STUDY GUIDE Exam 1

Question 1

1. (p. 2) Which of the following characterizes journalist Walter Lippmann’s views on democracy?
   A. He felt that well-funded private interest groups and lobbyists had taken the true majoritarian power of democracy away from the voting public.
   B. He felt that modern democratic government had become an unhealthy, pluralistic enterprise.
   C. He believed that among forms of government, only democracy could provide a citizen with the ability to be a “progressive being.”
   D. He worried that most citizens are too uninformed to play the role democracy assigns them.
   E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 1

D. He worried that most citizens are too uninformed to play the role democracy assigns them.

Question 2

2. (p. 3) John Stuart Mill believed that any form of government should be judged on its ability to
   A. offer the individual a “plethora of policy options” in the democratic process.
   B. transfer power peacefully from one set of governing officials to the next.
   C. provide social services for its citizenry.
   D. maintain peace and order in the territory over which it has control.
   E. promote the individual as “a progressive being.”

Answer 2

E. promote the individual as “a progressive being.”

Question 3

3. (p. 3) Based on his conception of responsible citizenship, John Stuart Mill felt that the best form of government was 
A. authoritarianism.
B. anarchism.
C. communism.
D. democracy.
E. socialism.

Answer 3

D. democracy

Question 4

4. (p. 3) What type of government suppresses individuality, forcing people to think and act in prescribed ways or risk punishment? 
A. communistic
B. socialistic
C. authoritarian
D. egalitarian
E. republican

Answer 4

C. authoritarian

Question 5

5. (p. 3) In a democratic society, who or what is responsible for personal development?
   A. the education system
   B. political parties
   C. the progressive being
   D. the individual
   E. parents, ministers, and political leaders

Answer 5

D. The individual

Question 6

6. (p. 4) What is the major barrier to political thinking?
   A. unwillingness of citizens to make the effort
   B. lack of access to governmental institutions
   C. elite control of political power resources
   D. failure of politicians and government institutions to communicate policy details to the public
   E. lack of access to news media sources outside of sensationalist television or Internet content

Answer 6

A. unwillingness of citizens to make the effort

Question 7

7. (p. 4) Compared to two decades ago, contemporary Americans are, on average,
   A. far better informed about political affairs.
   B. at about the same level of being informed about political affairs.
   C. getting most of their news from traditional media sources such as newspapers.
   D. much more knowledgeable about the functioning of America’s political institutions.
   E. paying more attention to news sources that have an obvious ideological bias.

Answer 7

E. paying more attention to news sources that have an obvious ideological bias.

Question 8

8. (p. 5) Research suggests which of the following is primarily to blame for the increase in faulty perceptions of news items among the public?
   A. changes in the forms of communication
   B. a failure of government officials to communicate truthfully
   C. a growing disinterest in seeking out news items
   D. the growing public gap in access to more advanced forms of media transmission, such as the Internet
   E. the increasing political polarization of elected politicians

Answer 8

A. changes in the forms of communication

Question 9

9. (p. 6) In a survey of college students, the Intercollegiate Studies Association found that the best predictor of a student’s later participation in the nation’s civic and political life is
   A. a college degree.
   B. a solid understanding of public affairs.
   C. participation in student government.
   D. participation in Greek life.
   E. attending a school with a residential campus versus a “commuter” campus.

Answer 9

B. a solid understanding of public affairs.

Question 10

10. (p. 6) This person was the chief architect of the United States Constitution and also one of America's top political scientists: 
A. James Madison.
B. Andrew Jackson.
C. Woodrow Wilson.
D. Benjamin Franklin.
E. John Adams.

Answer 10

A. James Madison.

Question 11

11. (p. 8) Which important aspect of European thought had a big impact on the formation of the political culture of America? 
A. Romanticism
B. Reformation
C. Renaissance
D. Rationalism
E. Enlightenment

Answer 11

E. Enlightenment

Question 12

12. (p. 9) Which of the following is NOT one of the core values of American political culture? 
A. individualism
B. equality
C. cooperation
D. liberty
E. self-government

Answer 12

C. cooperation

Question 13

13. (p. 9) Which one of the following is NOT true of cultural or political beliefs in America?
    A. America’s origins as a wilderness society led to the belief that government is responsible for providing material assistance to its citizens.
    B. Americans place a greater emphasis than Europeans on personal advancement through education.
    C. Americans have traditionally favored a free-market economy.
    D. America has a strong individualistic culture.
    E. America’s individualistic culture has not proven to be an absolute barrier to government assistance programs.

Answer 13

A. America’s origins as a wilderness society led to the belief that government is responsible for providing material assistance to its citizens.

Question 14

14. (p. 9) According to political scientist Louis Hartz, the United States
    A. constitutes a “corporate dictatorship.”
    B. was “born free.”
    C. formed a perfect union.
    D. is basically a monarchical state.
    E. “perfected” socialist democracy.

Answer 14

B. was “born free.”

Question 15

15. (p. 11) The citizens of which of the following countries pay the lowest tax rates relative to the country's gross domestic product (GDP)? 
A. Germany
B. Canada
C. France
D. the United States
E. Great Britain

Answer 15

D. the United States

Question 16

16. (p. 11) To what aspect of America were William Watts and Lloyd Free referring when they labeled it “the country of individualism par excellence”?
    A. the majoritarian nature of the voting and election system
    B. the ability of any individual to aspire to high political office
    C. the judicial nature of American politics, in which any individual can challenge powerful interests
    D. the emphasis that Americans place on economic self-reliance and free markets
    E. the ability of the individual to join in labor unions and interest groups to pursue his or her political and financial self-interests

Answer 16

D. the emphasis that Americans place on economic self-reliance and free markets

Question 17

17. (p. 11) Europeans have a greater acceptance than Americans of
    A. tax and social policies that redistribute wealth.
    B. the strength of the executive branch of government.
    C. the majoritarian system of government.
    D. the influence of corporate special interests in the legislative process.
    E. the influence of corporate money in the election process.

Answer 17

A. tax and social policies that redistribute wealth.

Question 18

18. (p. 12) In which of the following policy areas does the U.S. spend more than European nations? 
A. social welfare
B. military policy
C. subsidized housing for the poor
D. public works
E. public health care

Answer 18

B. military policy

Question 19

19. (p. 12) According to the Declaration of Independence, governments get their "just powers" from 
A. "God Almighty."
B. "the consent of the governed."
C. "the various factions."
D. "the teachings of Jesus Christ."
E. "the benevolence of a just king."

Answer 19

B. “the consent of the governed.”

Question 20

20. (p. 15) West Virginia, the state with the lowest percentage of college graduates in the United States,
    A. is indicative of Americans’ relative indifference to higher education.
    B. is evidence of the general truth that the states with the highest percentage of college graduates are located between the Rockies and the Mississippi River.
    C. is one of seven U.S. states with fewer than five institutions of higher learning.
    D. demonstrates how closed higher education in the United States is compared to the rest of the world.
    E. has a higher proportion of college graduates than most European countries.

Answer 20

E. has a higher proportion of college graduates than most European countries

Question 21

21. (p. 15) Which of the following is an accurate description of the prevalence of college education in the United States?
    A. Among adults twenty-one years of age and older, roughly half are college graduates.
    B. Among adults twenty-one years of age and older, roughly one in four is a college graduate.
    C. Every U.S. state has at least twenty colleges or universities within its borders.
    D. Despite having a much higher rate of colleges and universities per capita than European countries; the U.S. has a lower rate of college graduation per capita.
    E. Although the U.S. has a lower number of colleges and universities per capita than Europe, it has a much higher rate of college graduation per capita.

Answer 21

B. Among adults twenty-one years of age and older, roughly one in four is a college graduate

Question 22

22. (p. 16) The process by which a society settles its conflicts and allocates the resulting benefits and costs is called 
A. politics.
B. government.
C. elitism.
D. socialism.
E. communism.

Answer 22

A. politics.

Question 23

23. (p. 16) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the ability of persons, groups, or institutions to influence political developments. 
A. Apathy
B. Politics
C. Power
D. Liberty
E. Political culture

Answer 23

C. Power

Question 24

24. (p. 17) French philosopher Michel Foucault referred to politics as "\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_." 
A. like making sausage
B. the burden of citizens
C. a means to an end
D. war by other means
E. a necessary evil

Answer 24

D. war by other means

Question 25

25. (p. 17) The Greek words demos and kratis together mean 
A. majority rule is sacred.
B. the people rule.
C. government is good.
D. politics is immoral.
E. the king is good.

Answer 25

B. the people rule.

Question 26

26. (p. 18) In an oligarchy,
    A. the state is run by corporate interests and companies instead of individuals.
    B. control rests with a small group of popularly elected individuals.
    C. control rests with a single individual, such as a dictator.
    D. control rests with a small group, such as military officers or a few wealthy families.
    E. the state controls all aspects of individuals’ lives, including family relations and the practice of religion.

Answer 26

D. control rests with a small group, such as military officers or a few wealthy families.

Question 27

27. (p. 18) Which of the following has democracy come to mean in practice?
    A. pluralistic government through the combination of popularly elected representatives and the influence of interest groups
    B. oligarchic government through a legislature chosen through popular election
    C. elitist control through interest group politics
    D. pluralism through the election of representatives and the influence of corporate interests
    E. majority rule through the free and open election of representatives

Answer 27

E. majority rule through the free and open election of representatives

Question 28

28. (p. 18) The United States has certain rules in place to keep politics within peaceful bounds. These rules include all of the following EXCEPT 
A. autocracy.
B. democracy.
C. constitutionalism.
D. free markets.
E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 28

E. None of these answers is correct.

Question 29

29. (p. 19) What is a major limit on majoritarianism suggested by the text?
    A. The public as a whole takes an interest in only a few of the hundreds of policy decisions that U.S. officials make each year.
    B. The public lacks access to the information required to take informed political action on most issues dealt with by the government each year.
    C. The actions of special interest groups are ultimately more influential than the voting power of the public.
    D. The rapid turnover of government officials and members of the legislature prevents the majority public from making a sustained effort for any single issue.
    E. The most power tends to reside with a wealthy minority of the voting public, preventing the majority public from setting the issue agenda.

Answer 29

A. The public as a whole takes an interest in only a few of the hundreds of policy decisions that U.S. officials make each year.

Question 30

30. (p. 19) The fact that farmers have more influence over agricultural price-supports than do other groups is an example of 
A. majoritarianism.
B. pluralism.
C. elitism.
D. constitutionalism.
E. corporate power.

Answer 30

B. pluralism.

Question 31

31. (p. 19) Pluralism contends that, on most issues,
    A. corporate elites have more control over economic policy than do “the politicians in the visible government.”
    B. the will of the majority of the voting public determines government policy.
    C. it is the preferences of special interests that largely determine what government does.
    D. true authority lies with the elected politicians, and not with the public that put them in office.
    E. the diverse nature of the citizenry enhances the democratic process in policymaking.

Answer 31

C. it is the preferences of special interests that largely determine what government does.

Question 32

32. (p. 19) A government’s authority
    A. is evidenced when government officials use their right to exercise power.
    B. is by definition not coercive.
    C. does not include the power to arrest and imprison.
    D. ensures that lawlessness prevails most of the time.
    E. is based on pluralism.

Answer 32

A. is evidenced when government officials use their right to exercise power.

Question 33

33. (p. 20) From 1945 until the late 1960s, there was the highest degree of bipartisanship in the area of 
A. economic regulation.
B. taxation levels.
C. civil rights.
D. foreign affairs.
E. environmental policy.

Answer 33

D. foreign affairs.

Question 34

34. (p. 21) The Bill of Rights
    A. reduced the restrictiveness of constitutionalism.
    B. enhanced the powers of the executive.
    C. further checked the power of the majority.
    D. enhanced the majoritarian nature of government.
    E. restricted the power of corporate influence in the government.

Answer 34

C. further checked the power of the majority.

Question 35

35. (p. 21) The Bill of Rights added to the Constitution, among other things,
    A. a guarantee of freedom of speech.
    B. a division of governmental authority into three branches.
    C. checks and balances among the three branches of government.
    D. restrictions against the power of corporations to influence the election process.
    E. term limits for elected officials to reduce their power.

Answer 35

A. a guarantee of freedom of speech.

Question 36

36. (p. 21) In a constitutional system,
    A. there are no restrictions on the lawful uses of power, as long as this power is obtained by majority rule.
    B. there are lawful restrictions on a government’s power.
    C. the economy is based on the free enterprise system.
    D. officials govern according to the traditions established by their predecessors.
    E. all citizens have absolute free speech rights.

Answer 36

B. there are lawful restrictions on a government’s power.

Question 37

37. (p. 22) What new policy was established by the U.S. Supreme Court’s landmark Gideon v. Wainwright ruling?
    A. the right to trial by jury
    B. the need to charge an arrested suspect with a specific crime within 24 hours of arrest
    C. the requirement that police read a suspect his rights before or during arrest
    D. government provision of free legal counsel to the accused if they are too poor to hire a lawyer
    E. the practice of allowing a suspect out on bail until the time of the trial

Answer 37

D. government provision of free legal counsel to the accused if they are too poor to hire a lawyer

Question 38

38. (p. 22) How many lawyers does the United States have in comparison to Britain, Germany, and Italy?
    A. The U.S. has twice as many lawyers on a per capita basis.
    B. The U.S. has roughly the same amount of lawyers on a per capita basis.
    C. The U.S. has roughly twice as many lawyers, in terms of total numbers.
    D. The U.S. has roughly five times as many lawyers on a per capita basis.
    E. The U.S. has roughly half as many lawyers on a per capita basis.

