Study guide Flashcards

1
Q

Cost Driver:

A

basis on which the cost pool will be allocated. They should be fair and should promote organizational cost reduction

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2
Q

Allocation Rate

A

: numerical value used to make the allocation rate. Dollars in cost pool/total volume of cost driver

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3
Q

Direct Cost

A

costs unique and exclusive to unit

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4
Q

Indirect Cost

A

costs or overhead costs associated with shared resources used by the entire organization

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5
Q

Prospective reimbursement plans

A

payment methods that have a fixed payment determined beforehand that is, in theory, unrelated to either costs or charges. (DRG, Per-diem, & global pricing)

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6
Q

Retrospective reimbursement plans

A

is where reimbursement came after care was delivered

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7
Q

Capitation

A

based on a payment per person, rather than a payment per service provided. Capitation is not tied to utilization but to number lives covered

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8
Q

Medicare Prospective Payment Plan (PPS) and DRG’s

A

method of reimbursement in which Medicare payment is made based on a predetermined, fixed amount. Payment amount for a service is derived based on the classification system of that service

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9
Q

Cash Accounting

A

recognizes an event when a cash transaction takes place. Mimics tax statements

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10
Q

Accrual Accounting

A

recognizes an event when an obligation is created. Provides a better picture of the true economic status of a business, and is required by GAAP

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11
Q

FASB

A

Financial Accounting Standards Board; designated as the organization for establishing standards of financial accounting that govern the preparation of financial reports by nongovernmental entities

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12
Q

GAAP

A

Generally Accepted Accounting Principles; created by FASB only applies to financial accounting statements

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13
Q

Advantages of partnerships, proprietorships and corporations

A

Partnership/Proprietorship; ease of formation, subject to new regulations, no corporate income taxes
Corporation; Unlimited Life, transfer of ownership, limited liability, ease of raising capital

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14
Q

Disadvantages

A

Partnership/Proprietorship; limited life, difficult to transfer ownership, unlimited liability, difficult to raise capital
Corporation: cost of formation and reporting, double or triple taxation for investor owned companies

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15
Q

Why do high income persons like to invest in tax free bonds?

A

They are not taxable to their income

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16
Q

Bonds?

A

A form of long-term investment.

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17
Q

Equity financing

A

takes the form of money obtained from investors in exchange for an ownership share in the business

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18
Q

Debt financing

A

form of loans that must be repaid over time, usually with interest, the main sources of are banks and government agencies

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19
Q

Balance Sheet

A

Snapshot of the organization’s financial picture at one point in time

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20
Q

Statement of Cash Flow

A

Presents the activity of the business for the previous time period

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21
Q

Income Statement

A

Show the company’s use and acquisition of funds for a given period of time; representative of a company’s financial success or failure

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22
Q

Opportunity Cost

A

return of alternative investment of funds;

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23
Q

Municipal bonds

A

issued by state and are not taxable

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24
Q

Corporate bonds

A

have a shorter life, considered high risk high return investment

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25
Q

Callable bond

A

a bond that can be redeemed by the issuer prior to its maturity. Usually a premium is paid to the bond owner when the bond is called. (Redeemable Bond)

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26
Q

Preferred stock holder

A

they receive dividends first and in regular intervals. If a company liquidates, stock holders are required to receive funds

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27
Q

Structure

A

gauge the care attributes of the healthcare setting, including material resources (e.g., electronic health records), human resources (e.g., staff expertise), and organizational structure (e.g., hospitals or clinics).

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28
Q

Process

A

measures evaluate the method by which healthcare is provided. The measures reflect the procedures, tests, surgeries, and other actions provided for the patient during the course of treatment

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29
Q

Outcome

A

Outcome measures track the desired states resulting from care processes and demonstrate the effect structure and process measure types have on the patient. They measure the result of the entire care process.

