Study Guide for GI Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Why are the sublingual veins important clinically?

A

sublingual meds absorb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

why are the salivary ducts important

A

they can become obstructed causing pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what differentiates the parotid gland from the submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

parotid secretes mucus and amylase, while submandibular/lingual secretes a more serous fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the anatomical importance of the uvula?

A

it closes off the nasopharynx, and if surgically removed, food can relux into the nasopharynx (think snarfing chocolate milk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the anatomical importance of the anterior and posterior arches (palatoglossal and paltopharyngeal) surrounding the palatine tonsil?

A

accidentally removing them can cause speech impediments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which salivary duct becomes obstructed most often?

A

Stensen’s duct is the most frequent salivary gland to have stones (parotid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is indicated by the presence of stones in this duct?

A

the incidence of stones has been increasing as people have become more and more relatively dehydrated, also, salivary amylase is produced here and also in the pancreas, so that blood levels of amylase reflect the concentrations provided by both glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What structures are involved in cleft palate?

A

upper lip, soft and hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does cleft palate result in malnutrition?

A

cleft palate creates a condition where breathing and chewing cannot occur at the same time so decreased amounts are taken in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the anatomy of the tooth?

A

know cusps (elevations present on the occlusal surface of the crown), tooth socket (alveolus), aveolar processes (not clear on this), periosteum, peridontal membrane, gomphosis joint, clinical crown (portion of the anatomical crown visible above the gingiva), anatomical crown (the superior portion of the tooth that is covered by enamel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the difference between the anatomical and clinical crown?

A

clinical crown is the portion of the anatomical crown visible above the gingiva, anatomical crown is the superior portion of the tooth that is covered by enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why is it important to know about the anatomical crown?

A

it provides the explanation why dentists say it is so important to floss (you need to clean around the hidden anatomical crown)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

some teeth have variable number of roots, why is this important?

A

a dentist might miss one of them during a root canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

why is tooth morphology important?

A

the loss of certain teeth means that you ahve to alter the diet of individuals (for instance, molars are used for grinding and crushing… so if they are missing the person has to have a “soft mechanical diet”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the dental formulas for deciduous and permanent teeth?

A

deciduous (milk) teeth: I2, C1, 0P, 2M x 4= 20 teeth
permanent teeth: I2, C1, 2P, 3M x4 = 32
(I=incisor, C=canine, P=premolar, M=molar, and just 1 half of top or bottom is counted at a time, hence multiplying by 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which branch of which nerve does the dentist block?

A

V3= mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why, when the dentist numbs your gums, does your tongue go numb? and why does your tongue not work well afterword?

A

blocking mandibular branch will also block part of the tongue, and as V3 is mixed, both sensory and motor are affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is T&A and what structures are involved?

A

Tonsillectomy and Adenoidectomy, there are 3 tonsils, 2 of them, adenoid and palantine, used to be surgically removed together, but now, only the palatine tonsils are surgically removed (usually)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where is the epiglottis and what does it do?

A

the epiglottis is attached to the tongue, and gaits food into the esophagus keeping it from going down the trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what can happen to the epiglottis?

A

it can become infected, called epiglottitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the 5 types of chemoreceptors found in the tongue?

A

sweet, sour, salty, bitter, umami

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

why is tasting bitter important?

A

knowing that bitter tastes are often poisons, one can explain why people have a strong reaction not to swallow bitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what do filiform papillae do?

A

touch, pain, temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

know the different types of papillae, what they do, and where they are located

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which nerve innervates the pharyngeal constrictor muscles? which nerve innervates the UES?

A

CN X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why was the uvula removed? Did it work?

A

we believed that snoring was causing obstructive sleep apnea, so we started surgically removing the uvula, which we felt was causing the obstruction, it cured the snoring, but not the sleep apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what causes cavities (carries)?

A

metabolic byproducts of bacteria like lactic acid, pyruvic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is xerostomia and what role does xerostomia play in their development and why?

A

dry mouth, decreases circulating IgA, so better chance of developing cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is periodontitis?

A

infection of the alveolar socket (formally known as pyorrhea), extension of gingivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is waldeyer’s ring, and what does it do?

