Study guide and exam questions Flashcards

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1
Q

EMTs can:

A

evaluate the ill and injured, but they can never diagnose patients

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2
Q

When should patient be in recovery position?

A

Unconscious, uninjured, & breathing adequately. (No trauma patients in recovery position).

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3
Q

What percentage of exhaled oxygen is delivered?

A

16%

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4
Q

Most out of hospital cardiac arrests occur as a result of ?

A

Cardiac Dysrhythmia

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5
Q

CPR should be initiated when?

A

A valid living will is unavailable

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6
Q

Most appropriate treatment for a patient with partial airway obstruction & adequate air exchange?

A

Administer oxygen & transport immediately

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7
Q

Gastric distention will most likely occur if:

A

you ventilate a patient too fast

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8
Q

What best describes the NREMT?

A

The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing, and is NOT a government agency

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9
Q

External chest compressions will only provide how much of blood?

A

30% of blood will be pumped by the heart

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10
Q

To minimize risk of litigation, the EMT-B should always:

A

provide competent care that meets current standards

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11
Q

In relation to the wrist, the elbow is

A

proximal

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12
Q

Best protection against liability when a patient refuses EMS care and transport?

A

Thoroughly document entire event

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13
Q

Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) is a program used to:

A

reduce anxiety from stress related incidents

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14
Q

Your best protection against legal liability when a competent patient refuses EMS care and transport is to:

A

advise medical control of the situation

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15
Q

Fracture to both femurs is

A

bilateral

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16
Q

Which would be an indication of positive orthostatic vital signs?

A

BP and pulse stay the same, but patient gets dizzy

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17
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence?

A

Deviation from standard of care that may result in further injury

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18
Q

A 5-year-old with severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. His fracture is:

A

The distal forearm

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19
Q

Maintaining chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include?

A

NOT cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons

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20
Q

88 year old female with altered mental status. Staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer & that her physician stated that she would probably die within a few hours; valid DNR is presented to you. What do you do?

A

Make her comfortable & provide emotional support

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21
Q

Who can place a patient on a 5150?

A

Law Enforcement, Designated ER doctor, PET team

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22
Q

A patient partially regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. Although somewhat confused, the patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances you should:

A

assess whether or not the patient’s mental condition is impaired

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23
Q

What do you do when a patient is trapped in a vehicle?

A

Ensure vehicle is stable.

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24
Q

Abduction

A

away from midline

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25
Q

Baseline vital signs are referred to because they:

A

are the initial vital signs that will allow you to trend the patient’s condition by comparing them to future vital signs

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26
Q

The manner in which an EMT-B must act when caring for a patient is called:

A

standard of care

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27
Q

EMT should take a successful cardioversion with AED

A

Perform frequent pulse checks; reassess all vitals every 5 minutes; Keep AED hooked up to a patient

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28
Q

After performing an initial assessment & treating any immediate life threats, you should next:

A

decide if immediate transport is indicated

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29
Q

When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT-B’s responsibility is to determine

A

which complaint poses the greatest threat to patient’s life

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30
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of chest wall?

A

only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while other area falls

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31
Q

Pain felt at a location other than its origin

A

reffered pain

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32
Q

Communicable diseases can be best decribed as?

A

Not all people who are infected with these diseases show signs or symptoms of illness

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33
Q

Tx you receive following exposure to an infection disease depends on:

A

The type of disease, not how long you were exposed or how you were exposed

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34
Q

Digestive juices from the stomach

A

hydrochloric acid

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35
Q

What is the proper treatment for death in vehicle?

A

Rapid trauma asessment

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36
Q

When assessing the moto function in a conscious patient’s lower extermities, you should expect the paitnet to:

A

Wiggle toes

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37
Q

Which of the following activities would NOT be performed during the scene size up

A

rapidly assessing a patient’s respiratory status

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38
Q

Bodily fluids such as vomitus, tears & saliva may transmit an infectious disease if they

A

contains visible amounts of blood

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39
Q

Patient is unconscious, ineffective breathing, blood secretions in mouth. What to do?

A

suction her oropharynx

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40
Q

The chief complaint is most accurately described as:

A

most serious thing that patient is concerned about

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41
Q

Traumatic neck pain

A

ensure patient can see you approaching

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42
Q

While using sirens most state laws permit

A

carefully exceed the posted speed limit

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43
Q

What is a disease the causes GI bleeding?

A

Esophageal varices

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44
Q

Symptoms of GI bleed may include

A

coffee ground emesis

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45
Q

Abnormal breath sounds least suggestive of fluid in lungs?

A

stridor

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46
Q

Which following patient does NOT have an altered mental status?

A

a patient with an acute reaction & dizziness

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47
Q

Which of the following statments regarding the mechanism of injury is correct?

A

The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of patient’s injuries

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48
Q

Appendicitis

A

associaed with rebound tenderness

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49
Q

Bowel obstruction

A

stoppage of forward flow of intestinal contents

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50
Q

Chloecystitis

A

pain in right upper quadrant; referred pain to right shoulder

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51
Q

Blood supply for heart muscle itself comes from?

A

coronary arteries

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52
Q

PID is an inflammation of the:

A

fallopian tubes, NOT the bladder, rectum, or testes. This is a disease found in women and is based on STDs

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53
Q

Left ventricle pumps blood in

A

aorta

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54
Q

Pulmonary artery orginates at?

A

right ventricle

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55
Q

An incarcerated hernia is one that ?

A

connot be pushed back within respective body cavity

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56
Q

A 59 year old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless & diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should

A

administer oxygen & prepare for immediate transport

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57
Q

Ectopic pregnancy signs usually present within

A

the 1st 6-8 weeks of pregnancy

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58
Q

Substance which bonds with oxygen for transportation to the tissue is?

A

hemoglobin

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59
Q

Largest artery

A

aorta

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60
Q

Gas exchange takes place at level of arterioles?

A

FALSE — capillaries are where gas diffusions occur

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61
Q

Stridor is caused by

A

narrowing of UPPER airway

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62
Q

Functions of the upper airway

A

filters air; warms and humidifies air; provides sense of smell

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63
Q

You receive a call for a 70 year old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should:

A

begin assisting her ventiliations with a BVM

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64
Q

Pain from an MI my radiae to?

