction of the body organ or system

A

Disease

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5
Q

of new diagnoses of a condition in a specific period of time like a year in relation to who was at risk at the beginning of the year

A

Incidence

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6
Q

of people with a specific disease at a point regardless of when

A

Prevalence

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7
Q

Frequency of disability within a population

A

Morbidity

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8
Q

of deaths related to a condition

A

Mortality

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9
Q

Remove and reduce risk factors

A

Primary prevention

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10
Q

Promote early detection; preventative measure to avoid further complication

A

Secondary prevention

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11
Q

Limits the impact of current disease

A

Tertiary prevention

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12
Q

o Ex] regular exercise, good diet, seat belts, immunizations

What type of prevention?

A

Primary

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13
Q

Skin tests for TB, mammography and colonoscopy are examples of what type of prevention?

A

Secondary

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14
Q

Rehab and chemo are examples of what kind of prevention?

A

Tertiary

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15
Q

finite event that is a disturbance of cerebral function due to abnormal neuronal discharge

A

Seizure

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16
Q

Seizures are reaction of the brain to?

A 
Stress
Sleep deprivation
Fever
Alcohol
Drugs
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17
Q

If someone gets seizure in childhood, whats the most likely cause?

A

Idiopathic

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18
Q

Signs and symptoms of seizures can be triggered by:

A 
Stress
Poor nutrition 
No meds
Flickering lights
Illness/Fever
No sleep
Emotional
Heat
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19
Q

Types of generalized seizures

A 
Absence (petit mal)
Tonic
Clonic
Tonic-Clonic (grand mal)
Atonic
Myoclonic
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20
Q

 In younger population; doesn’t persist beyond age 20
 Brief loss of consciousness but doesn’t lose postural tone
 Come back to full orientation after seizure

A

Absence seizure

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21
Q

Describe tonic seizure

A

Rigid and paused movement like tree trunk; muscle contraction continues

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22
Q

What can lead to cyanosis with tonic seizures?

A

Arrest of respiratory muscles

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23
Q

Repetitive Clonic jerking of extremities and head

A

Clonic seizure

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24
Q

 They lose consciousness and have an aura (feel its going to happen)

A

Tonic-Clonic

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25
Q

Define status epilepticus

A

Seizure either doesnt stop right away or they occur too fast after one another so they dont have time to regain consciousness

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26
Q

Describe atonic seizure

A

Rag doll loss of muscle tone

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27
Q

 Sudden bride contractions that are localized to a few muscles or 1 or more extremities
 On and off moments
 Associated with variety of rare neurodegenerative disorders

A

Myoclonic

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28
Q

Two types of focal seizures

A

Simple partial and complex partial

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29
Q

Which seizure affects one side?

A

Simple partial seizure

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30
Q

 Are conscious
 Involves unilateral hemisphere
 Starts with motor, sensory or autonomic phenomena

A

Simple partial

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31
Q

Can get temporary blindness with this seizure

A

Simple partial seizure

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32
Q

 Impaired consciousness but not lost
 Lasts 30 sec to 3 min
 Discharge arises from mostly temporal lobe (70-80%) or medial frontal lobe

A

Complex partial seizure

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33
Q

Carbamazepine (Tegretol, Carbatrol) treats ?

A

Tonic Clonic

Partial

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34
Q

Clonazepam (Klonopin)

A

Myoclonic

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35
Q

Phenobarbital (Luminal)

A

Tonic-Clonic

Partial

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36
Q

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

A

Tonic Clonic

Partial

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37
Q

Valproic acid (Depakote)

A

Tonic Clonic
Myoclonic
Absence
Photic induced

**everything except partial

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38
Q

Topiramate (Topamax)

A

Treats ALL seizures

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39
Q

o Treats intractable seizures

o Only if surgery is not successful or not seizure control

A

Vagus nerve stimulators

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40
Q

Pacemaker of the brain

A

Vagus nerve stimulators

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41
Q

2 types of surgical interventions for epilepsy

A

Callostomy and hemispherectomy

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42
Q

 Partial = takes out 2/3 of connections in corpus callosum
 Complete = cutting remaining 1/3
 Not a cure but does reduce frequency and severity

A

Callostomy

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43
Q

half of the brain is removed or disconnected

- always results in some form of hemiplegia

A

Hemispherectomy

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44
Q

What are the implications for the PT when dealing with patients who have seizures?