Answer 38

A. The U.S. has twice as many lawyers on a per capita basis.

Question 39

39. (p. 22) Which of the following is a difference between communism and socialism, as described by the text?
    A. Under socialism, the government owns some firms, but under communism the government does not own any major assets.
    B. Under communism, the government assumes total management of the economy, whereas under socialism, the government does not try to manage the overall economy.
    C. Under socialism, the economy operates mainly through private transactions, but under communism, the government owns a number of major industries and tries to provide for people’s basic economic needs.
    D. Under communism, the government manages the economy completely but does not attempt to provide for people’s basic needs; under socialism, the government does not manage the economy completely, but does attempt to provide for people’s basic needs.
    E. Under socialism, the government owns more industries than a communist government does, but provides less direct benefit for individuals’ welfare.

Answer 39

B. Under communism, the government assumes total management of the economy, whereas under socialism, the government does not try to manage the overall economy.

Question 40

40. (p. 22) Which of the following describes socialism as practiced today in Sweden?
    A. The government does not attempt to manage the overall economy, but owns a number of major industries and provides for people’s basic economic needs.
    B. The government manages the overall economy through ownership of most major industries, and does not allow private property.
    C. The economy operates almost exclusively on private transactions.
    D. The government does little to manage the economy and owns no major industries, serving mainly to provide for people’s basic economic needs.
    E. Firms are largely free to make their own production, distribution, and pricing decisions, and individuals depend largely on themselves for economic security.

Answer 40

A. The government does not attempt to manage the overall economy, but owns a number of major industries and provides for people’s basic economic needs.

Question 41

41. (p. 23) The United States’ economy operates primarily as a
    A. free-market system.
    B. free-market system with major elements of socialism.
    C. socialist system with some free-market elements.
    D. socialist system.
    E. communist system.

Answer 41

A. free-market system.

Question 42

42. (p. 23) In which of the following ways is the U.S. free-market system distinct from European economies?
    A. its lack of regulatory intervention
    B. its lack of intervention through taxation
    C. its lack of intervention through spending policies
    D. the extent to which private transactions determine the allocation of economic costs and benefits
    E. the extent to which it exercises regulatory intervention by altering interest rates

Answer 42

D. the extent to which private transactions determine the allocation of economic costs and benefits

Question 43

43. (p. 23) Roughly two-thirds of all lobbyists in the nation’s capital represent
    A. activist organizations.
    B. labor unions.
    C. business firms.
    D. foreign-based political action groups.
    E. nonprofit organizations.

Answer 43

C. business firms.

Question 44

44. (p. 23) Enormous concentrations of wealth and power exist in the U.S. private sector, primarily in the hands of
    A. the largest labor unions.
    B. elite political families such as the Kennedys and the Bushes.
    C. middle class Americans.
    D. small businesses.
    E. large corporations.

Answer 44

E. large corporations.

Question 45

45. (p. 23) The average incomes of minimum-wage workers in the United States and Europe reflect a greater influence of which of the following in the United States, when compared to Europe? 
A. majoritarianism
B. elitism
C. corporate power
D. judicial action
E. constitutionalism

Answer 45

C. corporate power

Question 46

46. (p. 24) Sociologist C. Wright Mills was a proponent of the theory of 
A. pluralism.
B. elitism.
C. majoritarianism.
D. bureaucratic rule.
E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 46

B. elitism.

Question 47

47. (p. 25) As described in the text, “political thinking”
    A. is the reflection of an individual’s ideological position when applied to political issues.
    B. results from an individual allowing personal bias to inform all thoughts about political issues, instead of doing objective learning or research to form an opinion.
    C. involves the careful gathering and sifting of information in the process of forming a knowledgeable view about a political issue.
    D. is the result of an individual’s attempts to seek out news media that reinforce a pre-existing political bias.
    E. is a strategy taken by those seeking election to public office in which their publicly stated positions are designed to maximize their attractiveness to the widest voting bloc.

Answer 47

C. involves the careful gathering and sifting of information in the process of forming a knowledgeable view about a political issue.

Question 48

1. (p. 29) The idea that government should be restricted in its lawful uses of power and hence in its ability to deprive people of their liberty is expressed by the term 
A. federalism.
B. self-government.
C. judicial review.
D. limited government.
E. natural rights.

Answer 48

D. limited government.

Question 49

2. (p. 29) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ was the primary author of the Declaration of Independence. 
A. John Locke
B. Thomas Jefferson
C. James Madison
D. George Washington
E. Alexander Hamilton

Answer 49

B. Thomas Jefferson

Question 50

3. (p. 30) Early Americans’ preference for limited government was strengthened by
   A. their exposure to life under the British Parliament and some of the “rights of Englishmen.”
   B. Lockean philosophy.
   C. Britain’s treatment of the colonies after the French and Indian War.
   D. taxation without representation.
   E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 50

E. All of these answers are correct.

Question 51

4. (p. 31) Which of the following chronologies is correct?
   A. Boston Tea Party (1773); First Continental Congress (1774); and beginning of the American Revolution (1775)
   B. Shays’ Rebellion (1773); Annapolis Convention (1774); and Declaration of Independence (1776)
   C. Stamp Act (1775); Declaration of Independence (1776); and Philadelphia Convention (1788)
   D. Common Sense (1769); Declaration of Independence (1776); and The Federalist Papers (1783)
   E. Declaration of Independence (1776); Articles of Confederation (1787); Constitution (1791); and Federalist No. 10 (1795)

Answer 51

A. Boston Tea Party (1773); First Continental Congress (1774); and beginning of the American Revolution (1775)

Question 52

5. (p. 32) The European philosopher whose concept of natural rights had a great impact on American politics is 
A. Montesquieu.
B. Locke.
C. Hobbes.
D. Aristotle.
E. Burke.

Answer 52

B. Locke.

Question 53

6. (p. 32) The words of the Declaration of Independence reflected
   A. Aristotle’s conception of democracy.
   B. Montesquieu’s view of constitutionalism.
   C. Hobbes’s idea of the state of nature.
   D. Locke’s philosophy of inalienable rights.
   E. Madison’s view of factions.

Answer 53

D. Locke’s philosophy of inalienable rights.

Question 54

7. (p. 32) According to John Locke, inalienable rights in a social contract
   A. belong to the government only.
   B. belong to individuals but can be denied by government.
   C. belong to individuals and cannot be denied by government.
   D. cannot be guaranteed by any governmental body.
   E. are no longer as important to the individual as in a state of nature.

Answer 54

C. belong to individuals and cannot be denied by government.

Question 55

8. (p. 32) The inalienable rights enumerated in the Declaration of Independence are
   A. life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.
   B. liberty, equality, and fraternity.
   C. life, liberty, and property.
   D. life and property only.
   E. equality and liberty only.

Answer 55

A. life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.

Question 56

9. (p. 32) The first plan of government for the United States was a 
A. confederation.
B. federalist system.
C. unitary form of government.
D. monarchy.
E. theocracy.

Answer 56

A. confederation.

Question 57

10. (p. 32-33) Which of the following was NOT provided for by the Articles of Confederation?
    A. a national Congress
    B. each state having one vote in Congress
    C. unanimous approval by the states to amend the Articles
    D. a federal government subordinate to the states
    E. an independent federal executive

Answer 57

E. an independent federal executive

Question 58

11. (p. 33) Under the Articles of Confederation, Congress had the power to
    A. regulate commerce between states.
    B. regulate commerce between states and foreign countries.
    C. tax individual citizens.
    D. tax individual states.
    E. amend the Articles of Confederation.

Answer 58

E. amend the Articles of Confederation.

Question 59

12. (p. 35) Shays’ Rebellion
    A. was a successful revolt.
    B. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too powerful.
    C. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too weak.
    D. reinforced public support for the Articles of Confederation.
    E. occurred after the Philadelphia convention of 1787.

Answer 59

C. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too weak.

Question 60

13. (p. 35) The Annapolis convention
    A. produced several amendments to the Articles of Confederation.
    B. was convened to fix problems that arose with the United States Constitution.
    C. officially ratified the Bill of Rights.
    D. was attended by less than half the thirteen states.
    E. was a crucial step that led to the United States declaring independence from Britain.

Answer 60

D. was attended by less than half the thirteen states.

Question 61

14. (p. 36) Under the Virginia Plan
    A. the new Constitution would be only marginally stronger than the Articles of Confederation.
    B. slaves would count as four-fifths of a person when apportioning legislative representatives.
    C. large states would have more representatives in both chambers of Congress.
    D. Congress could not regulate either interstate trade or international trade.
    E. two of the northern states would have had no representatives at all in Congress.

Answer 61

C. large states would have more representatives in both chambers of Congress.

Question 62

15. (p. 36) Under the New Jersey Plan, each state would have \_\_\_\_ vote(s) in Congress. 
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. five

Answer 62

A. one

Question 63

16. (p. 36) The Great Compromise produced 
A. checks and balances.
B. the abolition of slavery.
C. a bicameral Congress.
D. separation of powers.
E. federalism.

Answer 63

C. a bicameral Congress.

Question 64

17. (p. 37) The “Three-Fifths Compromise” was a response to
    A. conflict over the institution of slavery.
    B. the concerns of small states.
    C. apportionment in the U.S. Senate.
    D. the Electoral College.
    E. the demands of large states.

Answer 64

A. conflict over the institution of slavery.

Question 65

18. (p. 37) Under the original Constitution, Congress could not ban the slave trade until \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. 1808
B. 1828
C. 1848
D. 1865
E. 1887

Answer 65

A. 1808

Question 66

19. (p. 38) Which of the following states had the lowest percentage of African Americans in 1790? 
A. Georgia
B. Pennsylvania
C. South Carolina
D. North Carolina
E. Virginia

Answer 66

B. Pennsylvania

Question 67

20. (p. 39) The Constitution was ratified by 
A. the people.
B. local referendums.
C. the states.
D. the Supreme Court.
E. the Continental Congress.

Answer 67

C. the states.

Question 68

21. (p. 39) In order for the Constitution to go into effect, at least this number of states would need to ratify it: 
A. five.
B. seven.
C. nine.
D. eleven.
E. thirteen.

Answer 68

C. nine.

Question 69

22. (p. 40) Most Anti-Federalists feared that the new government would be dominated by 
A. political elites.
B. farmers.
C. clergymen.
D. political "factions."
E. debtors.

Answer 69

A. political elites.

Question 70

23. (p. 41) Presidents are
    A. directly selected by the people.
    B. selected by votes of the state legislatures.
    C. selected by votes of the Electoral College.
    D. subject to recall elections.
    E. subject to confidence votes by Congress.

Answer 70

C. selected by votes of the Electoral College.

Question 71

24. (p. 41) The Federalist Papers were written by 
A. Washington, Adams, and Jefferson.
B. Franklin, Washington, and Lee.
C. Jefferson, Locke, and Montesquieu.
D. Madison, Hamilton, and Jay.
E. Marshall, Jefferson, and Adams.

Answer 71

D. Madison, Hamilton, and Jay.

Question 72

25. (p. 41) The document explaining the ideas of the Constitution and urging its ratification is 
A. the Mayflower Compact.
B. the Declaration of Independence.
C. The Anti-Federalist Papers.
D. The Federalist Papers.
E. the Declaration of Conscience.

Answer 72

D. The Federalist Papers.

Question 73

26. (p. 41) During the debates over the ratification of the Constitution, most people assumed that this person would be the first president: 
A. James Madison.
B. George Washington.
C. Thomas Jefferson.
D. Alexander Hamilton.
E. Benjamin Franklin.

Answer 73

B. George Washington.

Question 74

27. (p. 41) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ presided over the Philadelphia convention of 1787. 
A. Benjamin Franklin
B. Gouverneur Morris
C. Edmund Randolph
D. James Madison
E. George Washington

Answer 74

E. George Washington

Question 75

28. (p. 42) The Federalists gained enough votes to get the Constitution ratified when they promised this:
    A. a bill of rights to be quickly added to the Constitution.
    B. a banning of the slave trade after 1808.
    C. the right of states to disobey any national law they didn’t like.
    D. James Madison to be the first president.
    E. a Supreme Court with the right of judicial review.

Answer 75

A. a bill of rights to be quickly added to the Constitution

Question 76

29. (p. 43) In which of the following states was the vote for the ratification of the Constitution very close? 
A. Maryland
B. Georgia
C. Pennsylvania
D. New York
E. New Jersey

Answer 76

D. New York

Question 77

30. (p. 44-45) Through the grants of power in the Constitution, the framers sought to
    A. define the powers of state governments.
    B. create a government in which sovereignty was invested in the national government only.
    C. both empower government and limit it.
    D. enumerate the rights of individuals.
    E. abolish slavery.

Answer 77

C. both empower government and limit it.

Question 78

31. (p. 45) The Constitution prevents the government from suspending the writ of habeas corpus, meaning that the government cannot
    A. prosecute persons for acts that were legal at the time they were committed.
    B. establish a state religion based on Christian beliefs.
    C. enact laws that would legalize the practice of indentured servitude.
    D. jail a person without a court hearing to determine the legality of his or her imprisonment.
    E. silence freedom of the press.