A

a network of lymphatic tissue that acts ast eh first line of defense against inhaled or ingested pathogens
http://www.google.com/imgres?client=firefox-a&hs=IKr&sa=X&rls=org.mozilla%3Aen-US%3Aofficial&biw=1110&bih=653&tbm=isch&tbnid=d7Cvu3bdSMDnFM%3A&imgrefurl=http%3A%2F%2Fbio114.wikispaces.com%2FZoster%2BEntry&docid=1WSLwjJEC8tmKM&imgurl=http%3A%2F%2Fbio114.wikispaces.com%2Ffile%2Fview%2Fwaldeyer%2527s_ring_picture%2F45728621%2Fwaldeyer%2527s_ring_picture&w=372&h=239&ei=_dD-UoTaOcju2wWs8oCoAQ&zoom=1&ved=0CHIQhBwwAw&iact=rc&dur=655&page=1&start=0&ndsp=10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which taste receptors are membrane channels, and which are TMRs?

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which CN provides motor innervation to the tongue?

A

CN XII (hypoglossal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How and why does one test CN XII?

A

when trying to localize the site of a tumor or stroke, the cranial nerves are examined, and if the tongue deviates during the exam, it indicates the location at which the stroke or tumor is acting (the nucleus or nerve root of CN XII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which nerve innervates the posterior pharynx?

A

CN IX innervates the posterior pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How and why does one test CN IX?

A

it is used to test the gag reflex, say after a stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of cells line the Nasopharynx?

A

nasopharynx is lined by ciliated mucus membrane (pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium with Goblet Cells), which also makes up the lining of the respiratory tract, wherever air and only air flows, those passages will be lined with cilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why is it important to know the kind of cells that make up the different epithelium?

A

different areas have different linings, and these are important to know because they indicate which types of tumors are likely to be present , for example, if an area is covered with squamous cells, it is likely to develop squamous cell carcinoma as opposed to an area lined with columnar cells, which would develop adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What kind of cells line the oropharynx/laryngopharynx?

A

non-keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium, food travels through here, sloughs off cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what kind of carcinoma will form in the oropharynx and why?

A

squamous cell carcinomas, as it is lined with squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what structures “closes” the airway so that food does not travel to the lungs?

A

the epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is stomatitis?

A

inflammation of the mucus membrane of any of the structures in the mouth, caused by poor oral hygiene, dietary protein deficiency, poorly fitted dentures, burns from hot food or drinks, toxic plants, or by conditions that affect the entire body, such as infections and allergic reactions, viral aphthous ulcers, stevens Johnson Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What causes thrush?

A

Oral Candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where can Candida be found?

A

anywhere in the oral cavity and esophagus (and other places)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what 2 things are needed for the LES to function properly?

A

inner circular esophageal muscle, loop of diaphragm around esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

why does the LES not work well when there is a hiatal hernia?

A

because part of its function depends upon the diaphragm circling around it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what structure drains the foregut, midgut, and hindgut?

A

the portal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

cirrhosis causes portal HTN, what is the significance of this condition?

A

blood cant get through the liver effectively,k so it shuts it through the Azygous and Hemizygous veins in order to get it back to the heart, can cause esophageal varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Why are esophageal varices dangerous?

A

bleeding by rupture can cause death

49
Q

Why have we historically cut the vagus nerve in surgery?

A

because it is responsible for releasing Ach in the stomach, and the stomach in turn produces HCl, and in people with ulcers, the nerve would be cut to stop the release of Ach and thus stop acid production

50
Q

why do esophageal cancers metastasize so quickly?

A

no serosal layer

51
Q

what cell type normally lines the esophagus?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

52
Q

then why are most esophageal cancers not SCC?

A

intestinal metaplasia occuring in invading columnar epithelium from the stomach causes Barrett’s esophagus and thus adenocarcinoma

53
Q

how can having a hiatus hernia ultimately lead to cancer?

A

acid reflux leads to intestinal metaplasia (influx of columnar epithelium from the stomach)

54
Q

what are the layers of the gut, from internal to external layers?