A

one or both arms; jaw;epigastric region

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65
Q

Priority EMT intervention for patient suspected of MI?

A

high flow oxygen

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66
Q

In what area of the lungs do respirations occur?

A

Alveoli

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67
Q

Your 71 year old patient complains of chest pain. He has a pulse rate of 140 & his respirations are 5 per min. You should immediately:

A

support patients ventilations with BVM

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68
Q

A 60 year old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and dry skin, and respirations of 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following treeatment modalities is MOST appropriate for this patient?

A

O2 via a nonrebreather mask, and focused history and physical exam

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69
Q

symptoms of congestive heart failure?

A

pedal edema

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70
Q

A 56 year old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient’s wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 911. Most likely the cause of this patient’s present condition is:

A

cardiogenic shock

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71
Q

Patient who has diarrhea and vomitting 3 days, weak pulse, applied 100% O2, should receive what appropriate tx from an EMT?

A

Prepare for immediate transport since he has indications of shock

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72
Q

Shock is result of

A

hypoperfusion

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73
Q

Hyperglycemia will have pale, cool & moist skin signs?

A

FALSE

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74
Q

Heat exhaustion is all except

A

hot, dry skin

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75
Q

Patient for pupillary response to light. What is normal response?

A

constriction

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76
Q

Purpose of insulin is to?

A

TRANSPORT glucose across cell membranes

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77
Q

Chemical burns to eye is to be irrigated for no more than

A

15 min

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78
Q

Status epilepticus is best defined as a brief seizure

A

FALSE because status epilepticus lasts for more than 5 min and therefore is NOT brief (short)

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79
Q

Nose bleed scenario question

A

grasp the lower nostril and maintain pressure

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80
Q

Bones are totally solid

A

FALSE, because bones are hollow structures that consist of blood vessels and bone marrows inside

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81
Q

Eye laceration scenario

A

BOTH eyes covered

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82
Q

EMT’s priority concern for the victim of an electrical burn is:

A

safety (DUHH!!)

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83
Q

The EMT’s priority assessment with neurological problems is:

A

Determining their LOC

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84
Q

Most significant sign of an increase in intracranial pressure is?

A

increasing confusion & disorientation

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85
Q

Fell on ice, severe right hip pain, right leg appears shortened & externally rotated. You suspect?

A

Fractured hip and injured spine

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86
Q

Rewarming of a patient with mild hypothermia should?

A

take place en route to hospital

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87
Q

Open fracture is ALWAYS worse than a closed fracture?

A

FALSE – in some closed fractures, you can’t tell whether there is internal bleeding within the fracture compared to open fractures

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88
Q

Severe pain to both eyes after welding with clear safety goggles suffering from?

A

UV light

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89
Q

Burns in anterior aspect of both arms and anterior chest is equal to what percentage?

A

18% = Anterior aspect of both arms (4.5 + 4.5) + anterior chest (9)

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90
Q

childrens bones are most flexible

A

TRUE

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91
Q

EMT-B tx for insulin should include:

A

Administering oral glucose and high flow O2

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92
Q

Diabetes is always caused by ketoacidosis

A

FALSE – ketoacidosis involves the metabolism of fats which produce ketones

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93
Q

Frost bitten foot can be ID

A

mottling and blistes

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94
Q

Nitroglycerin (NTG) should NOT be administered when:

A

Patient has a systolic pressure of less than 100mmHg

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95
Q

Your 42 year old male patient was involved in a house fire & his lower legs have been burned. They are charred black, but your patient states he has litle pain. This purn will be classified as:

A

both full thickness & third degree

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96
Q

Priority intervention for patient with possible sprain?

A

Immobilize!!!

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97
Q

center of the iris that allows light to move

A

pupil

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98
Q

Serious head injury include all of the following:

A

combative behavior; CSF leakage from ears; decreased sensory function; (NOT constricte pupils)

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99
Q

Stages of seizures in order of occurance:

A

aura, tonic, clonic and postictal

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100
Q

Patient has obvious swelling to facial area with several dislodged teeth. Minimal bleeding in mouth, conscious with 138/80mmHg, pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min. with adequate TV. You should:

A

Apply supplemental O2, immobilize spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport patient

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101
Q

Victim of hypothermia will have symptoms of

A

Loss of judgement and apathy (AKA lethargic patients who make bad decisions)

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102
Q

Abdominal evasceration to left lower quadrant after a knife cut. After increasing airway & assessing for other life threats, care for his wound by?

A

Cover with moist sterile dressing secured in a place with bandages

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103
Q

When administering epinephrine via auto injector, how long should it be held in place?

A

10 Seconds

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104
Q

Physiological action response does epi produce when given for allergic reaction?

A

vasoconstriction & bronchodilation

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105
Q

Significant hazards associated with splinting

A

delayed transport of injury

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106
Q

Sugar reading 300 mg/dL, semi-conscious, breathing shallowly, receiving assisted ventilation from partner. Define definitive treatment. (*Definitive tx: most needed tx that the EMT cannot provide for patient)

A

Insulin, not oxygen, because patient needs insulin the most since they have elevating blood sugar levels

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107
Q

top priority of treatment with head injury

A

spinal precaution

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108
Q

Behavioral emergency is most accurae:

A

detailed physical exam may be detrimental to gaining patient’s trust & should NOT be performed unless there is an accompanying physical complaint.

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109
Q

An epidural hematoma is MOST?

A

bleeding between skull and dura mater

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110
Q

Nervous system controls body’s which voluntary activities

A

somatic

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111
Q

Heat cramps are MOST likely the result of

A

a loss of water & electrolytes

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112
Q

Indicates severe head injury

A

decerbate posturing

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113
Q

All diabetic patients must take insulin?

A

FALSE – some diabetics adjust their diet, take oral pills, and some others inject insulin

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114
Q

You are assisting an asthma patient with an inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses inhaler, you should:

A

Instruct him to hold his breath as long as he possibly could.

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115
Q

agitation and belligerance may indicate severe injury

A

TRUE

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116
Q

Immediate EMT intervention for frostbite will include?