A

1] keep client safe if they have seizure during therapy
2] know psychological implications, triggers
3] exam their home and work etc environment and EDUCATE

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45
Q

Parts of the chain of transmission

A 
Pathogen
Reservoir 
Portal of exit
Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host
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46
Q

how the pathogen gets inside your body

A

Portal of entry

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47
Q

 Ex] respiratory tract, GI tract, urinary tract, mucous membrane, skin

What part of MoT?

A

Portal of entry

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48
Q

Will they be affected more or less?

A

Susceptible host

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49
Q

any microorganism that has the capacity to cause disease

A

Pathogen

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50
Q

environment where the pathogen lives

A

Reservoir

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51
Q

how the pathogen gets transferred

A

Mode of transmission

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52
Q

how the pathogen leaves the reservoir

A

Portal of exit

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53
Q

Ex] people, equipment, water

CHain?

A

Reservoir

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54
Q

excretions, secretions, droplets, open cuts

Chain?

A

Portal of exit

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55
Q

Contact, droplets, airborne, vectorborne, vehicle are examples of what part in chain?

A

Mode of transmission

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56
Q

respiratory tract, GI tract, urinary tract, mucous membrane, skin

What part of chain?

A

Portal of entry

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57
Q

cancer patients, elderly patients, surgical patients, burns, diabetes mellitus are what part of the chain?

A

Host susceptibility

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58
Q

3 lines of defense

A 
1st= external
2nd= inflammatory 
3rd= specific response
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59
Q

Normal fever level

A

98.6

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60
Q

What’s the 102 degree rule?

A

Theres one group that dont cause fever past 102 and the other group does cause fever past 102.

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61
Q

More than how many degrees is dangerous?

A

104

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62
Q

Gut flora is destroyed

A

C.diff

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63
Q

What’s more effective to treat C.diff?

A

Soap and water

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64
Q

Whats the only anaerobe that poses a nosocomial risk?

A

C. Diff

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65
Q

o Risk factors:
 Spread by direct contact
 Mostly colonized in the nose

A

Staph

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66
Q

Prognosis for staph?

A

Good with treatment

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67
Q

 Most common bacterial pathogen

 Ex] Pharyngitis, scarlet fever, impetigo, gangrene, cellulitis, sepsis, toxic shock

A

Group A strep

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68
Q

 Usually seen in NICU, newborns, nursery
• Leading cause of neonatal infections
• Part of Norma vaginal flora- 1% of babies get it

A

Group B strep

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69
Q

 Through direct contact or droplet inhalation
 Risk factors
• Age, flu, respiratory infection, chronic illness, immunosuppressive, alcoholism

A

Pneumonia

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70
Q

 Risk for HCWs
 Incubated for 45-180 days (avg 60-90)
 Needle stick- 22-31% chance of getting it
 Trasnsmission: direct or indirect contact

A

Hep B

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71
Q

What virus does NOT have a vaccine?

A

Hep C

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72
Q

 Transmitted by needle stick
 Incubated 6-7 weeks
 Wash hands!

A

Hep C

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73
Q

Transmitted through needle stick or infrequently through mucus

A

HIV

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74
Q

Types of Herpes Virus

A

HSV Type 1 and 2= herpes simplex
HSV Type 3= varicella zoster
HSV Type 4= Epstein Barr
HSV Type 5= cytomegalovirus (CMV)

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75
Q

 Chickenpox or shingles

A

HSV type 3

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76
Q

 95% ppl 35-40 years old
 Transmission: contact with oral secretions, blood or organ transplants
 Excellent prognosis

A

HSV type 4

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77
Q

 Increased with age
 1% newborns
 4 out of 5 adults have CMV
 Transmitted: human contact with infected secretions like urine, blood breast milk, placenta

A

HSV Type 5

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78
Q

o Heartburn
o Nausea
o emesis (vomit)
o diarrhea- abnormal stool or frequency
o fetal incontinence- cant control bowel movements
o constipation
o anorexia
o dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
o Achalasia- cant relax smooth muscles of GI tract
o Abdominal pain
And GI bleeding are all signs and symptoms of?