A

mucosa (made up of epithelium of various types, lamina propria– loose CT that contains mucus secreting glands and lymphatic tissue, muscularis mucosa– smooth muscle that creates folds in mucosa)
submucosa– dense irregular CT
muscularis externa–inner circular and outer longitudinal layers of smooth muscle that are responsible for peristalsis
serosa or adventitia– peritoneum or CT– convey neurovascular bundles

55
Q

what structure causes the plica circulares to form?

A

muscularis mucosa

56
Q

what layer houses the glands?

A

submucosa (this contradicts his slide, which has glands under the Mucosa layer)

57
Q

what are the 2 muscle layers?

A

inner circular, outer longitudinal

58
Q

what is the blood supply to the foregut, midgut, and hindgut?

A

celiac, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric arteries, respectively

59
Q

what defines the boundaries of the gut?

A

the blood supply

60
Q

which vagus nerve can be seen on the anterior surface of the stomach?

A

clockwise rotation makes the left branch of the vagus anterior

61
Q

which divisions of the gut have both dorsal and ventral mesogastrium?

A

only the foregut has both

62
Q

why is the greater omentum important?

A

policeman of the abdomen, walls off the inflammatory processes in the abdomen

63
Q

what artery comes off the aorta cephalad to the pancreas?

A

celiac

64
Q

which artery comes off caudad to the body of the pancreas, but cephalad to the insula?

A

Superior mesenteric artery

65
Q

why is the antrum of the stomach sometimes removed, and where is it located?

A

lower, distal section of stomach, removed due to intractable peptic ulcer disease,

66
Q

where is the pylorus and what does it do?

A

it is the valve separating the stomach from the duodenum

67
Q

What are the 3 muscle layers of the stomach?

A

external to internal, longitudinal, circular (also forms the LES and pyloric shincter, oblique

68
Q

What folds increase surface area in the stomach?

A

rugae=folds of mucosa to increase surface area

69
Q

what are the 2 curvatures of the stomach called?

A

greater (more inferior/lateral) and lesser (more medial, superior)

70
Q

why does the stomach have 3 muscle layers instead of 2 like the rest of the GI tract?

A

helps churn the food

71
Q

what do flattened rugae indicate?

A

stomach inflammation/gastritis

72
Q

why do babies with pyloric stenosis have non-bilious vomiting?

A

bile is released by the common bile duct in the duodenum, so the bile cannot get backwashed into the stomach, as the enlarged pylorus prevents this

73
Q

what is the classic metabolic disturbance in pyloric stenosis and why?

A

hypokalemia, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis (due to loss of gastric acid (which contains HCl and K))

74
Q

the types of ulcers occur in different locations, by their location you can sometimes tell what process is causing them. If you see an ulcer at location V, what location is this and what is associated with causing it?

A

body of stomach, NSAIDS

75
Q

where is iron absorbed?

A

in the duodenum

76
Q

where does the foregut end?

A

it ends after the first portion of the duodenum, a location where the bile and pancreatic ducts drain into the duodenum, where it becomes the midgut

77
Q

why do anterior duodenal ulcers perforate and posterior duodenal ulcers bleed?

A

the posterior can perforate the gastroduodenal artery (the largest arterial supply generally comes from the posterior surface of a hollow viscus (intestines and stomach))

78
Q

when does pancreatic cancer occur in most people and what are the symptoms?

A

50-60 y.o., pain radiating to the spine

79
Q

why are most inoperable?

A

the tumor has encased the SMA and SMV (superior mesenteric artery and vein)

80
Q

why doesn’t a person’s guts spill out onto the floor when they are sliced open?

A

the midgut and hindgut are tethered by the dorsal mesogastrium

81
Q

the midgut and hindgut leave the abdoment during what week of development?

A

5

82
Q

when do they return?

A

wk 10

83
Q

why do they leave in the first place?

A

gives the abdomen time to enlarge and allows them to move around so they can rotate 270 degrees

84
Q

What are the branches of the superior mesenteric artery and what do they supply?

A

Jejunal a, Ileal A, Ileocolic A, Appendicular A, right Colic A, Middle Colic A

85
Q

why is knowing where the arteries are important?