A

remove patient from environment & SLOWLY re-warm affected area

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117
Q

The meninges and CSF that circulates between each meningeal layer fxns by:

A

Acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord

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118
Q

Quadrapalegia can result from spinal cord

A

true

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119
Q

Most common history, sign or symptom in a patient with a concussion is?

A

brief loss of consciousness

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120
Q

After performing an initial assessment & treating any immediate life threats, you should next:

A

decide if immediate transport is indicated

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121
Q

When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT-B’s responsibility is to determine

A

which complaint poses the greatest threat to patient’s life

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122
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of chest wall?

A

only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while other area falls

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123
Q

Pain felt at a location other than its origin

A

reffered pain

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124
Q

Communicable diseases can be best decribed as?

A

Not all people who are infected with these diseases show signs or symptoms of illness

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125
Q

Tx you receive following exposure to an infection disease depends on:

A

The type of disease, not how long you were exposed or how you were exposed

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126
Q

Digestive juices from the stomach

A

hydrochloric acid

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127
Q

What is the proper treatment for death in vehicle?

A

Rapid trauma asessment

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128
Q

When assessing the moto function in a conscious patient’s lower extermities, you should expect the paitnet to:

A

Wiggle toes

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129
Q

Which of the following activities would NOT be performed during the scene size up

A

rapidly assessing a patient’s respiratory status

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130
Q

Bodily fluids such as vomitus, tears & saliva may transmit an infectious disease if they

A

contains visible amounts of blood

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131
Q

Patient is unconscious, ineffective breathing, blood secretions in mouth. What to do?

A

suction her oropharynx

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132
Q

The chief complaint is most accurately described as:

A

most serious thing that patient is concerned about

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133
Q

Traumatic neck pain

A

ensure patient can see you approaching

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134
Q

While using sirens most state laws permit

A

carefully exceed the posted speed limit

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135
Q

What is a disease the causes GI bleeding?

A

Esophageal varices

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136
Q

Symptoms of GI bleed may include

A

coffee ground emesis

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137
Q

Abnormal breath sounds least suggestive of fluid in lungs?

A

stridor

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138
Q

Which following patient does NOT have an altered mental status?

A

a patient with an acute reaction & dizziness

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139
Q

Which of the following statments regarding the mechanism of injury is correct?

A

The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of patient’s injuries

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140
Q

Appendicitis

A

associaed with rebound tenderness

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141
Q

Bowel obstruction

A

stoppage of forward flow of intestinal contents

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142
Q

Chloecystitis

A

pain in right upper quadrant; referred pain to right shoulder

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143
Q

Blood supply for heart muscle itself comes from?

A

coronary arteries

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144
Q

PID is an inflammation of the:

A

fallopian tubes, NOT the bladder, rectum, or testes. This is a disease found in women and is based on STDs

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145
Q

Left ventricle pumps blood in

A

aorta

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146
Q

Pulmonary artery orginates at?

A

right ventricle

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147
Q

An incarcerated hernia is one that ?

A

connot be pushed back within respective body cavity

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148
Q

A 59 year old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless & diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should

A

administer oxygen & prepare for immediate transport

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149
Q

Ectopic pregnancy signs usually present within

A

the 1st 6-8 weeks of pregnancy

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150
Q

Substance which bonds with oxygen for transportation to the tissue is?

A

hemoglobin

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151
Q

Largest artery

A

aorta

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152
Q

Gas exchange takes place at level of arterioles?

A

FALSE — capillaries are where gas diffusions occur

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153
Q

Stridor is caused by

A

narrowing of UPPER airway

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154
Q

Functions of the upper airway

A

filters air; warms and humidifies air; provides sense of smell

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155
Q

You receive a call for a 70 year old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should:

A

begin assisting her ventiliations with a BVM

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156
Q

Pain from an MI my radiae to?

A

one or both arms; jaw;epigastric region

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157
Q

Priority EMT intervention for patient suspected of MI?

A

high flow oxygen

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158
Q

In what area of the lungs do respirations occur?

A

Alveoli

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159
Q

Your 71 year old patient complains of chest pain. He has a pulse rate of 140 & his respirations are 5 per min. You should immediately:

A

support patients ventilations with BVM

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160
Q

A 60 year old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and dry skin, and respirations of 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following treeatment modalities is MOST appropriate for this patient?

A

O2 via a nonrebreather mask, and focused history and physical exam

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161
Q

symptoms of congestive heart failure?

A

pedal edema

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162
Q

A 56 year old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient’s wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 911. Most likely the cause of this patient’s present condition is:

A

cardiogenic shock

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163
Q

Patient who has diarrhea and vomitting 3 days, weak pulse, applied 100% O2, should receive what appropriate tx from an EMT?

A

Prepare for immediate transport since he has indications of shock

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164
Q

Shock is result of

A

hypoperfusion

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165
Q

3rd stage of labor

A

ends w/ delivery of the placenta

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166
Q

Best position for a pt in labor with limb presentation

A

left lateral trendelenburg

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167
Q

S/S of pregnant-induced hypotension (preclampsia) include all except:

A

blood in the urine

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168
Q

30 yr. old pregnant female, gravida - 3 para - 2. This means she has:

A

given birth to 2 live babies

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169
Q

Visualization of the vertex at the vaginal orifice is known as

A

crowning

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170
Q

Meconium

A

devlops in the intestine of the baby during gestation

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171
Q

Placenta will be delivered:

A

15-30 min in most instances

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172
Q

Average length of labor for primipara

A

18-24 hrs

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173
Q

Placenta Abruptio

A

placenta detaching itself from the uterine wall before the baby is delivered

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174
Q

EMT intervention for a pt who’s bleeding from an obstetrical condition include:

A

maintain open airway and high flow oxygen

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175
Q

Ovum fertilized in

A

Fallopian tube

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176
Q

Pregnant patient may not show signs of blood loss bc they

A

have double blood volume

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177
Q

Ectopic pregnancy-

A

ovum is attached outside of uterus

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178
Q

Fundus=

A

superior 1/3 of uterus

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179
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome =

A

the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava

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180
Q

Pulseless umbilical cord from signal orifice-

A

insert hand into vagina to make space for cord

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181
Q

Priority question for pregnant patient-

A

what baby is this for you

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182
Q

Priority sign of imminent delivery is

A

“visualization of the presenting part”

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183
Q

Emt treatment for ectopic pregnancy=

A

position of comfort, high flow o2

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184
Q

Respond to a call for 14 year old pregnant patient,postical & BP of 240/120

A

eclampsia

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185
Q

cut cord before drying the baby

A

FALSE

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186
Q

membranes always rupture immediatley befor delivery

A

FALSE

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187
Q

in a prehospital delivery EMT should always transport code 3

A

FALSE

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188
Q

Rapid death do to a snake bit is because of

A

anaphylaxis

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189
Q

What is SIDS

A

Infant death unexplained

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190
Q

Most common cause of dehydryan in child is due to

A

vomitting and diarrhea

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191
Q

Triage is necessary when

A

when you have 2 or more patients

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192
Q

Most supcious for child abuse

A

bruises in various stages of healing

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193
Q

In infants and toddlers common cause of seizures is

A

high fever

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194
Q

care for SIDS

A

CPR, Trans, Emotional support for Family

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195
Q

EMT Primary action for pediatric w/ resp problems

A

establish and maintain an open airway, provide O2, transport

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196
Q

Which is true for SIDS

A

devastating for family

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197
Q

Submerssion injuries in the adolescent age groups are most commonly associated with

A

alcohol

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198
Q

assesment of 8 year old

A

talk to child and caregiver

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199
Q

triage

A

to sort

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200
Q

EMT priority w/ rattlesnake bite (LA)

A

immobilize

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201
Q

Triage

A

sort according to priority of illness

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202
Q

Abdominal pain in the pediatric patients is best cared for by :

A

transport patient in position of comfort & with oxygen as tolerated

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203
Q

33yr Male, gathering wood w/ sharp pain to hand. Abdom pain, weak, nausea

A

black widow

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204
Q

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:

A

nervous system

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205
Q

Pale Skin in a child indicates that the ..

A

blood vessels near the neck are constricted

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206
Q

which of the following finding is least suggestive of child abuse

A

consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver

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207
Q

Scene: bicycle crash involving a car– 10 yr old patient riding bike, concious and has a great deal of bleeding from leg wound

A

assure and open airway and immobilize the spine

208
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous material is most correct?

A

some substances are not hazardous in themselves but become toxic when mixed w/ another chemical

209
Q

Multi-people in a small town began expierencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination & muscle twitiching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community

A

atropine & pralidoxine chloride

210
Q

A MCI is the most accurately defined as ..

A

an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a systmes avaliable resources

211
Q

A patient who has expierenced a back injury with or without spinal cord damage would be arranged with:

A

yellow

212
Q

Exposure to _____ would most likely result in immediate respiratory distress

A

chlorine

213
Q

A person who routinely uses a substance and requires increasing to achieve the same effect is expierencing

A

tolerance

214
Q

Possible drug abuse patient who is seeing and hearing things you cannot might indicate

A

use of PCP

215
Q

The bombing of Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building in 1995 is an example of :

A

domestic terrorism

216
Q

Amphetamines & cocaine are in the drug category:

A

stimulants

217
Q

Irritated nose/mouth, numbness, & altered state of consciousness may indicate abuse of

A

hydrocarbons

218
Q

The EMT priority in caring for a patient with surface contact poisoning is to

A

avoid contaminating yourself

219
Q

Botulinum is a

A

potent bacterial neurotoxin

220
Q

A WMD (weapon of mass destruction) is MOST accurately defined as:

A

any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage

221
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor in determing how to protect yourself aggainst the effects of radiation?

A

radiation type (remember TDS: time, distance, and shielding

222
Q

Skin lesions associated with smallpox:

A

are identical in their development

223
Q

Codeine, heroin, & morphine are examples of:

A

narcotics

224
Q

The ovum is usually fertilized in the

A

fallopian tube

225
Q

A substance abuse patient demonstrating pinpoint pupils & depressed respirations has most likely taken

A

narcotics

226
Q

Delirium tremens (DT’s) is a syndrome associated with withdrawl from

A

alcohol

227
Q

Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent

A

soman (GD)

228
Q

An overdose on acetamophine (tylenol) will most likely cause

A

liver failure

229
Q

To date, the preferred weapon of mass destruction for terrorists

A

explosive weapons

230
Q

multiple patients. First young female unconscious&apneic open head injury weak pulse&thready

A

give her low priority and continue triaging

231
Q

Which of the following drug is not a sedative

A

cocaine

232
Q

Arrive at scene, Green liquid leaking from tank

A

remain at a safe distance and notify the hazard materials

233
Q

Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poison is most correct

A

lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the enviorment

234
Q

EMT intervention for a patient who has ingested corrosives include

A

discouraging patient from vomiting

235
Q

All of the following biological agents or disease can be transmited from a person to person except

A

Ricin

236
Q

The process of moving or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazerdous material is called

A

decontamination

237
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a rout by which poison may enter the body

A

interfusion

238
Q

A 52 year old male presents himself with a fever of 102.5’F with multiple blisters with identical shape and size. This patients clinical presentation most consist with

A

Small pox

239
Q

An excited sweaty patient with elevated pulse and blood pressure may indicate use of

A

Stimulants

240
Q

When vicitms of a mass casualty are moved to the treatment area

A

A thorough assesment is preformed and further treatment is rendered

241
Q

The sighn and symptoms of a indigested poison can include

A

All of the above: signs and symptoms of shock, ALOC, burns or strains

242
Q

A poison that enters the body by ___is the most difficult to treat

A

Injection

243
Q

Patient has GRAVIDA - 3 and PARA - 2. Which is accurate about the patient?

A

The patient has had 2 live births. GRAVIDA means # of times pregnant and PARA means # of live births

244
Q

Which is priority for describing imminent child delivery?

A

Visualization of the infant’s head / Crowning

245
Q

Best position for a patient during labor ?

A

Left Lateral trendelenberg

246
Q

Meconium is a substance which:

A

Develops in the intesting of the baby during gestion

247
Q

Umblical cord is clamped and cut before drying and warming the baby?