A

GI DISEASE

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79
Q

o Inflammation of esophagus b/c of gastric acid reflux

o Caused by pressure on lower esophageal sphincter

A

GERD

80
Q

o Signs and symptoms:
 Heartburn soon after eating
 Reflux
 Painful swallowing

A

GERD

81
Q

o Inflammation of stomach lining (mucosa)

- can be acute or chronic

A

Gastritis

82
Q

Signs and Sx: epigastric pain, ab distension, decreased appetite and nausea

A

Gastritis

83
Q

Imbalance b/w gastric acid and pepsin secretion occurs during mucosal resistance

A

PUD (peptic ulcer disease)

84
Q

2 types of PUD

A

Gastric and duodenal

*duodenal is 2-3x more common

85
Q

90% of cases caused by H.pylori

A

PUD

86
Q

o Affects intestinal tract

o Discontinuous process

A

Crohn’s disease

87
Q

o Most common biliary disease
o Risk Factors: age, female, genetic, bacterial infection, estrogen, cholesterol, liver disease
o Sx: RUQ pain

A

Gallstones

88
Q

o Dx: history, PE, radiography
o Tx: low fat diet, lipid lowering, laparoscopic cholecystectomy
o Prognosis: good

A

Gallstones

89
Q

Describe the 4 burn stages

A

1st degree= superficial
2nd degree= superficial- partial thickness
3rd degree= deep partial thickness
4th degree= full thickness

90
Q

o sunburn
o ONLY epidermis
o Redness, no blisters, painful
o Heals in 3-5 days

A

1st degree burn

Superficial

91
Q

o damage through epidermis and papillary dermis
o Bright red/pink, minimal discoloration
o Intact blisters
o Random healing

A

2nd degree= superficial- partial thickness burn

92
Q 
o	damage through epidermis, papillary dermis and reticular dermis 
o	Red, waxy-white appearance
o	Broken blisters, weeping
o	Marked edema 
o	Excessive scarring
A

3rd degree= deep partial thickness burn

93
Q 
o	involves entire skin, down  to subcutaneous 
	can be down to muscle, fascia or bone
	Skin grafting
	White or charred appearance 
	No blanching, dry
	No pain b.c no receptors
A

4th degree= full thickness burn

94
Q

Full skin and tissue loss

A

Stage 4 ulcer

95
Q

Full thickness skin loss

A

Stage 3 pressure ulcer

96
Q

Partial thickness loss with exposed dermis

A

Stage 2 pressure ulcer

97
Q

Non-blanchable skin redness; intact

A

Stage 1 pressure ulcer

98
Q

o Slow growing

o Etiology: prolonged sun exposure, immunosuppress, genetic

A

Basal cell carcinoma

99
Q

o Arises in sun damaged skin

o Rim of ear, face, lips, mouth, dorsa of hand

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

100
Q

o Originates from melanocytes which give skin color

A

Malignant melanoma

101
Q

4 types of malignant melanoma ?

A

Superficial
Modular
LMM
ALM

102
Q

o Etiology/risk factors: blonde/red hair, fair skin, blue eyes, prone to sunburn. Scandinavian

A

Malignant melanoma

103
Q

Which has absence of dystrophin ?

A

DMD

104
Q

BMD has what kind of dystrophin ?

A

Altered amount

105
Q

protein that links muscle membrane (sarcolemma) to contractile muscle protein (actin)

A

Dystrophin

106
Q

o Cant get their heels on floor

o Straighten legs first then use hands on knees to stand up

A

DMD

107
Q

Female carrier for this disease

A

DMD

108
Q

Onset less than 6 months

A

SMA type 1

109
Q

Onset 6-18 months

A

SMA type 2

110
Q

Onset after 18 months

A

SMA type 3

111
Q

Onset is variable; around 4th decade

A

Heterogenous genetics SMA

112
Q

 Sit only with support
 Bulbar dysfunction (originates from pons)
• Cant suck or swallow, respiratory failure

A

Type 1 SMA

113
Q

 Sits independently

 50% can sit until age 14

A

Type 2 SMA

114
Q

Die before age 2

A

Type 1 SMA

115
Q

 Walks independently

 50% Can walk with assist until age 7

A

SMA type 3

116
Q

If onset of SMA type 3 is before 2 years old, half will walks with assist until ?

A

12

117
Q

If onset for SMA type 3 is after 2 years then half will walk with assist until ?