Answer 78

D. jail a person without a court hearing to determine the legality of his or her imprisonment.

Question 79

32. (p. 45) The Constitution forbids Congress from
    A. proposing constitutional amendments.
    B. passing ex post facto laws.
    C. declaring war.
    D. proposing the repeal of constitutional amendments.
    E. creating a national university.

Answer 79

B. passing ex post facto laws.

Question 80

33. (p. 45) Where is the Bill of Rights found in the Constitution? 
A. Article I, Section 8
B. Article II
C. the first ten amendments
D. amendments 17 through 26
E. Article III

Answer 80

C. the first ten amendments

Question 81

34. (p. 46) In Federalist No. 10, James Madison argued that
    A. government is most dangerous when a single group is powerful enough to gain full political control.
    B. monarchies are preferable to democracies.
    C. America was not diverse enough to prevent powerful interest groups from exercising too much political power.
    D. interest groups should be heavily regulated in America.
    E. interest groups are less troublesome than political parties.

Answer 81

A. government is most dangerous when a single group is powerful enough to gain full political control.

Question 82

35. (p. 46) The origin of the concept of separation of powers is most associated with 
A. Montesquieu.
B. Aristotle.
C. Hobbes.
D. Locke.
E. Jefferson.

Answer 82

A. Montesquieu.

Question 83

36. (p. 47) The framers’ most significant modification of the traditional doctrine of the separation of powers was to
    A. include federalism.
    B. include a two-chamber legislature.
    C. define legislative power precisely, while defining executive and judicial power only in general terms.
    D. ensure that the powers of the separate branches overlap, so that each could better act as a check on the others.
    E. grant the power of judicial review to the judiciary.

Answer 83

D. ensure that the powers of the separate branches overlap, so that each could better act as a check on the others.

Question 84

37. (p. 47) The principle of checks and balances is based on the notion that
    A. leaders are the trustees of the people.
    B. a weak government is always preferable to a strong government.
    C. all legislative and executive action should be controlled through judicial power.
    D. power must be used to offset power.
    E. legislators and executives cannot be trusted, but judges are trustworthy.

Answer 84

D. power must be used to offset power.

Question 85

38. (p. 47) Judicial review is the power of the American courts to
    A. declare a law unconstitutional.
    B. suspend the writ of habeas corpus.
    C. impeach the president.
    D. give advisory opinions to Congress.
    E. give advice and counsel to the president.

Answer 85

A. declare a law unconstitutional.

Question 86

39. (p. 47-48) Which of the following is an example of checks and balances? 
A. the veto
B. the impeachment process
C. approval of treaties
D. judicial review
E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 86

E. All of these answers are correct.

Question 87

40. (p. 48) Presidential appointments and treaties must be approved by 
A. Congress.
B. only the president.
C. the Senate.
D. the Supreme Court.
E. the secretary of state.

Answer 87

A. Congress.

Question 88

41. (p. 48) Which of the following is NOT among the checks Congress has on the executive?
    A. power to ratify treaties
    B. power to approve executive appointments
    C. power to appropriate funding
    D. power to impeach
    E. power to declare an executive action unlawful

Answer 88

E. power to declare an executive action unlawful

Question 89

42. (p. 49) In practice, the most significant restraint imposed by Congress on the president is its
    A. ability to override presidential vetoes.
    B. power of impeachment.
    C. power to make the laws and appropriate money, for these determine the programs the executive can implement.
    D. power to approve presidential appointees.
    E. power to investigate presidential activities.

Answer 89

C. power to make the laws and appropriate money, for these determine the programs the executive can implement.

Question 90

43. (p. 49) Which of the following nations is often noted as an example of a government that has a system of checks and balances but is often plagued by political extremes? 
A. France
B. Japan
C. Mexico
D. Great Britain
E. Canada

Answer 90

C. Mexico

Question 91

44. (p. 50) The Bill of Rights was added to the Constitution
    A. by the framers during the Philadelphia convention.
    B. in stages, from 1789 to 1798.
    C. in response to the freeing of the slaves during the Civil War.
    D. in response to the ideals of Jacksonian democracy.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 91

E. None of these answers is correct.

Question 92

45. (p. 51) Marbury v. Madison is a landmark Supreme Court decision because it
    A. established national supremacy.
    B. set the precedent for judicial review.
    C. defined the scope of state powers under the Tenth Amendment.
    D. affirmed the necessary and proper clause.
    E. helped to end Thomas Jefferson’s political career.

Answer 92

B. set the precedent for judicial review.

Question 93

46. (p. 51) Who was serving as chief justice of the Supreme Court when it decided the case of Marbury v. Madison? 
A. John Marshall
B. Thomas Jefferson
C. John Adams
D. James Madison
E. Edmund Burke

Answer 93

A. John Marshall

Question 94

47. (p. 52) How did Congress retaliate to the Supreme Court’s reprimand, in Marbury v. Madison, that it had passed legislation that exceeded its constitutional authority?
    A. It passed legislation to reduce the power of judicial review.
    B. It forced the Court to accept the power to issue writs of mandamus.
    C. Congress had no effective way to retaliate.
    D. It voted to impeach the Chief Justice.
    E. It completely disregarded the Court’s ruling.

Answer 94

C. Congress had no effective way to retaliate

Question 95

48. (p. 52) Marbury v. Madison was an ingenious decision because it
    A. turned a case that involved the issue of states’ rights into one that asserted national power.
    B. redefined the constitutional relationship between the president and Congress.
    C. asserted the power of the judiciary without creating the possibility of its rejection by either the executive or the legislative branch.
    D. turned a case that involved the issue of states’ rights into one that asserted judicial power over the institutions of society.
    E. gave more power to the presidency, at the expense of Congress.

Answer 95

C. asserted the power of the judiciary without creating the possibility of its rejection by either the executive or the legislative branch.

Question 96

49. (p. 53) To the framers, the great danger of democratic government was the risk of 
A. tyranny of the majority.
B. elite rule.
C. special-interest politics.
D. a weak presidency.
E. judicial imperialism.

Answer 96

A. tyranny of the majority.

Question 97

50. (p. 54) The framers of the Constitution preferred which of the following political arrangements?
    A. a republic as opposed to a pure democracy
    B. a monarchy as opposed to a constitutional system
    C. a pure democracy over a republic
    D. a pure democracy over a representative democracy
    E. socialism over capitalism

Answer 97

A. a republic as opposed to a pure democracy

Question 98

51. (p. 54) The writers of the Constitution used the term \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to describe a form of government that consists of carefully designed institutions that are responsive to the majority but not captive to it. 
A. democracy
B. republic
C. federalism
D. majoritarianism
E. separation of power

Answer 98

B. republic

Question 99

52. (p. 54) The framers entrusted the selection of U.S. senators to 
A. specially chosen electors.
B. state legislatures.
C. direct vote of the people.
D. state governors.
E. federal magistrates.

Answer 99

B. state legislatures.

Question 100

53. (p. 55) The writers of the Constitution devised the Electoral College as the method of choosing presidents because
    A. direct election was impractical due to the poor systems of communication and transportation that existed in the late 1700s.
    B. that method would shield executive power from direct linkage to popular majorities.
    C. that method guaranteed a majority winner.
    D. that method would give weight to the preferences of ordinary people.
    E. the framers had a great deal of faith in the wisdom of the masses.

Answer 100

B. that method would shield executive power from direct linkage to popular majorities.

Question 101

54. (p. 55) The term of office for a U.S. senator is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ years, while that of a member of the U.S. House is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ years. 
A. six; two
B. four; two
C. six; four
D. four; four
E. eight; four

Answer 101

A. six; two

Question 102

55. (p. 55) The writers of the Constitution justified different methods of selection and varying terms of office for the president, Senate, and House as a means of
    A. increasing popular influence.
    B. protection against rapid control by an impassioned majority.
    C. preventing elite control of government.
    D. maintaining experienced leadership.
    E. increasing voter turnout.

Answer 102

B. protection against rapid control by an impassioned majority.

Question 103

56. (p. 56) All but one state constitution formed after the American Revolution
    A. provided for choosing governors in direct annual elections.
    B. provided for a less direct form of self-government than the national-level framers intended.
    C. provided for annual legislative elections.
    D. included more severe checks and balances than the U.S. Constitution.
    E. drastically limited the power of the executive in comparison to the legislature.

Answer 103

A. provided for choosing governors in direct annual elections.

Question 104

57. (p. 56) President John Adams publicly indicated that
    A. the federal government would not use force against common people that were simply seeking their inalienable rights.
    B. the Constitution was designed for a governing elite.
    C. dissent against the federal government would be welcomed as part of the birthing pangs of a republic.
    D. he disagreed with the concept of a republic and preferred more direct democratic rule.
    E. he felt he was the president of the “common folk.”

Answer 104

B. the Constitution was designed for a governing elite.

Question 105

58. (p. 56) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ referred to his victory in the presidential election as the "Revolution of 1800." 
A. John Adams
B. Andrew Jackson
C. John Marshall
D. Thomas Jefferson
E. James Madison

Answer 105

D. Thomas Jefferson

Question 106

59. (p. 56) Which of the following developments in the national political system did NOT provide for more popular control? 
A. primary elections
B. direct election of U.S. senators
C. recall elections
D. initiative and referendum
E. judicial review

Answer 106

E. judicial review

Question 107

60. (p. 57) Andrew Jackson persuaded the states to choose their presidential electors
    A. on the basis of the popular vote.
    B. by a vote of the state legislature.
    C. by a vote of Congress.
    D. by a presidential convention.
    E. on the basis of one state, one elector.

Answer 107

A. on the basis of the popular vote.

Question 108

61. (p. 57-58) Progressive reforms included 
A. primary elections.
B. direct election of U.S. senators.
C. the initiative and referendum.
D. recall elections.
E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 108

E. All of these answers are correct.

Question 109

62. (p. 58) The direct election of U.S. senators came about due to
    A. passage of the Second Amendment.
    B. political pressure from the Progressives.
    C. Jeffersonian democracy.
    D. Jacksonian democracy.
    E. the fact that state legislators no longer desired to select them.

Answer 109

B. political pressure from the Progressives

Question 110

63. (p. 60) A contemporary legislator who voted for a bill because of a belief in its benefit, even though his constituents back home overwhelmingly opposed the bill, would be performing the Edmund Burke role of 
A. trustee.
B. delegate.
C. statesperson.
D. politician.
E. oversight.

Answer 110

A. trustee.

Question 111

64. (p. 60) Edmund Burke’s idea of representatives as trustees was based on the claim that
    A. representatives should follow their own judgment of the public interest.
    B. representatives should follow the voters’ judgment of the public interest.
    C. indirect election is a more trustworthy means of discovering the public interest.
    D. direct election is a more trustworthy means of discovering the public interest.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 111

A. representatives should follow their own judgment of the public interest.

Question 112

65. (p. 60) In his criticism of the Constitution, the economist Charles Beard argued that
    A. the Constitution’s elaborate systems of power and representation were designed to protect the interests of the rich.
    B. the Constitution failed to protect the economic interests of the poorer states.
    C. the Constitution’s commerce clause was inadequate to meet the nation’s economic needs.
    D. the Constitution did not provide for sufficient protection of property.
    E. the Constitution gave too much power to the illiterate.

Answer 112

A. the Constitution’s elaborate systems of power and representation were designed to protect the interests of the rich.

Question 113

66. (p. 61) Which of the following aspects of U.S. government might be used as part of an argument that the U.S. is less democratic than some other democracies?
    A. the extension of popular direct election to office
    B. the frequency of election of its larger legislative body
    C. its extensive reliance on primary elections
    D. the frequency of election of its chief executive
    E. its staggered terms of office of members of the legislature

Answer 113

E. its staggered terms of office of members of the legislature

Question 114

1. (p. 65-66) The 2010 Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
   A. was ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 2012.
   B. initially had the support of nearly every single state.
   C. was passed by strong bipartisan majorities.
   D. is a voluntary program with no penalties for nonparticipation.
   E. None of these answers are correct.

Answer 114

E. None of these answers are correct.

Question 115

2. (p. 67) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ opposed the ratification of the U.S. Constitution. 
A. George Washington
B. Patrick Henry
C. James Madison
D. Benjamin Franklin
E. John Adams

Answer 115

B. Patrick Henry

Question 116

3. (p. 69) The writers of the Constitution established a federal system of government in part because
   A. the states already existed as established entities and had to be preserved.
   B. few states in history had successfully established unitary governments.
   C. Locke and Montesquieu had concluded it was superior to other systems of government.
   D. the British political system was based on the federal principle.
   E. the states would be valuable sources of revenue for a federal government

Answer 116

A. the states already existed as established entities and had to be preserved.

Question 117

4. (p. 69) Sovereignty refers to
   A. a government headed by a king.
   B. a division of authority between the national government and the states.
   C. supreme and final governing authority.
   D. sub-national (state) governments.
   E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 117

C. supreme and final governing authority.

Question 118

5. (p. 70) In 1787, most countries in the world had a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ form of government. 
A. confederal
B. federal
C. unitary
D. democratic
E. theocratic

Answer 118

C. unitary

Question 119

6. (p. 70) Which choice below describes the American change in governmental structure in 1787? 
A. unitary to confederal
B. confederal to unitary
C. federal to unitary
D. confederal to federal
E. federal to confederal

Answer 119

D. confederal to federal

Question 120

7. (p. 70) In America today, public education is primarily the responsibility of
   A. the national government.
   B. state and local governments.
   C. the National Education Association (NEA).
   D. the American Federation of Teachers (AFT).
   E. the U.S. Department of Education.