A

FALSE

248
Q

The primary mechanism that a childs body uses to compensate for decreased perfusion:

A

increased cardiac contraction

249
Q

When treating a patient that has been contaminated with a hazardous substance, the emt should:

A

arrange for decontamination before treating the patient

250
Q

3rd stage of labor

A

ends w/ delivery of the placenta

251
Q

Best position for a pt in labor with limb presentation

A

left lateral trendelenburg

252
Q

S/S of pregnant-induced hypotension (preclampsia) include all except:

A

blood in the urine

253
Q

30 yr. old pregnant female, gravida - 3 para - 2. This means she has:

A

given birth to 2 live babies

254
Q

Visualization of the vertex at the vaginal orifice is known as

A

crowning

255
Q

Meconium

A

devlops in the intestine of the baby during gestation

256
Q

Placenta will be delivered:

A

15-30 min in most instances

257
Q

Average length of labor for primipara

A

18-24 hrs

258
Q

Placenta Abruptio

A

placenta detaching itself from the uterine wall before the baby is delivered

259
Q

EMT intervention for a pt who’s bleeding from an obstetrical condition include:

A

maintain open airway and high flow oxygen

260
Q

Delivery emt priority action

A

drying and warming of newborn

261
Q

Ovum fertilized in

A

Fallopian tube

262
Q

Pregnant patient may not show signs of blood loss bc they

A

have double blood volume

263
Q

Ectopic pregnancy-

A

ovum is attached outside of uterus

264
Q

Fundus=

A

superior 1/3 of uterus

265
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome =

A

the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava

266
Q

Pulseless umbilical cord from signal orifice-

A

insert hand into vagina to make space for cord

267
Q

Priority question for pregnant patient-

A

what baby is this for you

268
Q

Priority sign of imminent delivery is

A

“visualization of the presenting part”

269
Q

Emt treatment for ectopic pregnancy=

A

position of comfort, high flow o2

270
Q

Respond to a call for 14 year old pregnant patient,postical & BP of 240/120

A

eclampsia

271
Q

cut cord before drying the baby

A

FALSE

272
Q

membranes always rupture immediatley befor delivery

A

FALSE

273
Q

in a prehospital delivery EMT should always transport code 3

A

FALSE

274
Q

Rapid death do to a snake bit is because of

A

anaphylaxis

275
Q

What is SIDS

A

Infant death unexplained

276
Q

Most common cause of dehydryan in child is due to

A

vomitting and diarrhea

277
Q

Triage is necessary when

A

when you have 2 or more patients

278
Q

Most supcious for child abuse

A

bruises in various stages of healing

279
Q

In infants and toddlers common cause of seizures is

A

high fever

280
Q

care for SIDS

A

CPR, Trans, Emotional support for Family

281
Q

EMT Primary action for pediatric w/ resp problems

A

establish and maintain an open airway, provide O2, transport

282
Q

Which is true for SIDS

A

devastating for family

283
Q

Submerssion injuries in the adolescent age groups are most commonly associated with

A

alcohol

284
Q

assesment of 8 year old

A

talk to child and caregiver

285
Q

triage

A

to sort

286
Q

EMT priority w/ rattlesnake bite (LA)

A

immobilize

287
Q

Triage

A

sort according to priority of illness

288
Q

Abdominal pain in the pediatric patients is best cared for by :

A

transport patient in position of comfort & with oxygen as tolerated

289
Q

33yr Male, gathering wood w/ sharp pain to hand. Abdom pain, weak, nausea

A

black widow

290
Q

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:

A

nervous system

291
Q

Pale Skin in a child indicates that the ..

A

blood vessels near the neck are constricted

292
Q

which of the following finding is least suggestive of child abuse

A

consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver

293
Q

Scene: bicycle crash involving a car– 10 yr old patient riding bike, concious and has a great deal of bleeding from leg wound

A

assure and open airway and immobilize the spine

294
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous material is most correct?

A

some substances are not hazardous in themselves but become toxic when mixed w/ another chemical

295
Q

Multi-people in a small town began expierencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination & muscle twitiching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community

A

atropine & pralidoxine chloride

296
Q

A MCI is the most accurately defined as ..

A

an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a systmes avaliable resources

297
Q

A patient who has expierenced a back injury with or without spinal cord damage would be arranged with:

A

yellow

298
Q

Exposure to _____ would most likely result in immediate respiratory distress

A

chlorine

299
Q

A person who routinely uses a substance and requires increasing to achieve the same effect is expierencing

A

tolerance

300
Q

Possible drug abuse patient who is seeing and hearing things you cannot might indicate

A

use of PCP

301
Q

The bombing of Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building in 1995 is an example of :

A

domestic terrorism

302
Q

Amphetamines & cocaine are in the drug category:

A

stimulants

303
Q

Irritated nose/mouth, numbness, & altered state of consciousness may indicate abuse of

A

hydrocarbons

304
Q

The EMT priority in caring for a patient with surface contact poisoning is to

A

avoid contaminating yourself

305
Q

Botulinum is a

A

potent bacterial neurotoxin

306
Q

A WMD (weapon of mass destruction) is MOST accurately defined as:

A

any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage

307
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor in determing how to protect yourself aggainst the effects of radiation?

