Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What osmolality of solution is suitable to be administered through peripheral veins?

A

600 mOsm or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes the greatest change in flow through a catheter?

A

Changes in diameter

Larger catheter = smaller guage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are possible complications of catheterization?

A

Phlebitis
Thrombosis
Embolism
Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of catheters have increased severity of complications?

A

Central venous catheters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What solution determines IV volume?

A

Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is hypovolemia?

A

Loss of intravascular fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a balanced fluid and what are examples?

A

A fluid that resembles extracellular fluid (high Ha, low K)

LRS, NormR, Plasmalyte 148

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are replacement fluids?

A

High in Na and Cl

Low in K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are colloids?

A

Fluids in which (theoretically) 100% of infused volume stays in vasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What protein generates 80% of cOP in normal states?

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an example of a weak colloid?

A

Blood products (fresh frozen plasma and whole blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Starches interfere with what factors and thus may lead to platelet dysfunction?

A

Factor VIII

vWBF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What value would be falsely elevated compared to osolality after administration of hetastarch?

A

USG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What riage category would an unconscious patient be classified?

A

Triage category 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A patient with short, shallow respirations may have what type of disease?

A

Pleural space disease or diaphragmatic hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Stridor is indicative of what disease?

A

Upper airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What would you do for a patient in respiratory distress?

A

Minimize stress
Provide oxygen
Sedation - butorphanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can you distinguish between cardiac and non-cardiac disease?

A

Rads

Cardiac disease will have pulmonary venous distntion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the equation for DO2?

A

DO2 = CO x CaO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the equation for CaO2?

A

(Hb x 1.34 x SaO2) + (PaO2 x 0.003)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of heart rate would you expect in a patient in shock?

A

Mostly bradycardia but can also be tachycardic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is septic shock?

A

Systemic inflammatory response to infection complicated by hypotension in face of adequate fluid resusitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are DAMPs?

A

“Danger-associated molecular proteins”

Non-infectious endogenous substances that can cause inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What enzymes cause hemorrhage?

A

Metalloproteinases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What clinical signs are associated with snake bites?

A

Local wound swelling

variable pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are extreme consequences of snake envenomation?

A

Respiratory failure, paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What PaCO2 level calls for assisted ventilation?

A

PCO2 > 65 mmHg

28
Q

What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?

A

Bind to DNA gyrase and topoisomerase to prevent gene transcription

Best for Gram -

29
Q

What antibiotic is best to treat hospital-acquired pneumonia or patients that have had recent antimicrobial use?

A

Penicillins with an aminoglycoside (amikacin)

30
Q

What antimicrobial is best for a recent animal bite?

A

Potentiated sulfonamides

31
Q

If a 15kg dog goes into cardiac arrest , which CPR technique would be best to use?

A

Thoracic pump technique

100-120 bpm

32
Q

What is an indication for open chest compression?

A

Pericardial effusion

33
Q

What are the 4 cardiac arrest rhythms?

A

Asystole
Pulseless V tach
V fib
Pulseless electrical activity

34
Q

What drug should you give to a blocked cat with high K?

A

Calcium gluconate

35
Q

What is Mean Arterial Pressure?

A

Cardiac output x systemic vascular resistance

36
Q

What is the treatent for insulin overdose, hypocalcemia, low glycogen stroes?

A

Glucagon

37
Q

In which disease is there hyponatremia and hyperkalemia?

A

Addisonian crisis

Do not correct Na overnight

38
Q

If a small dog comes in to your clinic a few days post-partum, febrile, and showing signs of tetany, what disease should you suspect and how will you treat it?

A

Eclampsia

Give Ca gluconate

39
Q

How do you treat a dog with thyroid myxedema?

A

Thyroxine IV
IV fluids
Glucocorticoid

40
Q

What are the three cascade models of coagulation?

A

Extrinsic (initiation)
Intrinsic (amplication)
Common (propogation)

41
Q

What factor up-regulates PAI-1 and PAI-2?

A

TAFI

42
Q

What factore help prevent pathologic thrombosis?

A

Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
Thrombomodulin
Protein C
Antithrombin

43
Q

What are the two events in DIC?

A
  1. Widespread fibrin deposition

2. Consumption of platelets and clotting factors

44
Q

How can you diagnose DIC? How do you treat it?

A

Dx: FDP

Tx: treat underlying cause

45
Q

What clin path abnormality would you see with Vit K antagonism?

A

Prolonged PT with normal PTT

46
Q

If you suspect an animal has a coagulopathy and the owner is limited financially, what test is best?

A

ACT

47
Q

What is Virchow’d triad?

A

Endothelial damage
Change in blood flow
Hypercoagulability

48
Q

What is the #1 disease concurrently diagnosed with thrombosis?

A

Cancer

49
Q

Which test would you not use to diagnose a pulmonary thromboembolism?

A

TEG?

50
Q

What is the mechanism of action of unfractioned heparin?

A

Potentiation of antithrombin

51
Q

What is mechanical thromboprophylaxis?

A

Early and frequent controlled exercise

52
Q

What measure of blood pressure is very accurate?

A

Direct arterial BP

53
Q

Does respiratory rate affect the accuracy of pulse ox?

A

No

54
Q

What physiologic changes would you see with hypoventilation?

A

Decreased RR and tidal volume

Increased metabolic rate

Rise in body temp

55
Q

What ages are considered pediatric?

A

2-3 weeks through 4-6 months

56
Q

What is a normal neonatal temperature at 1 week old?

A

96-97 degrees F

57
Q

What is a normal neonatal heart rate at 1 week old?

A

200-220 bpm

58
Q

How can you assess neonatal hydration?

A

Weight
MM
Urine color

59
Q

How will you be able to tell is a neonate is not excreting urine?

A

Roll over, will see uroabdomen

60
Q

What is the most life-threatening injury induced by trauma?

A

Pneumothorax

61
Q

What is true about conventional (fluid?) resusitation?

A

Don’t typically give shock dose

62
Q

What imaging is required for all trauma patients?

A

Thoracic rads

63
Q

What diagnostics would you do immediately for an animal with multiple fractures and in shock?

A

Thoracic rads

AFAST

64
Q

What diagnost is done on MOST trauma patients?

A

AFAST

65
Q

What is the Cushings relfex?

A

Hypertension with reflex bradycardia

66
Q

What injury requires surgery immediately after cardiovascular stabilization?

A

Spinal fracture

67
Q

What type of bandage is best for contaminated wounds?

A

Wet-to-dry