Answer 120

B. state and local governments.

Question 121

8. (p. 70) Which of the following is a national power only? 
A. law enforcement
B. intrastate commerce
C. borrowing money
D. transportation
E. national defense

Answer 121

E. national defense

Question 122

9. (p. 70) Which of the following is almost exclusively a state power? 
A. chartering banks
B. delivering mail
C. law enforcement
D. registering voters
E. loaning money

Answer 122

D. registering voters

Question 123

10. (p. 70) Which of the following is a concurrent power held by both the national government and state governments? 
A. chartering local governments
B. issuing currency
C. taxation
D. foreign affairs
E. national defense

Answer 123

C. taxation

Question 124

11. (p. 70) The Constitution allows states to
    A. raise an army in peacetime.
    B. print money.
    C. make commercial agreements with other states without the consent of Congress.
    D. govern intrastate commerce.
    E. govern interstate commerce.

Answer 124

D. govern intrastate commerce.

Question 125

12. (p. 71) All the following countries have a unitary or modified unitary form of government EXCEPT 
A. Canada.
B. Sweden.
C. France.
D. Japan.
E. Great Britain.

Answer 125

A. Canada.

Question 126

13. (p. 72) Which of the following was an argument in favor of federalism at the time of the writing of the Constitution?
    A. Federalism will protect liberty.
    B. Federalism will force officials to be more responsive to the people.
    C. Federalism will provide for a stronger national government than existed under the Articles of Confederation.
    D. Federalism will be less likely to produce an all-dominant faction.
    E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 126

E. All of these answers are correct.

Question 127

14. (p. 72) According to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, a large republic is less likely to have an all-powerful faction. 
A. Patrick Henry
B. George Mason
C. James Madison
D. John C. Calhoun
E. John Marshall Harlan

Answer 127

C. James Madison

Question 128

15. (p. 73) The enumerated powers in Article I of the Constitution were intended to
    A. limit the powers of the state governments.
    B. ensure that neither small nor large states would be at a disadvantage.
    C. ensure that neither northern nor southern states would be at a disadvantage.
    D. establish a government strong enough to forge a union that was secure in its defense and stable in its economy.
    E. limit the power of the presidency.

Answer 128

D. establish a government strong enough to forge a union that was secure in its defense and stable in its economy.

Question 129

16. (p. 73) The federal government's power to tax, regulate commerce among the states, and declare war are all examples of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ powers. 
A. reserved
B. enumerated
C. implied
D. concurrent
E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 129

B. enumerated

Question 130

17. (p. 74-75) Which of the following is NOT an enumerated power? 
A. public education
B. regulation of commerce
C. declaration of war
D. taxation
E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 130

A. public education

Question 131

18. (p. 75) Which of the following is most closely related to the concept of implied powers? 
A. necessary and proper clause
B. supremacy clause
C. Tenth Amendment
D. the commerce clause
E. the power to tax

Answer 131

A. necessary and proper clause

Question 132

19. (p. 75) The elastic clause is related to which of the following concepts? 
A. enumerated powers
B. reserved powers
C. implied powers
D. concurrent powers
E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 132

C. implied powers

Question 133

20. (p. 75) According to the Anti-Federalists, too strong of a national government meant
    A. eventual encroachment upon the sovereignty of the states.
    B. that a new constitutional convention would have to convene every few years.
    C. that a monarchy was preferable to a republic.
    D. that effective commerce between and among the states was an impossibility.
    E. that slavery would be abolished immediately.

Answer 133

A. eventual encroachment upon the sovereignty of the states.

Question 134

21. (p. 76) The Tenth Amendment addressed the concerns of Anti-Federalists about 
A. individual freedoms.
B. the meaning of the commerce clause.
C. popular representation in Congress.
D. the powers of state governments.
E. the Electoral College.

Answer 134

D. the powers of state governments

Question 135

22. (p. 76) Viewed in historical terms, federalism has been a
    A. contentious and dynamic system that has adapted to the needs of the time.
    B. theoretical principle, in that constitutional provisions for federalism have had virtually no impact on the relationship between the nation and the states.
    C. flawed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and the states has been a constant source of problems without many positive benefits.
    D. fixed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and states is almost completely defined by provisions of the Constitution.
    E. poor replacement for the confederal system which existed before the Constitution.

Answer 135

A. contentious and dynamic system that has adapted to the needs of the time.

Question 136

23. (p. 78) McCulloch v. Maryland
    A. ruled in favor of state-centered federalism.
    B. asserted that the necessary and proper clause was a restriction on the power of the national government.
    C. affirmed that national law is supreme to conflicting state law.
    D. established the Supreme Court’s power to judge constitutional issues.
    E. allowed for a narrow reading of the Constitution.

Answer 136

C. affirmed that national law is supreme to conflicting state law.

Question 137

24. (p. 79) Which of the following individuals would agree that each state should be allowed to determine for itself the extent to which national authority restricts its actions? 
A. John Marshall
B. John C. Calhoun
C. Lyndon Johnson
D. Franklin D. Roosevelt
E. None of these answers is correct

Answer 137

B. John C. Calhoun

Question 138

25. (p. 79) The doctrine of nullification is most closely associated with 
A. Thomas Jefferson.
B. Andrew Jackson.
C. Roger B. Taney.
D. John C. Calhoun.
E. John Marshall.

Answer 138

D. John C. Calhoun.

Question 139

26. (p. 79) All of the following embraced the "national view" of federalism EXCEPT 
A. John Marshall.
B. Roger Taney.
C. Franklin D. Roosevelt.
D. Lyndon B. Johnson.
E. Alexander Hamilton.

Answer 139

B. Roger Taney.

Question 140

27. (p. 80) Through its Dred Scott decision, the Supreme Court
    A. ruled that “free land” made “free men.”
    B. upheld free blacks’ rights of citizenship.
    C. upheld the principles of the Missouri Compromise.
    D. soothed sectarian tensions.
    E. ruled that Congress could not outlaw slavery anywhere in the United States.

Answer 140

E. ruled that Congress could not outlaw slavery anywhere in the United States.

Question 141

28. (p. 80) From President Abraham Lincoln’s perspective, the decision to wage a civil war against the southern states is best summarized in what fashion?
    A. States that allowed slavery were no longer sovereign.
    B. The states were older than the union.
    C. Southern states had abused the “reserved powers” amendment.
    D. The union was older than the states.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 141

D. The union was older than the states.

Question 142

29. (p. 80) Dual federalism held that
    A. the states were equal to the national government in all respects.
    B. a precise separation of national and state authority was both possible and desirable.
    C. national and state authority were indivisible.
    D. the Senate and the House were equal in their federal authority.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 142

B. a precise separation of national and state authority was both possible and desirable.

Question 143

30. (p. 80) What was the impact of the Industrial Revolution upon the concept of dual federalism?
    A. It brought about the immediate end of the concept.
    B. It created dominant business interests that raised questions about the suitability of dual federalism as a governing concept.
    C. It had no impact at all upon the concept.
    D. It led to passage of the Tenth Amendment.
    E. It made the doctrine of nullification a political reality.

Answer 143

B. It created dominant business interests that raised questions about the suitability of dual federalism as a governing concept.

Question 144

31. (p. 80, 86) A blending of state and national authority is associated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ federalism, while a separation of national and state authority is associated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ federalism. 
A. dual; fiscal
B. dual; cooperative
C. cooperative; dual
D. picket-fence; cooperative
E. cooperative; pyramid

Answer 144

C. cooperative; dual

Question 145

32. (p. 80) The only counterforce that was potentially strong enough to control the business trusts of the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries was 
A. government.
B. the buying public.
C. organized labor.
D. business competitors.
E. farmers.

Answer 145

A. government.

Question 146

33. (p. 81) The period of dual federalism (1865-1937) was marked by
    A. congressional supremacy in the area of commerce.
    B. state-government supremacy in the area of commerce.
    C. presidential supremacy in the area of commerce.
    D. business supremacy in the area of commerce.
    E. national supremacy in the area of commerce.

Answer 146

D. business supremacy in the area of commerce.

Question 147

34. (p. 81) The "separate but equal" standard was created by 
A. Congress.
B. the Supreme Court.
C. the state supreme court of Virginia.
D. President Ulysses S. Grant.
E. Justice John Marshall Harlan.

Answer 147

B. the Supreme Court.

Question 148

35. (p. 81) Which decision is indicative of how the Supreme Court interpreted the Fourteenth Amendment and state discretion in civil rights matters in the decades after the Civil War? 
A. Brown v. Board of Education
B. the Dred Scott decision
C. Plessy v. Ferguson
D. McCulloch v. Maryland
E. Gibbons v. Ogden

Answer 148

C. Plessy v. Ferguson

Question 149

36. (p. 83) In Lochner v. New York (1905), the Supreme Court ruled that
    A. the doctrine of separate but equal was constitutional.
    B. state regulation of labor practices violated firms’ property rights.
    C. the Fourth Amendment did not apply to interstate commerce.
    D. factory practices could only be regulated by the states.
    E. factory practices could only be regulated by the federal government.

Answer 149

B. state regulation of labor practices violated firms’ property rights.

Question 150

37. (p. 83) At the worst depths of the Great Depression, approximately \_\_ percent of workers were unemployed. 
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 40
E. 60

Answer 150

C. 25

Question 151

38. (p. 84) In key decisions early in the New Deal era, the Supreme Court
    A. invalidated key pieces of FDR’s New Deal legislation.
    B. upheld FDR’s “court-packing” proposal.
    C. ruled that segregation violated the Fourteenth Amendment.
    D. ruled that public accommodations were part of interstate commerce.
    E. invalidated the commerce clause.

Answer 151

A. invalidated key pieces of FDR’s New Deal legislation.

Question 152

39. (p. 84) During the Great Depression of the 1930s, the national government
    A. provided vast sums to business firms to keep them out of bankruptcy.
    B. provided health care to Americans on a temporary basis as a means of alleviating economic hardships.
    C. asserted the power to regulate the nation’s economy.
    D. provided vast sums to the states so they could meet their citizens’ welfare needs.
    E. utilized laissez-faire capitalism in its policies.

Answer 152

C. asserted the power to regulate the nation’s economy.

Question 153

40. (p. 85) In its 1954 Brown v. Board of Education decision, the Supreme Court gave the federal government more power in the area of 
A. business regulation.
B. labor organizing.
C. environmental policy.
D. civil rights enforcement.
E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 153

D. civil rights enforcement.

Question 154

41. (p. 85) The expansion of national authority in the twentieth century first became evident in this decade: 
A. 1930s.
B. 1950s.
C. 1960s.
D. 1980s.
E. 1990s.

Answer 154

A. 1930s

Question 155

42. (p. 86) Devolution is the
    A. passing of authority from the national government to the state and local levels.
    B. expansion of national authority that began in the 1930s.
    C. contraction of state authority and the expansion of local government authority.
    D. expansion of national authority that began in the 1960s.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 155

A. passing of authority from the national government to the state and local levels.

Question 156

43. (p. 86) National authority has greatly expanded in the twentieth century in large part because
    A. the states and the federal government have become increasingly interdependent.
    B. constitutional amendments have opened the way for wider application of national authority.
    C. the state governments have shown themselves to be an ineffective level of government.
    D. the Democrats have been in control of Congress for most of the century.
    E. Americans like the idea of “big government.”

Answer 156

A. the states and the federal government have become increasingly interdependent.

Question 157

44. (p. 86) A public policy program on which national, state, and local policymakers collaborate is an example of 
A. dual federalism.
B. cooperative federalism.
C. unitary federalism.
D. confederal federalism.
E. cosponsor federalism.

Answer 157

B. cooperative federalism.

Question 158

45. (p. 86) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an illustration of cooperative federalism. 
A. The U.S. Postal Service
B. Medicaid
C. A marriage license
D. A driver's license
E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 158

B. Medicaid

Question 159

46. (p. 88) Fiscal federalism refers to the
    A. coordinated fiscal policy decisions of the federal government and the states.
    B. expenditure of federal funds on programs run in part through state and local governments.
    C. national banking system first established by Alexander Hamilton in the 1790s.
    D. fact that both the federal government and the states have the power to tax.
    E. ability of the states to manipulate federal decision making

Answer 159

B. expenditure of federal funds on programs run in part through state and local governments

Question 160

47. (p. 88) Which of the following statements is true?
    A. The federal government raises roughly as much revenue from taxation as all state and local governments combined.
    B. The federal government raises significantly more tax revenue than all state and local governments combined.
    C. State and local governments combined raise twice as much revenue from taxation as the federal government.
    D. State and local governments combined raise three times as much revenue from taxation as the federal government.
    E. State and local governments combined raise six times as much revenue as the federal government.