A

radiation type (remember TDS: time, distance, and shielding

308
Q

Skin lesions associated with smallpox:

A

are identical in their development

309
Q

Codeine, heroin, & morphine are examples of:

A

narcotics

310
Q

The ovum is usually fertilized in the

A

fallopian tube

311
Q

A substance abuse patient demonstrating pinpoint pupils & depressed respirations has most likely taken

A

narcotics

312
Q

Delirium tremens (DT’s) is a syndrome associated with withdrawl from

A

alcohol

313
Q

Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent

A

soman (GD)

314
Q

An overdose on acetamophine (tylenol) will most likely cause

A

liver failure

315
Q

To date, the preferred weapon of mass destruction for terrorists

A

explosive weapons

316
Q

multiple patients. First young female unconscious&apneic open head injury weak pulse&thready

A

give her low priority and continue triaging

317
Q

Which of the following drug is not a sedative

A

cocaine

318
Q

Arrive at scene, Green liquid leaking from tank

A

remain at a safe distance and notify the hazard materials

319
Q

Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poison is most correct

A

lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the enviorment

320
Q

EMT intervention for a patient who has ingested corrosives include

A

discouraging patient from vomiting

321
Q

All of the following biological agents or disease can be transmited from a person to person except

A

Ricin

322
Q

The process of moving or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazerdous material is called

A

decontamination

323
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a rout by which poison may enter the body

A

interfusion

324
Q

A 52 year old male presents himself with a fever of 102.5’F with multiple blisters with identical shape and size. This patients clinical presentation most consist with

A

Small pox

325
Q

An excited sweaty patient with elevated pulse and blood pressure may indicate use of

A

Stimulants

326
Q

When vicitms of a mass casualty are moved to the treatment area

A

A thorough assesment is preformed and further treatment is rendered

327
Q

The sighn and symptoms of a indigested poison can include

A

All of the above: signs and symptoms of shock, ALOC, burns or strains

328
Q

A poison that enters the body by ___is the most difficult to treat

A

Injection

329
Q

Patient has GRAVIDA - 3 and PARA - 2. Which is accurate about the patient?

A

The patient has had 2 live births. GRAVIDA means # of times pregnant and PARA means # of live births

330
Q

Which is priority for describing imminent child delivery?

A

Visualization of the infant’s head / Crowning

331
Q

Best position for a patient during labor ?

A

Left Lateral trendelenberg

332
Q

Meconium is a substance which:

A

Develops in the intesting of the baby during gestion

333
Q

Umblical cord is clamped and cut before drying and warming the baby?

A

FALSE

334
Q

The primary mechanism that a childs body uses to compensate for decreased perfusion:

A

increased cardiac contraction

335
Q

When treating a patient that has been contaminated with a hazardous substance, the emt should:

A

arrange for decontamination before treating the patient

336
Q

3rd stage of labor

A

ends w/ delivery of the placenta

337
Q

Best position for a pt in labor with limb presentation

A

left lateral trendelenburg

338
Q

S/S of pregnant-induced hypotension (preclampsia) include all except:

A

blood in the urine

339
Q

30 yr. old pregnant female, gravida - 3 para - 2. This means she has:

A

given birth to 2 live babies

340
Q

Visualization of the vertex at the vaginal orifice is known as

A

crowning

341
Q

Meconium

A

devlops in the intestine of the baby during gestation

342
Q

Placenta will be delivered:

A

15-30 min in most instances

343
Q

Average length of labor for primipara

A

18-24 hrs

344
Q

Placenta Abruptio

A

placenta detaching itself from the uterine wall before the baby is delivered

345
Q

EMT intervention for a pt who’s bleeding from an obstetrical condition include:

A

maintain open airway and high flow oxygen

346
Q

Delivery emt priority action

A

drying and warming of newborn

347
Q

Ovum fertilized in

A

Fallopian tube

348
Q

Pregnant patient may not show signs of blood loss bc they

A

have double blood volume

349
Q

Ectopic pregnancy-

A

ovum is attached outside of uterus

350
Q

Fundus=

A

superior 1/3 of uterus

351
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome =

A

the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava

352
Q

Pulseless umbilical cord from signal orifice-

A

insert hand into vagina to make space for cord

353
Q

Priority question for pregnant patient-

A

what baby is this for you

354
Q

Priority sign of imminent delivery is

A

“visualization of the presenting part”

355
Q

Emt treatment for ectopic pregnancy=

A

position of comfort, high flow o2

356
Q

Respond to a call for 14 year old pregnant patient,postical & BP of 240/120

A

eclampsia

357
Q

cut cord before drying the baby

A

FALSE

358
Q

membranes always rupture immediatley befor delivery

A

FALSE

359
Q

in a prehospital delivery EMT should always transport code 3

A

FALSE

360
Q

Rapid death do to a snake bit is because of

A

anaphylaxis

361
Q

What is SIDS

A

Infant death unexplained

362
Q

Most common cause of dehydryan in child is due to

A

vomitting and diarrhea

363
Q

Triage is necessary when

A

when you have 2 or more patients

364
Q

Most supcious for child abuse

A

bruises in various stages of healing

365
Q

In infants and toddlers common cause of seizures is

A

high fever

366
Q

care for SIDS

A

CPR, Trans, Emotional support for Family

367
Q

EMT Primary action for pediatric w/ resp problems

A

establish and maintain an open airway, provide O2, transport

368
Q

Which is true for SIDS

A

devastating for family

369
Q

Submerssion injuries in the adolescent age groups are most commonly associated with

A

alcohol

370
Q

assesment of 8 year old

A

talk to child and caregiver

371
Q

triage

A

to sort

372
Q

EMT priority w/ rattlesnake bite (LA)

A

immobilize

373
Q

Triage

A

sort according to priority of illness

374
Q

Abdominal pain in the pediatric patients is best cared for by :

A

transport patient in position of comfort & with oxygen as tolerated

375
Q

33yr Male, gathering wood w/ sharp pain to hand. Abdom pain, weak, nausea

A

black widow

376
Q

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:

A

nervous system

377
Q

Pale Skin in a child indicates that the ..

A

blood vessels near the neck are constricted

378
Q

which of the following finding is least suggestive of child abuse

A

consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver

379
Q

Scene: bicycle crash involving a car– 10 yr old patient riding bike, concious and has a great deal of bleeding from leg wound

A

assure and open airway and immobilize the spine

380
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous material is most correct?

A

some substances are not hazardous in themselves but become toxic when mixed w/ another chemical

381
Q

Multi-people in a small town began expierencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination & muscle twitiching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community

A

atropine & pralidoxine chloride

382
Q

A MCI is the most accurately defined as ..