A

44

118
Q

Can walk up to 40s

A

Heterogeneous genetics SMA

119
Q

o mildest form

o Bleeding is limited to only the lining of the ventricles with little or no ill effects

A

Grade 1 IVH

120
Q

o Ventricles become enlarged and full of bed

A

Grade 3 IVH

121
Q

o Blood does not spill into the ventricles, no enlargement or swelling
o Blood is reabsorbed with no long or short term effects

A

Grade 2 IVH

122
Q

o Blood spills out from ventricles into the brain

A

Grade 4 IVH

123
Q

Grades 1-3 of IVH are ?

A

One sided

124
Q

Which IVH grade has extensive bilateral damage?

A

Grade 4

125
Q

 Arterial ischemic injury of white matter

o Usually in arterial end zones

A

PVL

126
Q

Two types of PVL and which one has cognition spared?

A

1] frontal - cognition spared

2] parietal

127
Q

2 types of HIE

A

Slow and abrupt

128
Q

What is HIE?

A

Lack of oxygen to the brain

129
Q

2 locations of brain lesions

A

Pyramidal and extra pyramidal

130
Q

 Corticospinal tract affected so more motor lesion
 Learning new motor skills
 70-80% cases

A

Pyramidal

131
Q

 Automatic movement and reflexes
 Athetoid and ataxic
 Lesion in basal ganglia or cerebellum

A

Extra pyramidal

132
Q

Types of movement disorder

A 
Spastic 
Dystonic
Athetoid 
Dyskinetic 
Ataxia
133
Q

Monoplegia

A

One extremity is impaired like R UE

134
Q

Diplegia

A

Bilateral UE and LE but more LE impairment

135
Q

Hemiplegia

A

One sided UE and LE stoke

136
Q

Paraplegia

A

B LE stroke

137
Q

Triplegia

A

3 extremities impaired

138
Q

Tetra/quadriplegia

A

All extremities involved

139
Q

Whats the most severe form of CP

A

Spastic quadriplegia

140
Q
  • walks w/o limitations

* Decreased speed, balance and coordination

A

GMFCS 1

141
Q
  • walks with limits

* Climbs stairs with railing

A

GMFCS 2

142
Q
  • Walks with hand held mobility device

* Needs assisted device to walk

A

GMFCS 3

143
Q
  • Self mobility with limits
  • May use powered mobility
  • Cant walk on their own
A

GMFCS 4

144
Q
  • Transported in manual wheelchair
  • Cant hold head and neck against gravity
  • All motor function impaired
  • Cant do anything on their own
A

GMFCS 5

145
Q

What’s MACS?

A

Focuses on how kids with CP use their hands whe handling objects

146
Q

What’s CFCS?

A

Describes everyday communication

147
Q

o Examples: tums, mailbox, mylanta, alka seltzer

A

Antacids

148
Q

MoA for antacids?

A

Neutralize gastric acidity

149
Q

o Examples: Zantac, Pepcid, Tagamet, axid

A

H2RA (histamine 2 receptor antagonists)

150
Q

MoA for H2RA?

A

Reduces acid secretion by stopping histamine, gastric and acetylcholine receptors

151
Q

o Examples: prilosec OTC, Prevacid, medium, protonix, aciphex
o MoA: irreversibly inhibit the H+/K+-ATPase

A

PPI (protein pump inhibitors)

152
Q

What is PPI used for?

A

Long term acid suppression

153
Q

o MoA: increase water absorption (fiber)
o Have to take with full glass of water
o Effect is flatulence
o Can be used long term

A

Bulk forming laxatives

154
Q

o MoA: lubricates fecal material and wall of intestine
o Short term only, takes 2-3 days to effect
o Can stain clothing

A

Lubricant laxatives

155
Q

o MoA: draws fluid into large intestine (colon)

o SE: bloating, rectal irritation, electrolyte abnormalities

A

HYperosmotic laxatives

156
Q

o MoA: increase osmotic pressure by increasing water and electrolyte secretions into small bowel
o Mg citrate SE: gas/cramps, diarrhea

A

Saline laxatives

157
Q

o MoA: facilitates propulsive motility of colon by stimulating enteric nervous system
o Short term
o Works overnight, well tolerated

A

Stimulant laxatives

158
Q

o MoA: facilitate water and fat absorption into the stool
o Does not treat constipation but prevents
 Exception= chronic opioid use

A

Stool softeners

159
Q

Causes of nausea and vomit ?