Answer 160

A. The federal government raises roughly as much revenue from taxation as all state and local governments combined.

Question 161

48. (p. 89) Roughly one in every \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ dollars spent by local and state governments in recent decades was raised not by them but by the government in Washington. 
A. two
B. five
C. ten
D. fifty
E. one hundred

Answer 161

B. five

Question 162

49. (p. 89) If a state accepts a federal grant-in-aid, it must
    A. comply with federal restrictions on its use.
    B. reimburse the federal government after a specified period.
    C. match the funds with twice that amount in state funds.
    D. reduce its income tax rates to adjust for the increased income.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 162

A. comply with federal restrictions on its use.

Question 163

50. (p. 89) In what decade did federal grants-in-aid NOT expand significantly? 
A. 1960s
B. 1970s
C. 1980s
D. 1990s
E. 2000s

Answer 163

C. 1980s

Question 164

51. (p. 90) States in which region receive more of their revenue from the federal government than do most other states?
    A. the West
    B. the Northeast
    C. the Midwest
    D. the South
    E. the noncontiguous states of Alaska and Hawaii

Answer 164

D. the South

Question 165

52. (p. 91) Political conservatives who favor more political power devolved back to the states would likely prefer which of the following? 
A. categorical grants
B. block grants
C. Pell grants
D. higher tax rates for the wealthy
E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 165

E. None of these answers is correct.

Question 166

53. (p. 91) Federal grants-in-aid used only for a designated activity are called 
A. categorical grants.
B. block grants.
C. revenue-sharing grants.
D. targeted grants.
E. streamlined grants.

Answer 166

A. categorical grants.

Question 167

54. (p. 92) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ advocated a "new federalism." 
A. President Ronald Reagan
B. President George W. Bush
C. President John Kennedy
D. President Lyndon Johnson
E. President Jimmy Carter

Answer 167

A. President Ronald Reagan

Question 168

55. (p. 92) What did Reagan promote as part of his version of “new federalism”?
    A. an increase in federal funding of state education initiatives
    B. a reduction of the Supreme Court’s role in determining the line between federal and state finance
    C. the use of block grants over categorical grants
    D. increased policy collaboration between states and the federal government
    E. a reduction in federal enumerated powers

Answer 168

C. the use of block grants over categorical grants

Question 169

56. (p. 92) What did Newt Gingrich declare about federalism in 1994?
    A. that government had moved too far away from the federalism of the early twentieth century
    B. that power was beginning to swing back to the federal government
    C. that the 1960s-style federalism was dead
    D. that federalism was the only system that could preserve the power of the states
    E. that the federal government had betrayed the promise of states’ rights in the Constitution

Answer 169

C. that the 1960s-style federalism was dead

Question 170

57. (p. 92) The TANF aspect of the Welfare Reform Act
    A. was a categorical grant that restricted federal assistance to three years but limited state discretion in how to use the funds.
    B. was a block grant that, among other aspects, restricted federal assistance to five years.
    C. was a categorical grant that placed no time restrictions on federal assistance but dramatically limited state discretion in how to use the funds.
    D. was a block grant with no time or activity restrictions on how to use federal funds.
    E. ended direct federal welfare assistance to the states in grants of any form.

Answer 170

B. was a block grant that, among other aspects, restricted federal assistance to five years.

Question 171

58. (p. 93-94) Starting in the 1990s, the Supreme Court has rolled back some of the power of the national government, basing its decisions primarily on interpretations of these two amendments: 
A. First and Fourth.
B. First and Fourteenth.
C. Tenth and Fourteenth.
D. Eleventh and Fourteenth.
E. Tenth and Eleventh.

Answer 171

E. Tenth and Eleventh.

Question 172

59. (p. 94) The No Child Left Behind Act
    A. increased state authority over education policy but provided greater federal funds for education.
    B. dramatically increased state authority over education policy.
    C. was part of the reversal of the devolution movement.
    D. was the last significant piece of legislation that contributed to devolution of authority to the states.
    E. was the centerpiece to President George W. Bush’s version of “new federalism.”

Answer 172

C. was part of the reversal of the devolution movement.

Question 173

60. (p. 95-96) The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
    A. increased state control over health insurance.
    B. decreased state control over health insurance.
    C. had no significant impact on state control over health insurance.
    D. ended government regulation of health insurance.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 173

B. decreased state control over health insurance.

Question 174

61. (p. 97) From 1789 to 1865, the most significant issue of federalism was
    A. the application of the Bill of Rights to action by the state governments.
    B. whether the states would accept the lawful authority of the national government.
    C. whether business trusts would be regulated primarily by the states or by the national government.
    D. whether the states would respect the sovereignty of neighboring states.
    E. laissez-faire capitalism.

Answer 174

B. whether the states would accept the lawful authority of the national government.

Question 175

1. (p. 102) The term civil liberties refers to specific individual rights that
   A. apply in civil cases but not in criminal cases.
   B. apply in civil cases but not in military ones.
   C. are constitutionally protected from infringement by government.
   D. are constitutionally protected from infringement by individuals.
   E. are not covered by the First Amendment.

Answer 175

C. are constitutionally protected from infringement by government.

Question 176

2. (p. 102) The individual right that is widely regarded as the most basic of individual rights is
   A. the right to an attorney.
   B. freedom of expression.
   C. the right to a jury trial.
   D. the right to an adequate education.
   E. protection against illegal searches and seizures.

Answer 176

B. freedom of expression.

Question 177

3. (p. 102) Which constitutional amendment protects the individual against self-incrimination? 
A. First
B. Second
C. Fourth
D. Fifth
E. Ninth

Answer 177

D. Fifth

Question 178

4. (p. 102) Like all other rights, the right of free expression is
   A. spelled out in precise terms in the Bill of Rights.
   B. not absolute.
   C. fully respected by public officials.
   D. protected from action by federal officials but not state officials.
   E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 178

B. not absolute.

Question 179

5. (p. 102) The right to counsel is guaranteed by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Amendment. 
A. First
B. Fifth
C. Sixth
D. Ninth
E. Tenth

Answer 179

C. Sixth

Question 180

6. (p. 103) Which of the following amendments contains a due process clause? 
A. First
B. Tenth
C. Third
D. Fourteenth
E. Twenty-first

Answer 180

D. Fourteenth

Question 181

7. (p. 103-104) The individual freedoms in the Bill of Rights were extended by the Fourteenth Amendment to include protection from deprivation of due process rights by
   A. actions of the president.
   B. the actions of individuals.
   C. actions of the federal government.
   D. actions of state and local governments.
   E. actions of the U.S. military.

Answer 181

D. actions of state and local governments.

Question 182

8. (p. 104) The inclusion of certain provisions of the Bill of Rights through the Fourteenth Amendment, so that these rights are protected from infringements by the state governments, is called 
A. the preferred position doctrine.
B. procedural change.
C. selective incorporation.
D. the absorption doctrine.
E. prior restraint.

Answer 182

C. selective incorporation.

Question 183

9. (p. 104) How did the Supreme Court’s position on the rights of the accused in state courts change in the 1960s?
   A. The Supreme Court began to allow states greater freedom to interpret the rights of the accused.
   B. The Supreme Court began to dramatically reduce federal power to force the states to make special accommodations for the rights of accused minorities.
   C. The Supreme Court began to protect the rights of the accused from action by the states.
   D. The Supreme Court position did not change noticeably.
   E. The Supreme Court ceased to enforce the practice of selective incorporation.

Answer 183

C. The Supreme Court began to protect the rights of the accused from action by the states.

Question 184

10. (p. 104) In Mapp v. Ohio, the selective incorporation process was extended to include 
A. criminal proceedings in the states.
B. civil cases.
C. pleas of insanity.
D. children (minors) accused of crime.
E. indigent litigants.

Answer 184

A. criminal proceedings in the states

Question 185

11. (p. 104, 127) Gideon v. Wainwright is to the Sixth Amendment as Mapp v. Ohio is to the 
A. First Amendment.
B. Fourth Amendment.
C. Fifth Amendment.
D. Eighth Amendment.
E. Tenth Amendment.

Answer 185

B. Fourth Amendment.

Question 186

12. (p. 105) According to Freedom House, which of the following countries has the highest degree of freedom? 
A. Japan
B. Mexico
C. Guatemala
D. Russia
E. United States

Answer 186

E. United States

Question 187

13. (p. 107) The freedoms of speech, press, assembly, and petition are found in 
A. the First Amendment.
B. the Fourth Amendment.
C. the Sixth Amendment.
D. the Tenth Amendment.
E. the Fourteenth Amendment.

Answer 187

A. the First Amendment.

Question 188

14. (p. 107) Which of the following is NOT protected by the First Amendment 
A. freedom of speech.
B. freedom of press.
C. freedom of assembly.
D. freedom of bearing arms.
E. freedom of religion.

Answer 188

D. freedom of bearing arms.

Question 189

15. (p. 107) Which of the following is true about the Sedition Act of 1798?
    A. The Act prohibited malicious newspaper stories about the president.
    B. The Supreme Court ruled the Act unconstitutional.
    C. The Senate voted it down, while the House passed it.
    D. Thomas Jefferson strongly supported it.
    E. The state governments refused to enforce it.

Answer 189

A. The Act prohibited malicious newspaper stories about the president.

Question 190

16. (p. 108) In Schenck v. United States (1919), the Supreme Court ruled that
    A. the Espionage Act was unconstitutional.
    B. speech could be restricted when the nation’s security is at stake.
    C. speech unrelated to national security can never be restricted.
    D. speech by unpopular groups can be restricted more than speech by popular groups.
    E. all forms of political dissent are constitutional.

Answer 190

B. speech could be restricted when the nation’s security is at stake.

Question 191

17. (p. 108) If a person yells "fire" in a crowded theater when there is no fire, and people are hurt in the ensuing panic, that individual abused his/her freedom of speech according to the doctrine of 
A. malice.
B. clear and present danger.
C. unlawful assembly.
D. privacy.
E. prior restraint.

Answer 191

B. clear and present danger.

Question 192

18. (p. 108) Justice Holmes’s “clear and present danger” test holds that government can
    A. restrict speech that threatens national security.
    B. restrict any speech of an inflammatory nature.
    C. imprison political dissidents during time of war without following normal procedures.
    D. engage in prior restraint of the press whenever national security is at issue.
    E. restrict speech that is disrespectful to specific classes of citizens.

Answer 192

A. restrict speech that threatens national security.

Question 193

19. (p. 108) The conviction of members of the U.S. Communist Party in the early 1950s was initially upheld as a lawful restriction of the right
    A. not to incriminate oneself.
    B. of free speech.
    C. to a jury trial.
    D. to confront one’s accusers in a court of law.
    E. to worship any religion of choice.

Answer 193

B. of free speech.

Question 194

20. (p. 110) In its 2011 Snyder v. Phelps ruling, the Supreme Court held that Westboro Baptist Church protests at military funerals
    A. were unconstitutional because the funerals were military, but they would have been constitutional at civilian funerals.
    B. would need specific prior approval by a federal judge.
    C. were a constitutionally protected form of free speech.
    D. could not be considered constitutionally protected freedom of assembly.
    E. were a state matter and must be decided on a case-by-case basis in state courts.

Answer 194

C. were a constitutionally protected form of free speech.

Question 195

21. (p. 110) In 2014 the Supreme Court ruled in McCullen v. Coakley that a Massachusetts law establishing a thirty-five-foot buffer between anti-abortion protestors and abortion clinics
    A. was unconstitutional because it violated the protestors’ free speech rights.
    B. was unconstitutional because abortion rights have not yet been protected by the Constitution.
    C. was unconstitutional because it was in conflict with a federal law regulating protests.
    D. was constitutional because the protestors could use speech that would lead to imminent lawless action.
    E. was constitutional because states have a duty to protect women from possible harm from protestors.

Answer 195

A. was unconstitutional because it violated the protestors’ free speech rights.

Question 196

22. (p. 110) The Supreme Court
    A. has ruled that even forms of symbolic speech considered to be dangerous to the public are protected.
    B. ruled during the Vietnam war that the burning of draft registration cards was a protected form of symbolic speech.
    C. has reduced its protections of symbolic speech dramatically, and recently has ruled against flag burning as a form of protected symbolic speech.
    D. has protected symbolic speech much more substantially than it has protected verbal speech.
    E. has generally protected symbolic speech, though less substantially than it has protected verbal speech

Answer 196

B. ruled during the Vietnam war that the burning of draft registration cards was a protected form of symbolic speech.

Question 197

23. (p. 111) In the Johnson flag-burning case, the Supreme Court ruled that
    A. flag burning is an imminent danger to public safety.
    B. flag burning is not symbolic speech.
    C. flag burning, although offensive, cannot be prohibited.
    D. flag burning can be prohibited by the national government but not by the states.
    E. flag burning could be banned by Congress.

Answer 197

C. flag burning, although offensive, cannot be prohibited

Question 198

24. (p. 112) Government can lawfully prevent a political rally from taking place
    A. under no circumstances; people have an unconditional right to express their views.
    B. when the rally would require unduly expensive police protection.
    C. when the views of those holding the rally are unpopular.
    D. when it can demonstrate that harmful acts will necessarily result from the rally.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 198

D. when it can demonstrate that harmful acts will necessarily result from the rally.

Question 199

25. (p. 112) According to the Supreme Court, which is true regarding freedom of assembly?
    A. Individuals have the right to command immediate access to a public auditorium.
    B. Individuals have the right to hold a public rally in the middle of a busy intersection at a time of their choosing.
    C. Public officials can regulate the time, place, and conditions of public assembly, provided the regulations are reasonable.
    D. Public officials can prohibit assembly by unpopular groups.
    E. Freedom of assembly is an absolute right, because it is in the First Amendment.