A

an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a systmes avaliable resources

383
Q

A patient who has expierenced a back injury with or without spinal cord damage would be arranged with:

A

yellow

384
Q

Exposure to _____ would most likely result in immediate respiratory distress

A

chlorine

385
Q

A person who routinely uses a substance and requires increasing to achieve the same effect is expierencing

A

tolerance

386
Q

Possible drug abuse patient who is seeing and hearing things you cannot might indicate

A

use of PCP

387
Q

The bombing of Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building in 1995 is an example of :

A

domestic terrorism

388
Q

Amphetamines & cocaine are in the drug category:

A

stimulants

389
Q

Irritated nose/mouth, numbness, & altered state of consciousness may indicate abuse of

A

hydrocarbons

390
Q

The EMT priority in caring for a patient with surface contact poisoning is to

A

avoid contaminating yourself

391
Q

Botulinum is a

A

potent bacterial neurotoxin

392
Q

A WMD (weapon of mass destruction) is MOST accurately defined as:

A

any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage

393
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor in determing how to protect yourself aggainst the effects of radiation?

A

radiation type (remember TDS: time, distance, and shielding

394
Q

Skin lesions associated with smallpox:

A

are identical in their development

395
Q

Codeine, heroin, & morphine are examples of:

A

narcotics

396
Q

The ovum is usually fertilized in the

A

fallopian tube

397
Q

A substance abuse patient demonstrating pinpoint pupils & depressed respirations has most likely taken

A

narcotics

398
Q

Delirium tremens (DT’s) is a syndrome associated with withdrawl from

A

alcohol

399
Q

Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent

A

soman (GD)

400
Q

An overdose on acetamophine (tylenol) will most likely cause

A

liver failure

401
Q

To date, the preferred weapon of mass destruction for terrorists

A

explosive weapons

402
Q

multiple patients. First young female unconscious&apneic open head injury weak pulse&thready

A

give her low priority and continue triaging

403
Q

Which of the following drug is not a sedative

A

cocaine

404
Q

Arrive at scene, Green liquid leaking from tank

A

remain at a safe distance and notify the hazard materials

405
Q

Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poison is most correct

A

lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the enviorment

406
Q

EMT intervention for a patient who has ingested corrosives include

A

discouraging patient from vomiting

407
Q

All of the following biological agents or disease can be transmited from a person to person except

A

Ricin

408
Q

The process of moving or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazerdous material is called

A

decontamination

409
Q

You respond to a local motel for a you confused female who was sexually assulted. The last thing she remebered was drinking at a bar when she woke up she was at a motel what happened

A

Roofies

410
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a rout by which poison may enter the body

A

interfusion

411
Q

A 52 year old male presents himself with a fever of 102.5’F with multiple blisters with identical shape and size. This patients clinical presentation most consist with

A

Small pox

412
Q

An excited sweaty patient with elevated pulse and blood pressure may indicate use of

A

Stimulants

413
Q

When vicitms of a mass casualty are moved to the treatment area

A

A thorough assesment is preformed and further treatment is rendered

414
Q

The sighn and symptoms of a indigested poison can include

A

All of the above: signs and symptoms of shock, ALOC, burns or strains

415
Q

A poison that enters the body by ___is the most difficult to treat

A

Injection

416
Q

Patient has GRAVIDA - 3 and PARA - 2. Which is accurate about the patient?

A

The patient has had 2 live births. GRAVIDA means # of times pregnant and PARA means # of live births

417
Q

Which is priority for describing imminent child delivery?

A

Visualization of the infant’s head / Crowning

418
Q

Best position for a patient during labor ?

A

Left Lateral trendelenberg

419
Q

Meconium is a substance which:

A

Develops in the intesting of the baby during gestion

420
Q

Umblical cord is clamped and cut before drying and warming the baby?

A

FALSE

421
Q

The primary mechanism that a childs body uses to compensate for decreased perfusion:

A

increased cardiac contraction

422
Q

When treating a patient that has been contaminated with a hazardous substance, the emt should:

A

arrange for decontamination before treating the patient

423
Q

3rd stage of labor

A

ends w/ delivery of the placenta

424
Q

Best position for a pt in labor with limb presentation

A

left lateral trendelenburg

425
Q

S/S of pregnant-induced hypotension (preclampsia) include all except:

A

blood in the urine

426
Q

30 yr. old pregnant female, gravida - 3 para - 2. This means she has:

A

given birth to 2 live babies

427
Q

Visualization of the vertex at the vaginal orifice is known as

A

crowning

428
Q

Meconium

A

devlops in the intestine of the baby during gestation

429
Q

Placenta will be delivered:

A

15-30 min in most instances

430
Q

Average length of labor for primipara

A

18-24 hrs

431
Q

The condition that occurs when the placenta detaches itself from the uterine wall before baby is delivered

A

Placentia Abruptio

432
Q

EMT intervention for a pt who’s bleeding from an obstetrical condition include:

A

maintain open airway and high flow oxygen

433
Q

Delivery- emt priority action

A

drying and warming of newborn

434
Q

Ovum fertilized in

A

Fallopian tube

435
Q

Pregnant patient may not show signs of blood loss bc they

A

have double blood volume

436
Q

Ectopic pregnancy-

A

ovum is attached outside of uterus

437
Q

Fundus=

A

superior 1/3 of uterus

438
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome =

A

the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava

439
Q

Pulseless umbilical cord from signal orifice-

A

insert hand into vagina to make space for cord

440
Q

Priority question for pregnant patient-

A

what baby is this for you

441
Q

Priority sign of imminent delivery is

A

“visualization of the presenting part”

442
Q

Emt treatment for ectopic pregnancy=

A

position of comfort, high flow o2

443
Q

Respond to a call for 14 year old pregnant patient,postical & BP of 240/120

A

eclampsia

444
Q

cut cord before drying the baby

A

FALSE

445
Q

membranes always rupture immediatley befor delivery

A

FALSE

446
Q

in a prehospital delivery EMT should always transport code 3

A

FALSE

447
Q

Rapid death do to a snake bit is because of

A

anaphylaxis

448
Q

What is SIDS

A

Infant death unexplained

449
Q

Most common cause of dehydryan in child is due to

A

vomitting and diarrhea

450
Q

Triage is necessary when

A

when you have 2 or more patients

451
Q

Most supcious for child abuse

A

bruises in various stages of healing

452
Q

In infants and toddlers common cause of seizures is

A

high fever

453
Q

care for SIDS

A

CPR, Trans, Emotional support for Family

454
Q

EMT Primary action for pediatric w/ resp problems

A

establish and maintain an open airway, provide O2, transport

455
Q

Which is true for SIDS

A

devastating for family

456
Q

Submerssion injuries in the adolescent age groups are most commonly associated with

A

alcohol

457
Q

assesment of 8 year old

A

talk to child and caregiver

458
Q

triage

A

to sort

459
Q

EMT priority w/ rattlesnake bite (LA)

A

immobilize

460
Q

Triage

A

sort according to priority of illness

461
Q

Abdominal pain in the pediatric patients is best cared for by :

A

transport patient in position of comfort & with oxygen as tolerated

462
Q

33yr Male, gathering wood w/ sharp pain to hand. Abdom pain, weak, nausea

A

black widow

463
Q

Which is more common in children than in adults following head injury?