A

Meds
Toxic chemicals
Drugs OD
Pregnancy

160
Q 
Anticholinergics
Antihistamines
Serotonin blockers
Corticosteroids
Neuroleptic drugs
Prokinetic drugs
Cannabinoids
NKIRAs
A

Treatment for nausea and vomiting

161
Q

Inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin binding proteins

A

Penicilin
Cephalosporins
Carbapenams

162
Q

Inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to cell wall precursor

A

MoA for vancomycin

163
Q

In bacteria by binding to 30S ribosomal subunits

A

Aminoglycosides

164
Q

DNA gyrase inhibitor

A

Fluroquinolines

165
Q

Pneumonia, skin and soft tissue, urinary, stomach infect

A

Use for fluoroquinolines

166
Q

Respiratory tract infect, urinary infect, pneumonia

A

Clinical use for aminoglycosides

167
Q

C. Diff infect, skin and soft tissue, MRSAA, meningitis

A

Clinical use for vancomycin

168
Q

Stomach infections, multi drug resistant organisms

A

Clinical use for carbapenams

169
Q

Skin and soft tissue, pneumonia, UTI, meningitis

A

Clinical use for cephalosporins

170
Q

Skin and soft tissue infections, sinus infections, otitis media

A

Clinical use for penicillin

171
Q

Redman syndrome, nephrotoxicity

A

Side effect of vancomycin

172
Q

Neprhotoxicity, ototoxicity, neurotoxicity

A

Side effect for aminoglycosides

173
Q

GI disturbances, prolongation of QT interval, photosensitivity

A

Side effect for fluroquinolines

174
Q

Name the 3 viral meds

A

NRTIs
NNRTI
PT (protease inhibitor)

175
Q

Name the 3 fungal meds

A

Anoles
Polyenes
Echinocandins

176
Q

Which fungal med has side effect of nephrotoxicity?

A

Polyenes

177
Q

Which fungal med has Side effect of infusion reaction?

A

Echinocandins

178
Q

1) What is the procedure to cut off half the brain?

A

a. Hemispherectomy

179
Q

2) What ambulatory type of SMA has onset after 18 months of age?

A

Type 3

180
Q

3) At which level of GMFCS would you expect child to walk with hand mobility device indoors and outdoors on level surfaces?

A

GMFCS level 3

181
Q

4) The class of drugs used to treat PUD, GERD and heartburn that works to halt the receptors that stimulate acid secretion?

A

H2RA

182
Q

5) Isolation strategies used to protect hospital personnel and patients from Blood borne pathogens?

A

Universal precautions

183
Q

6) Type of seizure commonly treated wth Dilantin (Phenytoin)

A

Tonic Clonic and partial

184
Q

7) What diagnosis has the absence of dystrophin?

A

Duchenne’s

185
Q

9) Type of CP that’s 7% of spastic forms and most severe?

A

Quadriplegia/tetraplegia

186
Q

10) Antibiotic treatment is required for patients with PUD when this is present?

A

H.pylori

187
Q

11) Body excretions, secretions, open wounds and exudates where bacteria can grow and be transmitted?

A

Portal of exit

188
Q

12) Collection of chronic end stage disorders caused by toxic, metabolic, congestive and inflammatory damage noted by fibrosis of the liver?

A

Cirrhosis

189
Q

13) Name the condition in which the ventricles of the brain become large and full of blood. This condition is a common causative factor in spastic diplegia cerebral palsy.

A

IVH 3

190
Q

14) Environment in which bacteria can live and multiply?

A

Reservoir

191
Q

15) Medical emergency occurs when seizures do not cease on their own or recur too rapidly to allow return to a conscious state.

A

Status epilepticus

192
Q

16) Finite event that involves transient disturbance of cerebral function?

A

Seizure

193
Q

17) Which types of NM disorders would there be active destruction of muscle?

A

Dystrophy

194
Q

Any microorganism that has capacity to cause disease?

A

Pathogen

195
Q

19) Name the 5 level system used to identify function of children with CP?

A

GMFCS= gross motor function classification system

196
Q

20) Inflammation in esophagus due to gastric acid penetrating esophageal sphincter?

A

GERD

Patho 2 Exam 1 (1 decks)

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