Answer 199

C. Public officials can regulate the time, place, and conditions of public assembly, provided the regulations are reasonable.

Question 200

26. (p. 113) The Supreme Court’s position on prior restraint of the press is that
    A. national security needs are of highest priority.
    B. only classified government documents are subject to prior restraint.
    C. prior restraint can never be exercised by government.
    D. prior restraint should apply only in rare circumstances, and it is better to hold the press responsible for what it has printed than to restrict what it may print.
    E. prior restraint should be used fairly frequently in a democracy.

Answer 200

D. prior restraint should apply only in rare circumstances, and it is better to hold the press responsible for what it has printed than to restrict what it may print.

Question 201

27. (p. 113) According to the Supreme Court, prior restraint on the press is only acceptable if
    A. lower federal courts approve the action.
    B. the government can clearly justify the restriction.
    C. the press itself willingly accepts that restraint.
    D. the press is careless in its claims.
    E. the press is malicious in its intent.

Answer 201

B. the government can clearly justify the restriction.

Question 202

28. (p. 113) Spoken words that are known to be false and harmful to a person's reputation are an example of 
A. libel.
B. slander.
C. blasphemy.
D. obscenity.
E. symbolic speech.

Answer 202

B. slander.

Question 203

29. (p. 113) Libel applies to defamation of an individual's reputation through the 
A. written word.
B. spoken word.
C. written and spoken word.
D. written, spoken, and symbolic word.
E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 203

A. written word.

Question 204

30. (p. 114) The establishment clause prohibits government from
    A. establishing exceptions to the Bill of Rights.
    B. establishing exceptions to the Fourteenth Amendment.
    C. favoring one religion over another or supporting religion over no religion.
    D. interfering with freedom of assembly.
    E. interfering with the right to bear arms.

Answer 204

C. favoring one religion over another or supporting religion over no religion.

Question 205

31. (p. 114) According to the Supreme Court, prayer in public schools violates 
A. the free exercise clause.
B. the establishment clause.
C. the exclusionary rule.
D. procedural due process.
E. the clear and present danger test.

Answer 205

B. the establishment clause.

Question 206

32. (p. 114) Voluntary school prayer in the public schools was ruled unconstitutional in 
A. Escobedo v. Illinois (1964).
B. Engel v. Vitale (1962).
C. Buckley v. Valeo (1976).
D. Gitlow v. New York (1925).
E. Roth v. United States (1957).

Answer 206

B. Engel v. Vitale (1962).

Question 207

33. (p. 114) According to the Supreme Court, what is the status of prayer in the public schools?
    A. Formal prayer is not allowed, but moments of silence are constitutional.
    B. State-supported prayers are not allowed in public schools.
    C. Prayer is now allowed, but each school must allow students to leave the classroom when prayers are read aloud.
    D. Teacher-led bible readings in public schools are constitutional.
    E. Student-led prayers at public school football games are constitutional.

Answer 207

B. State-supported prayers are not allowed in public schools.

Question 208

34. (p. 114) The Lemon test is designed to
    A. test a state’s practice of guaranteeing procedural due process rights.
    B. ensure the secular nature of a government action.
    C. prevent a prosecution or defense from creating a biased jury.
    D. test state adherence to rights protected by proxy in the Fourteenth Amendment.
    E. ensure that a defendant has been given access to counsel from the time of arrest through a trial.

Answer 208

B. ensure the secular nature of a government action

Question 209

35. (p. 116) In the 2014 case of Burwell v. Hobby Lobby Stores, the Supreme Court ruled that
    A. the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act does not require employers to provide insurance for employees.
    B. companies with only a few owners can refuse, on religious grounds, to include contraceptives in employees’ health coverage.
    C. businesses can decide which employees deserve employer-paid health insurance based on employee performance.
    D. the free exercise of religion clause in the First Amendment does not apply to the secular business practices of corporations.
    E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 209

B. companies with only a few owners can refuse, on religious grounds, to include contraceptives in employees’ health coverage.

Question 210

36. (p. 117) In 1987 the Supreme Court ruled that creationism
    A. has as much evidence supporting it as the theory of evolution does.
    B. must be taught in public schools whenever evolution is taught.
    C. is a scientific theory, not a religious doctrine.
    D. is a religious doctrine, not a scientific theory.
    E. is both a scientific theory and a religious doctrine.

Answer 210

D. is a religious doctrine, not a scientific theory.

Question 211

37. (p. 118) What was the main conclusion of the Supreme Court’s 2008 decision in District of Columbia v. Heller and its 2010 decision in McDonald v. Chicago?
    A. The Second Amendment applies only to federal law, not state law.
    B. Cities and states can ban gun ownership, but the federal government cannot.
    C. Citizens are allowed to own guns for legitimate purposes, such as protecting the home.
    D. Governments can ban ownership of guns, except for people who serve in the military or the National Guard.
    E. Governments cannot place any restrictions on gun ownership.

Answer 211

C. Citizens are allowed to own guns for legitimate purposes, such as protecting the home.

Question 212

38. (p. 119) The Supreme Court has reasoned that a right of privacy is provided by
    A. the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
    B. the Ninth Amendment, which says that people’s rights are not limited to those enumerated in the Constitution.
    C. the Tenth Amendment, which reserves to the people and the states those powers not granted to the federal government.
    D. the implication of the right to privacy by the freedoms in the Bill of Rights.
    E. the Civil Rights Act of 1991.

Answer 212

D. the implication of the right to privacy by the freedoms in the Bill of Rights.

Question 213

39. (p. 119) The right to privacy was instrumental in which decision? 
A. Roe v. Wade
B. Mapp v. Ohio
C. Schenck v. United States
D. Miranda v. Arizona
E. New York Times Co. v. United States

Answer 213

A. Roe v. Wade

Question 214

40. (p. 121) In Planned Parenthood v. Casey (1992), the justices
    A. ruled that states are free to adopt abortion laws of their choosing.
    B. reaffirmed the essential aspects of Roe v. Wade.
    C. invoked the Ninth Amendment for the first time in an abortion decision.
    D. invalidated the right to an abortion in the early months of pregnancy.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 214

E. None of these answers is correct.

Question 215

41. (p. 121) In Bowers v. Hardwick (1986), the Supreme Court justices determined that
    A. the right of privacy includes abortion in the early months of pregnancy.
    B. search warrants are not needed in murder investigations.
    C. freedom of speech and freedom of assembly sometimes conflict.
    D. state militia members have the right to peacefully assemble.
    E. the right to privacy does not include homosexual acts.

Answer 215

E. the right to privacy does not include homosexual acts.

Question 216

42. (p. 122) In the case of McNabb v. United States, Justice Felix Frankfurter defined the “history of liberty” primarily in terms of whether
    A. governments had observed procedural guarantees.
    B. those convicted are actually guilty.
    C. those convicted have the opportunity for appeal.
    D. those convicted are treated humanely while imprisoned.
    E. everyone is treated fairly in every case.

Answer 216

A. governments had observed procedural guarantees.

Question 217

43. (p. 122) In the Constitution, procedural due process is protected by the 
A. Fourth Amendment.
B. Fifth Amendment.
C. Sixth Amendment.
D. Eighth Amendment.
E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 217

E. All of these answers are correct.

Question 218

44. (p. 122) The Fourth Amendment protects Americans from
    A. any search conducted without a warrant.
    B. unreasonable searches.
    C. unreasonable searches conducted only by federal officers.
    D. all searches conducted by state officers.
    E. searches conducted only by local officers.

Answer 218

B. unreasonable searches

Question 219

45. (p. 124) In deciding two 2014 cases involving the legality of searching a suspect’s cell phone, the Supreme Court ruled that
    A. the cell phone can be searched only if there is sufficient other evidence that it contains information relevant to the crime.
    B. the cell phone can be searched if officers believe it may contain information that will lead to the arrest of other suspects.
    C. the cell phone can be searched as long as the search is approved by a higher police authority, such as a precinct captain or county sheriff.
    D. the cell phone cannot be searched, unless police believe that doing so could prevent a serious imminent crime, such as a terrorist attack.
    E. the cell phone cannot be searched under any circumstances.

Answer 219

D. the cell phone cannot be searched, unless police believe that doing so could prevent a serious imminent crime, such as a terrorist attack.

Question 220

46. (p. 125) When can police legally begin their interrogation of a suspect?
    A. immediately upon arrest
    B. after the suspect has been warned that his or her words can be used as evidence
    C. only after the suspect has met with an attorney
    D. after the suspect has been arrested and is in the custody of the police
    E. after the suspect has been formally charged with a specific crime

Answer 220

B. after the suspect has been warned that his or her words can be used as evidence

Question 221

47. (p. 125) "You have the right to remain silent....Anything you say can and will be used against you in a court of law....You have the right to an attorney." This is called the 
A. preferred position doctrine.
B. clear and present danger test.
C. Miranda warning.
D. fairness doctrine.
E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 221

C. Miranda warning.

Question 222

48. (p. 125-126) The Miranda warning was upheld by the Supreme Court in 2000 in 
A. Palko v. Connecticut.
B. Stenberg v. Carhart.
C. Reno v. ACLU.
D. Ferguson v. Charleston.
E. Dickerson v. United States.

Answer 222

E. Dickerson v. United States.

Question 223

49. (p. 126-127) Gideon v. Wainwright required the states to
    A. temporarily abolish the death penalty.
    B. expand the exclusionary rule to both felony and misdemeanor cases.
    C. furnish attorneys for poor defendants in felony cases.
    D. grant speedy trials to defendants after 90 days of delay.
    E. provide more funding for education.

Answer 223

C. furnish attorneys for poor defendants in felony cases.

Question 224

50. (p. 127) What Illinois policy did the Supreme Court invalidate with its decision in Witherspoon v. Illinois (1968)?
    A. allowing the prosecution an unlimited number of challenges in capital cases
    B. preventing convicted persons in capital cases from filing an appeal
    C. preventing the prosecution from challenging jury selections in felony cases
    D. the failure to provide low income defendants with court-appointed lawyers
    E. encouragement of low income defendants to act as their own attorney

Answer 224

A. allowing the prosecution an unlimited number of challenges in capital cases

Question 225

51. (p. 127) The exclusionary rule states that
    A. federal law cannot be applied in state courts.
    B. the laws of one state court cannot be applied in the courts of another state.
    C. after seven years, the statute of limitations applies, except in murder cases.
    D. evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible in court.
    E. state law cannot be applied in federal courts.

Answer 225

D. evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible in court.

Question 226

52. (p. 127-128) Since the 1980s, the Supreme Court has addressed the exclusionary rule by
    A. expanding its application to virtually all criminal cases both at the state and federal levels.
    B. determining that the rule was unconstitutional, in that it weakened the effectiveness of the police in maintaining an orderly society.
    C. expanding its application to federal cases only.
    D. expanding its application to state cases only.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 226

E. None of these answers is correct.

Question 227

53. (p. 128) The inevitable discovery exception
    A. holds that the exclusionary rule can be waived in cases where failure to convict can lead to further public harm.
    B. holds that otherwise excludable evidence can be admitted in trial if police believed they were following the proper procedures.
    C. allows the use of evidence that would have been discovered by other means or through other forms of evidence.
    D. has effectively invalidated the exclusionary rule.
    E. holds that a convicted person may not appeal the conviction when his or her own actions would have ultimately led to further unlawful acts.

Answer 227

C. allows the use of evidence that would have been discovered by other means or through other forms of evidence.

Question 228

54. (p. 129) Which of the following is true of the appeal process?
    A. The Constitution guarantees at least one appeal after conviction, but many states continue to challenge this guarantee in court.
    B. Both the federal and all state constitutions guarantee an appeal after conviction.
    C. The Constitution does not guarantee an appeal after conviction, but the federal government and all states permit at least one appeal.
    D. There are no guarantees of appeal at the federal or state level, but the appeal process has been effectively certified through common practice.
    E. The guarantee of appeal in the states was established as part of selective incorporation as applied to the Fourteenth Amendment.

Answer 228

C. The Constitution does not guarantee an appeal after conviction, but the federal government and all states permit at least one appeal.

Question 229

55. (p. 130) Roughly a third of all U.S. executions in the past quarter-century have taken place in 
A. Vermont.
B. South Carolina.
C. Texas.
D. Alabama.
E. California.

Answer 229

C. Texas.

Question 230

56. (p. 131) What is the greatest restriction on appeals in the United States?
    A. the refusal by state appeals court judges to grant even a first appeal
    B. a federal law that bars in most instances a second federal appeal by a state prison inmate
    C. the lack of any formal right of appeal in the federal process
    D. a federal law that bars a first federal appeal to persons convicted of homicide
    E. the very low income of some convicted persons, which reduces their ability to appeal

Answer 230

B. a federal law that bars in most instances a second federal appeal by a state prison inmate

Question 231

57. (p. 132) Which of the following countries comes closest to the United States in terms of the percentage of its citizens who are behind bars? 
A. Singapore
B. Japan
C. Great Britain
D. Romania
E. Russia

Answer 231

E. Russia

Question 232

58. (p. 134) In a 2004 case involving the issue of whether a U.S. citizen accused of terrorist acts is entitled to constitutional protections, the Supreme Court held that such citizens
    A. are protected only if they live in the United States.
    B. are protected only if they have not been previously convicted of a crime.
    C. are protected only if law enforcement officials decide they deserve such protections.
    D. must be handled by military courts.
    E. do have the right to a judicial hearing.