A

it tells the surgeon where to resect, as resection is done to include everything perfused by the artery and veins where the primary tumor is located

86
Q

what do enterocytes use for fuel?

A

glutamine, the most abundant amino acid found in the blood

87
Q

what do colonocytes (cells of the large intestine) use for food?

A

short chain FA

88
Q

what structures run in the mesentery?

A

arteries, veins, and lymphatic structures

89
Q

where does teh mesentery insert?

A

the posterior aspect of the hollow viscera

90
Q

how is surface area increased, fractally, in the intestines?

A

plica, villi, microvilli

91
Q

why is it bad sometimes for lymphatic drainage if a person gets stabbed in the left neck?

A

thoracic duct empties into the junction of the left subclavian and internal carotid vein

92
Q

what structure in a villi marks the beginning of the lymphatic collection system in the GI tract?

A

the Lacteal

93
Q

what is it called when the gut does not rotate 270 degrees?

A

intestinal malrotation

94
Q

what does it cause?

A

intestinal obstruction

95
Q

this is what happens if the vitelline duct does not obliterate

A

meckel’s diverticula

96
Q

why does meckel’s sometimes bleed?

A

has gastric tissue in it that responds to circulating blood gastrin and subsequently produces HCl, which erodes the intestinal wall

97
Q

what is the most common malformation of the GI tract and what is it characterized by?

A

Meckel’s Diverticulum, a true congenital diverticulum, is a small bulge in the small intestine present at birth, a remnant of the ophalomesenteric duct/vitelline duct/yolk stalk, present in about 2% of the population, and found on the antimesenteric border of the small bowel, bleeds

98
Q

where is meckel’s found?

A

anterior/antimesenteric border

99
Q

what is the #1 cause of painless GI bleeding in children?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

100
Q

what 4 conditions can occur if the vitelline duct fails to completely close?

A

meckel’s diverticulum, vitelline cyst, vitelline fistula, omphalocoele (abdominal closure prior to retraction of the intestines)

101
Q

what is intussusception?

A

telescoping of one segment of intestine into another

102
Q

what does it mean when it says that there is a “lead point”?

A

usually a swelling that leads the telescoping segment into the other

103
Q

what is the most common lead point for a child? for an adult?

A

child, a swollen lymph node, adult, a tumor

104
Q

what is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction?

A

intra-abdominal adhesions

105
Q

what is the most common cause of large bowel obstruction?

A

cancer

106
Q

what are the branches of the inferior mesenteric artery?

A

left colic, sigmoid branches, superior rectal

107
Q

what is the function or consequence of tenia coli?

A

being shorter than the underlying viscus, they create Haustra and attachment points for structures

108
Q

what are the divisions of the large intestine?

A

ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, anal canal

109
Q

why is the sigmoid colon’s floppiness clinically important?

A

diseases can appear to be on teh right side since it can flip over to that side even though the sigmoid is on the left

110
Q

what is the underlying problem that causes Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

neural crest cells fail to progress in craniocaudal direction

111
Q

what layers are missing in “diverticular disease”?

A

muscular layers

112
Q

how are true and false diverticula different?

A

true has muscle layers and usually occurs on the right side of the colon, is congential and not acquired, and is more common in asians

113
Q

what is the difference between diverticulitis and diverticulosis?

A

diverticulitis in inflammation, usually from an infection occurring in a diverticula, whereas diverticulosis is the presence of several diverticuli

114
Q

what structure is missing in the appendix?

A

villi

115
Q

what are the characteristics of chron’s disease?

A

skip lesions, can involve anus, fissures, bleeding is absent most of the time

116
Q

What symptoms differentiate ulcerative colitis from chron’s?

A

UC always has bloody diarrhea, chron’s 70% of the time

117
Q

what are the characteristics of Ulcerative Colitis?

A

bloody diarrhea, abd pain, fever, wt loss, involves mucosa and submucosa, fistulas and strictures rare, mucosal involvement contiguous, spares anus

118
Q

what plexus do hemorrhoids form in?

A

both the internal rectal venous plexus, and the interior rectal venous plexus

119
Q

what plexus do suppositories take advantage of for absorption?

A

internal rectal venous plexus