A

nausea and vomitting NOT spinal cord

464
Q

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:

A

nervous system

465
Q

When faced with a hazardous material the emt should

A

deny entry to authorized personel

466
Q

The primary mechanism that a childs body uses to compensate for decreased profusion is?

A

increase heartrate

467
Q

S/S of meningitis in an infant/child includes which of the folliwing:

A

headache and fever, stiff and painful neck, ALOC, EXCEPT sunken fontanels

468
Q

Child may begin to show signs of stranger anxiety as early as:

A

12 months

469
Q

EMT treatment for pediatric patient with high fever includes:

A

Passively cooling patient to near normal temperatures without chilling

470
Q

Pale Skin in a child indicates that the ..

A

blood vessels near the skin are constricted

471
Q

which of the following finding is least suggestive of child abuse

A

consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver

472
Q

Scene: bicycle crash involving a car– 10 yr old patient riding bike, concious and has a great deal of bleeding from leg wound

A

assure and open airway and immobilize the spine

473
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous material is most correct?

A

some substances are not hazardous in themselves but become toxic when mixed w/ another chemical

474
Q

Which statement regarding ICS is MOST correct?

A

The ICS is designed for use in daily EMS operations

475
Q

Multi-people in a small town began expierencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination & muscle twitiching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community

A

atropine & pralidoxine chloride

476
Q

A MCI is the most accurately defined as ..

A

an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a systmes avaliable resources

477
Q

What medical problem can present similar to a patient under alcoholic influence?

A

All of the above (epilepsy, diabetes, head injury)

478
Q

A patient who has expierenced a back injury with or without spinal cord damage would be arranged with:

A

yellow

479
Q

Exposure to _____ would most likely result in immediate respiratory distress

A

chlorine

480
Q

A person who routinely uses a substance and requires increasing to achieve the same effect is expierencing

A

tolerance

481
Q

Possible drug abuse patient who is seeing and hearing things you cannot might indicate

A

use of PCP

482
Q

The bombing of Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building in 1995 is an example of :

A

domestic terrorism

483
Q

Amphetamines & cocaine are in the drug category:

A

stimulants

484
Q

Irritated nose/mouth, numbness, & altered state of consciousness may indicate abuse of

A

hydrocarbons

485
Q

The EMT priority in caring for a patient with surface contact poisoning is to

A

avoid contaminating yourself

486
Q

Botulinum is a

A

potent bacterial neurotoxin

487
Q

A WMD (weapon of mass destruction) is MOST accurately defined as:

A

any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage

488
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor in determing how to protect yourself aggainst the effects of radiation?

A

radiation type (remember TDS: time, distance, and shielding

489
Q

Skin lesions associated with smallpox:

A

are identical in their development

490
Q

Codeine, heroin, & morphine are examples of:

A

narcotics

491
Q

The ovum is usually fertilized in the

A

fallopian tube

492
Q

A substance abuse patient demonstrating pinpoint pupils & depressed respirations has most likely taken

A

narcotics

493
Q

Delirium tremens (DT’s) is a syndrome associated with withdrawl from

A

alcohol

494
Q

Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent

A

soman (GD)

495
Q

An overdose on acetamophine (tylenol) will most likely cause

A

liver failure

496
Q

To date, the preferred weapon of mass destruction for terrorists

A

explosive weapons

497
Q

multiple patients. First young female unconscious&apneic open head injury weak pulse&thready

A

give her low priority and continue triaging

498
Q

Which of the following drug is not a sedative

A

cocaine

499
Q

Arrive at scene, Green liquid leaking from tank

A

remain at a safe distance and notify the hazard materials

500
Q

Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poison is most correct

A

lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the enviorment

501
Q

EMT intervention for a patient who has ingested corrosives include

A

discouraging patient from vomiting

502
Q

All of the following biological agents or disease can be transmited from a person to person except

A

Ricin

503
Q

The process of moving or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazerdous material is called

A

decontamination

504
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a rout by which poison may enter the body

A

interfusion

505
Q

A 52 year old male presents himself with a fever of 102.5’F with multiple blisters with identical shape and size. This patients clinical presentation most consist with

A

Small pox

506
Q

An excited sweaty patient with elevated pulse and blood pressure may indicate use of

A

Stimulants

507
Q

When vicitms of a mass casualty are moved to the treatment area

A

A thorough assesment is preformed and further treatment is rendered

508
Q

The signs and symptoms of a indigested poison can include

A

All of the above: signs and symptoms of shock, ALOC, burns or strains

509
Q

A poison that enters the body by ___is the most difficult to treat

A

Injection

510
Q

Patient has GRAVIDA - 3 and PARA - 2. Which is accurate about the patient?

A

The patient has had 2 live births. GRAVIDA means # of times pregnant and PARA means # of live births

511
Q

Which is priority for describing imminent child delivery?

A

Visualization of the infant’s head / Crowning

512
Q

Best position for a patient during labor ?

A

Left Lateral trendelenberg

513
Q

Meconium is a substance which:

A

Develops in the intesting of the baby during gestion

514
Q

Umblical cord is clamped and cut before drying and warming the baby?

A

FALSE

515
Q

The primary mechanism that a childs body uses to compensate for decreased perfusion:

A

increased cardiac contraction

516
Q

When treating a patient that has been contaminated with a hazardous substance, the emt should:

A

arrange for decontamination before treating the patient