Answer 232

A. are protected only if they live in the United States.

Question 233

59. (p. 135) The U.S.A. Patriot Act
    A. grants the government new powers of surveillance.
    B. relaxed restrictions on the sharing of intelligence surveillance information with criminal investigators.
    C. gives intelligence agencies the authority to share crime-related information with law enforcement agencies.
    D. was enacted in response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001.
    E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 233

E. All of these answers are correct.

Question 234

60. (p. 135) The Edward Snowden leaks about the NSA surveillance program
    A. indicated that the NSA was listening to all American cell phone conversations.
    B. showed that the NSA was diligent about getting court orders to monitor electronic communications.
    C. led President Obama to quickly terminate the program.
    D. brought changes in how Americans’ phone data was stored for NSA retrieval.
    E. in reality shared little or no new information.

Answer 234

D. brought changes in how Americans’ phone data was stored for NSA retrieval.

Question 235

61. (p. 136) Which of the following, relative to the others, is typically more protective of individual rights? 
A. the U.S. Congress
B. the general public
C. public opinion
D. the presidency
E. the judiciary

Answer 235

E. the judiciary

Question 236

sorry

Answer 236

so so sorry

Question 237

1. The focus of civil liberties is the ______ and the focus of civil rights is the ______

A. Individual; individual 
B. Group; group 
C. Individual; group 
D. Group; individual 
E. Tenth amendment; Fourteenth Amendment

Answer 237

C. Individual; group

Question 238

2. (p. 142) Disadvantaged Americans have generally gained their rights
   A. through the enlightened policies of advantaged Americans.
   B. through judicial action only.
   C. through struggle against entrenched interests.
   D. mainly through action by the states rather than the federal government.
   E. by waiting patiently for public opinion to back their cause.

Answer 238

C. through struggle against entrenched interests.

Question 239

3. (p. 143-144) Culminating in a historic victory in 1954, black activists in the early twentieth century generally pursued civil rights through 
A. legal action.
B. legislative action.
C. pressure for presidential decree.
D. bureaucratic action.
E. campaigning through mass media.

Answer 239

A. legal action.

Question 240

4. (p. 144) The Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas ruling (1954) held that racial segregation in schools violated the
   A. due process clause of the Fifth Amendment.
   B. due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
   C. equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
   D. Civil Rights Act.
   E. establishment clause of the First Amendment.

Answer 240

C. equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.

Question 241

5. (p. 144) One example of a policy that aimed chiefly to overcome de facto discrimination is
   A. the Equal Rights Amendment.
   B. the Voting Rights Act of 1965.
   C. busing to achieve racial integration in the schools.
   D. the Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas ruling.
   E. the Fourteenth Amendment.

Answer 241

C. busing to achieve racial integration in the schools.

Question 242

6. (p. 145) Which of the following is true?
   A. Public schools are becoming more segregated nationally.
   B. Many urban public school districts have ended the use of busing for desegregation purposes.
   C. White flight to suburban schools has made it more difficult to desegregate urban schools.
   D. The Supreme Court, after ordering cutbacks in busing, said that communities were free to use alternatives, such as increased spending on schools in poor neighborhoods.
   E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 242

E. All of these answers are correct.

Question 243

7. (p. 145) The Supreme Court’s ruling in the Swann case on busing differed from the Brown decision in that Swann
   A. addressed the problem of de facto discrimination.
   B. applied to many northern communities in addition to communities in the South.
   C. sanctioned the use of busing in desegregation.
   D. dealt specifically with the issue of busing.
   E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 243

E. All of these answers are correct.

Question 244

8. (p. 145) In 2007 the Supreme Court ruled that the pursuit of racial integration in public schools through busing
   A. was a practice that should be left to state governments to adopt or reject.
   B. should be enacted and monitored by the federal government to ensure full compliance.
   C. was as necessary to ensure racial justice as was the ending of de facto segregation in 1954.
   D. was a permanent solution to an intractable problem.
   E. deprived students of their Fourteenth Amendment right to equal protection.

Answer 244

E. deprived students of their Fourteenth Amendment right to equal protection.

Question 245

9. (p. 145) Since the height of the busing era, the trend in public schools has been
   A. toward greater integration.
   B. toward greater segregation.
   C. to rely more and more on busing.
   D. to reinstate de jure racial segregation.
   E. to retain the gains in racial integration achieved through the 1970s, but not to further them

Answer 245

B. toward greater segregation.

Question 246

10. (p. 146) The Supreme Court concept of suspect classifications suggests that
    A. it is impossible to impose quotas fairly because they require classifications of merit based on race.
    B. it is inherently suspect to classify one school district or public facility reserved for a particular race as inferior or superior to another.
    C. laws that classify people differently on the basis of their race or ethnicity are presumed to have discrimination as their purpose.
    D. any form of classification of people based on race or gender is not a sufficient basis for which to overturn an established federal law.
    E. any law designed to specifically affect members of different genders in different ways is inherently discriminatory.

Answer 246

C. laws that classify people differently on the basis of their race or ethnicity are presumed to have discrimination as their purpose.

Question 247

11. (p. 146) In applying the reasonable basis test, courts tend to
    A. require government only to show that a particular law is reasonable.
    B. assess whether a law had the support of a two-thirds majority of legislators at the time of passage.
    C. determine whether a law is working well and, if so, to allow it to remain in effect.
    D. prohibit any law that results in the unequal treatment of Americans.
    E. interpret the equal protection clause in a strict manner.

Answer 247

A. require government only to show that a particular law is reasonable.

Question 248

12. (p. 146) Any law that attempts a racial or ethnic classification is subject to the 
A. reasonable basis test.
B. strict scrutiny test.
C. intermediate scrutiny test.
D. precedent basis test.
E. suspect classification test.

Answer 248

B. strict scrutiny test.

Question 249

13. (p. 146) Any law that includes a gender classification is subject to the 
A. reasonable basis test.
B. strict scrutiny test.
C. intermediate scrutiny test.
D. precedent basis test.
E. suspect classification test.

Answer 249

C. intermediate scrutiny test.

Question 250

14. (p. 146-147) In the 1967 decision of Loving v. Virginia, the Supreme Court
    A. first explicitly applied the strict scrutiny test.
    B. ruled that Virginia could restrict marriage between adults.
    C. held that interracial marriage did not have constitutional protection.
    D. countered judicial reasoning it had used thirteen years earlier in its Brown decision.
    E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 250

A. first explicitly applied the strict scrutiny test.

Question 251

15. (p. 147) A law that placed restrictions on courses girls could take in high school would be evaluated by the courts using the 
A. reasonable basis test.
B. strict scrutiny test.
C. intermediate scrutiny test.
D. precedent basis test.
E. suspect classification test.

Answer 251

C. intermediate scrutiny test

Question 252

16. (p. 147) In the case of United States v. Virginia (1996), the Supreme Court ruled that
    A. strict racial quotas were a valid means of ensuring racial diversity on college campuses.
    B. private colleges could refuse to admit prospective students on the basis of sexual orientation.
    C. male-only admissions policies at state-supported military academies were unconstitutional.
    D. because female instructors created an undue distraction at all-male universities, the schools in question could discriminate against women in their hiring practices.
    E. colleges affiliated with a particular religion could not take the religious persuasion of job candidates into consideration during the hiring process.

Answer 252

C. male-only admissions policies at state-supported military academies were unconstitutional.

Question 253

17. (p. 147) The Fourteenth Amendment applies to discriminatory action by 
A. government only.
B. private parties only.
C. both government and private parties.
D. the president specifically.
E. Congress specifically.

Answer 253

A. government only.

Question 254

18. (p. 147) The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was aimed at eliminating discrimination
    A. by governments in their conduct of elections (e.g., registration, placement of polling booths).
    B. by private individuals in their social relations—bigoted statements and other acts of prejudice are unlawful under most circumstances.
    C. by governments in their job practices and provision of services (e.g., schools, roads).
    D. by private individuals in their employment practices and in their operation of public accommodations (e.g., hotels, restaurants).
    E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 254

D. by private individuals in their employment practices and in their operation of public accommodations (e.g., hotels, restaurants).

Question 255

19. (p. 148) The modern civil rights movement had a peak moment with the March on Washington in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. 1954
B. 1960
C. 1963
D. 1968
E. 1973

Answer 255

C. 1963

Question 256

20. (p. 148) The March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom
    A. brought about greater rights to the disabled.
    B. came in response to the passage of the Civil Rights Act.
    C. was conducted by women seeking fairer treatment in the workplace.
    D. was conducted by women seeking the right to vote.
    E. was conducted by African Americans seeking equality of rights.

Answer 256

E. was conducted by African Americans seeking equality of rights.

Question 257

21. (p. 148) The famous speech featuring the words "I have a dream" in the civil rights movement was delivered by 
A. Jesse Jackson.
B. Martin Luther King Jr.
C. Thurgood Marshall.
D. John F. Kennedy.
E. Robert F. Kennedy.

Answer 257

B. Martin Luther King Jr

Question 258

22. (p. 149) When the United States first came into being, married women were permitted to
    A. vote.
    B. hold office.
    C. serve on juries.
    D. own and dispense property without the husband’s consent.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 258

E. None of these answers is correct.

Question 259

23. (p. 149) The movement for women's rights was initially aligned with 
A. the abolition movement.
B. the Progressive movement.
C. the labor movement.
D. the modern civil rights movement.
E. the modern environmental movement.

Answer 259

A. the abolition movement.

Question 260

24. (p. 149) The first large and well-organized attempt to promote women's rights came in 1848 in 
A. Boston, Massachusetts.
B. San Francisco, California.
C. Minneapolis, Minnesota.
D. Seneca Falls, New York.
E. Madison, Wisconsin.

Answer 260

D. Seneca Falls, New York.

Question 261

25. (p. 149) Women in America obtained the right to vote in national elections in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. 1790
B. 1865
C. 1890
D. 1920
E. 1974

Answer 261

D. 1920

Question 262

26. (p. 150) Politically, the fight for civil rights in Congress in the 1960s was led primarily by
    A. southern Democrats.
    B. southern Republicans.
    C. Republicans.
    D. Democrats.
    E. an about equal coalition of Democrats and Republicans.

Answer 262

D. Democrats.

Question 263

27. (p. 150) Which of the following groups is MOST likely to identify with the Democratic Party? 
A. Hispanics
B. African Americans
C. white women
D. white men
E. white southerners

Answer 263

B. African Americans

Question 264

28. (p. 150) Which of the following groups is LEAST likely to identify with the Democratic Party? 
A. Hispanics
B. African Americans
C. white women
D. white southerners
E. white liberals

Answer 264

D. white southerners

Question 265

29. (p. 151) How many states ratified the Equal Rights Amendment? 
A. none of them
B. only a few
C. about half
D. nearly three-fourths
E. all but three of them

Answer 265

D. nearly three-fourths

Question 266

30. (p. 151) The fight to give Hispanic farm laborers better working conditions and wages was conducted primarily in 
A. Arizona.
B. California.
C. Oregon.
D. Washington.
E. New Mexico.

Answer 266

B. California.

Question 267

31. (p. 151-152) Native Americans
    A. have always been legal citizens of the United States.
    B. were not given citizenship status en masse until the twentieth century.
    C. do not today have the full legal rights of other U.S. citizens.
    D. are U.S. citizens unless they choose to live on a reservation.
    E. have numbered roughly ten million in the United States since the 1700s.

Answer 267

B. were not given citizenship status en masse until the twentieth century

Question 268

32. (p. 152) Native Americans were made "official" citizens of the United States in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. 1789
B. 1856
C. 1924
D. 1972
E. 1998

Answer 268

C. 1924

Question 269

33. (p. 153) The first Asian immigrants to America
    A. settled primarily in the Midwest and Northeast.
    B. did not arrive until the early twentieth century.
    C. were welcomed as equals by most whites.
    D. worked as laborers in mines and railroad construction.
    E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 269

D. worked as laborers in mines and railroad construction.

Question 270

34. (p. 153) In 1960, the greatest percentage of immigrants to America came from 
A. Europe.
B. Asia.
C. Latin America.
D. Africa.
E. Australia.

Answer 270

A. Europe.

Question 271

35. (p. 153) In 2010, the greatest percentage of immigrants to America came from 
A. Europe.
B. Asia.
C. Latin America.
D. Africa.
E. Australia.

Answer 271

C. Latin America.

Question 272

36. (p. 154) Which of the following had the GREATEST impact on increasing voting rates by African Americans? 
A. Nineteenth Amendment
B. Twenty-fourth Amendment
C. the ending of whites-only primaries
D. the Civil Rights Act of 1964
E. the Voting Rights Act of 1965

Answer 272

E. the Voting Rights Act of 1965

Question 273

37. (p. 154-155) The Voting Rights Act of 1965
    A. expired in the late 1990s.
    B. prohibits discrimination in voting and voter registration.
    C. was strengthened by the 2013 Supreme Court decision Shelby County v. Holder.
    D. applies only to federal elections, not state and local elections.
    E. has no significant provisions for enforcement.

Answer 273

B. prohibits discrimination in voting and voter registration.

Question 274

38. (p. 155) The 2013 Supreme Court decision Shelby County v. Holder interpreting the Voting Rights Act
    A. declared the entire Voting Rights Act unconstitutional.
    B. was a victory for the Obama administration in general and Attorney General Eric Holder in particular.
    C. argued that Congress had set standards for ensuring voting rights that were no longer relevant.
    D. requires states be more diligent in ensuring that minorities have full voting rights.
    E. was all the more emphatic because it had a unanimous 9-0 vote.

Answer 274

C. argued that Congress had set standards for ensuring voting rights that were no longer relevant.

Question 275

39. (p. 156) Housing in America
    A. falls largely outside the scope of the law—people are free to rent or sell property to whomever they want.
    B. is an area where equality in practice is now nearly a reality; people of similar incomes, regardless of race or color, find it equally easy to qualify for home mortgages.
    C. is an unimportant civil rights issue, since housing patterns almost completely reflect the personal preferences of people and are not substantially influenced by past or present racial bias.
    D. continues to evidence a high degree of racial segregation.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 275

D. continues to evidence a high degree of racial segregation.

Question 276

40. (p. 156) The Civil Rights Act of 1968 addressed 
A. voting.
B. hiring.
C. education.
D. housing.
E. work conditions.

Answer 276

D. housing.

Question 277

41. (p. 157) The policy of affirmative action arose when
    A. it became apparent that disadvantaged Americans would not attain equal employment opportunities through lawsuits that benefited single individuals only.
    B. the Supreme Court declared in Bakke that the Fourteenth Amendment requires government and large firms to hire more women and minorities.
    C. the Supreme Court ruled that de facto discrimination is unlawful.
    D. private firms decided on their own that a more diverse workforce was actually a more productive and effective workforce.
    E. the Supreme Court rendered its Adarand v. Pena decision in 1995.

Answer 277

A. it became apparent that disadvantaged Americans would not attain equal employment opportunities through lawsuits that benefited single individuals only.

Question 278

42. (p. 158) De jure discrimination and de facto discrimination are two ways in which some Americans are treated as less equal than others. Examples of public policies designed to address each of these forms of discrimination are
    A. the Brown decision (de jure), and affirmative action (de facto).
    B. affirmative action (de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de facto).
    C. the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de jure), and the Brown decision (de facto).
    D. the Supreme Court’s busing decisions (de jure), and affirmative action decisions (de facto).
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 278

A. the Brown decision (de jure), and affirmative action (de facto).

Question 279

43. (p. 158) Equality of result policies are primarily directed at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ discriminatory effects. 
A. de jure
B. de facto
C. religious
D. gender
E. due process

Answer 279

B. de facto

Question 280

44. (p. 158) One reason that affirmative action is so controversial is that
    A. since the 1980s the Supreme Court has imposed it on the American public despite congressional attempts to end it.
    B. most Americans admit that they oppose programs that ensure equal treatment for minorities.
    C. it is applied only to private businesses and schools, not to government programs and institutions.
    D. the Supreme Court has repeatedly declared it unconstitutional both in principle and in practice.
    E. it is viewed as giving preferential treatment, which is unpopular, instead of simply ensuring equal treatment.

Answer 280

E. it is viewed as giving preferential treatment, which is unpopular, instead of simply ensuring equal treatment.

Question 281

45. (p. 158) The central issue in the Bakke case was 
A. school desegregation.
B. sexual harassment.
C. affirmative action.
D. Native Americans' civil rights.
E. comparable worth.

Answer 281

C. affirmative action.

Question 282

46. (p. 158) The Supreme Court’s decision in the Regents of the University of California v. Bakke case
    A. invalidated the principle of affirmative action.
    B. ruled that Bakke could not be admitted to medical school.
    C. established quota systems as a legitimate basis of affirmative action.
    D. upheld the principle of affirmative action.
    E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer 282

E. None of these answers is correct.

NOT SURE

Question 283

47. (p. 158) The Supreme Court halted the general use of quotas in the granting of federal contracts in the 1995 case of 
A. Adarand v. Pena.
B. Fullilove v. Klutznick.
C. Craig v. Boren.
D. Rostker v. Goldberg.
E. United States v. Virginia.

Answer 283

A. Adarand v. Pena.

Question 284

48. (p. 160) In its 2014 Schwette v. Coalition to Defend Affirmative Action decision, the Supreme Court ruled that
    A. the United States Congress can pass affirmative action laws that are binding on both public institutions and private businesses.
    B. affirmative action is a form of reverse discrimination and is therefore unconstitutional.
    C. taking race into account when deciding who to admit to college is unconstitutional.
    D. states can pass laws that ban affirmative action at public education institutions.
    E. states must follow the same affirmative action guidelines as the federal government does

Answer 284

D. states can pass laws that ban affirmative action at public education institutions.

Question 285

49. (p. 160) With regard to affirmative action, the Supreme Court in recent years has
    A. moved to outlaw it.
    B. moved to narrow its application.
    C. asked Congress to clarify the policy.
    D. asked the president to clarify the policy.
    E. asked the state legislatures to clarify the policy.

Answer 285

B. moved to narrow its application.

Question 286

50. (p. 162) Which type of household has the LOWEST percentage of families with two parents?
    A. African American
    B. Hispanic
    C. Asian
    D. White
    E. All of these households have about the same percentage of families with two parents.

Answer 286

A. African American

Question 287

51. (p. 162, 164) Which statement about women’s rights is correct?
    A. The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) was ratified by the necessary 38 states in 1982.
    B. The women’s rights movement began in the era of World War I and within a few years achieved voting rights for women.
    C. Women have made clear gains in the areas of appointive and elective offices.
    D. Women tend to cast their votes for Republican candidates.
    E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 287

C. Women have made clear gains in the areas of appointive and elective offices.

Question 288

52. (p. 162) What was politically significant about Geraldine Ferraro in 1984?
    A. She became the first woman to be elected governor of a state.
    B. She became the first woman to run on the national ticket of a major political party.
    C. She became the first woman to serve as attorney general of the United States.
    D. She was the first woman to hold the top position in the U.S. House of Representatives.
    E. She was the first person to hold the top position in the U.S. Senate.

Answer 288

B. She became the first woman to run on the national ticket of a major political party.

Question 289

53. (p. 162) The first woman ever to serve on the U.S. Supreme Court was appointed by 
A. President Truman.
B. President Eisenhower.
C. President Kennedy.
D. President Reagan.
E. President Carter.

Answer 289

D. President Reagan.

Question 290

54. (p. 163) Today, women currently hold about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the seats in the House of Representatives. 
A. 7 percent
B. 18 percent
C. 26 percent
D. 34 percent
E. 43 percent

Answer 290

B. 18 percent

Question 291

55. (p. 163) Which region of the world has the highest proportion of women serving in its national legislatures? 
A. Scandinavia
B. Latin America
C. North America
D. East Asia
E. Central Europe

Answer 291

A. Scandinavia

Question 292

56. (p. 164) The average pay for full-time female employees is about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of that for full-time male employees. 
A. 93
B. 50
C. 65
D. 80
E. 70

Answer 292

D. 80

Question 293

57. (p. 164) The demand that women should receive equal pay relative to men for work that is similarly demanding, involves similar responsibilities, and requires similar levels of education and training is the basis of the concept of 
A. equality of opportunity.
B. affirmative action.
C. comparable worth.
D. de jure discrimination.
E. reverse discrimination.

Answer 293

C. comparable worth

Question 294

58. (p. 164-165) Which of the following statements is true?
    A. About one in three single-parent families that are headed by women live below the poverty line.
    B. The 1993 Family and Medical Leave Act represented a setback for women by reducing the amount of guaranteed benefits that new mothers receive.
    C. Recent Supreme Court decisions have made it harder for employees to sue an organization that retaliates against them for filing a sexual harassment complaint.
    D. There are generally fewer single-parent families headed by women below the poverty line than two-parent families below the poverty line.
    E. The “feminization of poverty” describes the phenomenon of greater government protection for women below the poverty line than men.

Answer 294

A. About one in three single-parent families that are headed by women live below the poverty line.

Question 295

59. (p. 165-166) Native Americans
    A. today number more than 2 million.
    B. have a far higher infant mortality rate than the national average.
    C. have in recent years filed suit to reclaim their ancestral lands.
    D. are less than half as likely to finish college as other Americans.
    E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer 295

E. All of these answers are correct.

Question 296

60. (p. 166-168) All of the following statements about Latino Americans are true EXCEPT that
    A. they are the fastest-growing minority in the United States.
    B. they have made major political gains in terms of electing local officials, particularly in the southwestern states.
    C. Hispanics are healthier and have a longer life expectancy than would be expected from their education and income levels.
    D. their average annual income is relatively close to the national average.
    E. they are one of the nation’s oldest ethnic groups.

Answer 296

D. their average annual income is relatively close to the national average.

Question 297

61. (p. 167) Of the following states, which tends to have larger numbers of Caribbean Hispanics? 
A. California
B. Texas
C. New York
D. New Mexico
E. Arizona

Answer 297

C. New York

Question 298

62. (p. 168) Of the following states, which one has the LOWEST percentage of Hispanics in its population? 
A. Washington
B. New Mexico
C. California
D. Arizona
E. Texas

Answer 298

A. Washington

Question 299

63. (p. 169-170) All of the following statements about Asian American rights are true EXCEPT that
    A. they have not attained a proportionate share of top business positions.
    B. Asian Americans are an upwardly mobile group but are underrepresented in top positions in society due to past and present discrimination.
    C. Asian Americans have the highest percentage of two-parent families of any racial group.
    D. Asian Americans have made notable educational advancements.
    E. Asian Americans have the second highest median family income of any group.

Answer 299

E. Asian Americans have the second highest median family income of any group.

Question 300

64. (p. 170) Asian Americans account for about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of professionals and technicians in the United States. 
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
E. 25

Answer 300

B. 5

Question 301

65. (p. 170) In 2000, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ became the first state to legalize the civil union of same-sex couples. 
A. Vermont
B. Massachusetts
C. New Hampshire
D. Rhode Island
E. Connecticut

Answer 301

A. Vermont

Question 302

66. (p. 170) In 2004, by order of the state's Supreme Court, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ instituted same-sex marriage. 
A. California
B. Texas
C. Vermont
D. Massachusetts
E. Alabama

Answer 302

D. Massachusetts

Question 303

67. (p. 171) The 1996 Defense of Marriage Act
    A. authorized states to grant marital rights to a same-sex couple that had been granted these rights by another state.
    B. authorized states to deny marital rights to a same-sex couple that had been granted these rights by another state.
    C. invalidated, through federal legislation, the marriages of same-sex couples that had become married in states that allow same-sex unions.
    D. established a timeline by which all states must legally allow same-sex marriages.
    E. invalided state laws that had mandated that marriage be defined only as a union between a man and a woman.

Answer 303

B. authorized states to deny marital rights to a same-sex couple that had been granted these rights by another state.

Question 304

68. (p. 171) Regarding same-sex marriage, it is true that
    A. the Supreme Court upheld the Defense of Marriage Act in 2013.
    B. several states have recently reversed earlier legal approval of the practice.
    C. younger people are more likely to approve of it than older people are.
    D. it first became legal in New York.
    E. it is a state issue that is beyond federal control or influence.

Answer 304

C. younger people are more likely to approve of it than older people are.

Question 305

69. (p. 171) Which of the following statements is true of age discrimination in the United States?
    A. The courts have not given government and employers much leeway in establishing age-based policies.
    B. Forced retirement for reasons of age is not permissible even if justified by the nature of a particular job or the performance of a particular employee.
    C. Age discrimination is among the forms of discrimination prohibited by the U.S. Constitution.
    D. Mandatory retirement ages for most jobs have been eliminated by law.
    E. Hiring bias on the basis of age is still allowed by all private companies, but has been most abolished in government and public agencies.

Answer 305

D. Mandatory retirement ages for most jobs have been eliminated by law.

Question 306

70. (p. 172) Which age group is LEAST likely to approve of same-sex marriage?
    A. 18-29
    B. 30-49
    C. 50-64
    D. 65+
    E. All age groups have about the same approval rate of same-sex marriage.

Answer 306

D. 65+

Question 307

71. (p. 172) Which of the following is true of discrimination against the disabled in the United States?
    A. The Americans with Disabilities Act grants protections to the disabled only in the employment sphere.
    B. Congress passed the Americans with Disabilities Act in 1975.
    C. Before 1975, four million children with disabilities were getting either no education or an inappropriate one.
    D. Through the Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975, Congress required that schools receiving federal funding provide all children, however severe their disability, with a free and appropriate education.
    E. Discrimination against the disabled is among the forms of discrimination prohibited by the Constitution, but has also been strengthened through statutes.

Answer 307

C. Before 1975, four million children with disabilities were getting either no education or an inappropriate one.

Question 308

72. (p. 173) According to Gunnar Myrdal, what is America's curse? 
A. greed
B. racial discrimination
C. obesity
D. street violence
E. religious intolerance

Answer 308

B. racial discrimination