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30
Q

Effective performance improvement

A

requires effective leadership

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31
Q

Performance Assessment techniques

A

Benchmarking, Comparisons, Patient falls by percentage, ratio per 1000 days, per month

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32
Q

Performance improvement methods

A

Plan Do Check Act (PDCA), Rapid Cycle Improvement (RCI), Six Sigma & Lean

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33
Q

Performance measurement challenges

A

Measurement error due to unreliable instrument, test, or performance task.
Errors that occur during the collection and reporting process
Lack of standard data collection procedures
Basic differences in definitions
Incomplete therefore not reliable sources of measurement data

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34
Q

Organizational Behavior

A

the study of individual and group dynamics within an organizational setting
Applied behavioral science that emerges from the disciplines of psychology, sociology, anthropology, political science, and economics
OB attempts to explain and predict the way people behave within organizational settings

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35
Q

Transformational Leadership

A

directed toward the influence and management of institutional change and innovation through revitalization and vision

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36
Q

One-way Transformational Leaders

A

influence their subordinates by being charismatic

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37
Q

Charismatic Leaders

A

characterized by their ability to initiate with vision

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38
Q

Transactional Leadership

A

leadership is directed toward task accomplishment and the maintenance of good relations between the leader and subordinates through consideration of performance and reward. Guides followers in the direction of established by clarifying roles and task requirements

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39
Q

Diversity

A

the full range of similarities and differences in group affiliation

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40
Q

Four Layers of Diversity

A

Personality: individual likes and dislikes, values and beliefs
Internal Dimensions: aspects of diversity over which we have no control, the first things we see in other people
External: aspects of our lives which we have some control over, which might change over time, and which usually form the basis for decisions on careers and work styles
Organizational: aspects of culture found in a work setting, issues of preferential treatment and development are impacted here

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41
Q

Cultural Competency

A

A set congruent behaviors, practices, attitudes and policies that come together in a system, agency that enables effective work in cross-cultural situations. Competence implies having the capacity to function effectively as an individual and an organization with in the context of the cultural beliefs, behaviors and needs presented by consumers and communities

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42
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A

The general needs in Maslow’s hierarchy include physiological needs (food and clothing), safety needs (job security), social needs (friendship), self-esteem, and self-actualization
Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs relates to organizational theory and behavior due to it’s exploration of worker motivation, enabling better managerial practices and higher job satisfaction.

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43
Q

Communication

A

a sender uses words and symbols to put forth information into a message for the receiver, the individual receiving the message
messages are decoded and interpreted by the receiver
Effective communication depends on messages that are clear and complete
Effective communication requires that the sender translate the message into a form that is understandable

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44
Q

Cognitive Dissonance

A

any inconsistency that a person perceives between two or more of one’s attitudes or between two or more of one’s attitudes or between two or more of one’s attitudes or one’s behavior and attitudes

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45
Q

Null Hypothesis

A

refers to a general statement that there is no relationship between two measured phenomena, it is presumed to be true until statistical evidence nullifies it for an alternative

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46
Q

Research Hypothesis

A

statement created by researchers when they speculate upon the outcome of a research or experiment, proposes a relationship between two variables

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47
Q

Non directional Hypothesis

A

reflects a difference between groups, but the direction of the difference is not specified

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48
Q

Directional Hypothesis

A

reflects a difference between groups, and the direction is specified

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49
Q

Type I Error

A

the probability of rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true, Whenever p-value is less than alpha, always reject the null/accept the research

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50
Q

Type II Error

A

Failing to reject a null when it is false, whenever the p-value is higher, you reject the research hypothesis and accept the null

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51
Q

Ordinal

A

level of measurement, student classification, military rank, Consistent with direction, not the magnitude or strength

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52
Q

Ratio

A

data differences that are meaningful and relate to some true zero point and are on a continuous scale. Height and Weight

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53
Q

Interval

A

the difference between values have meaning, the data are measured at the interval scale. Temperature

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54
Q

Nominal

A

classified into a number of discrete categories, gender and political party

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55
Q

Categorical

A

variables yield categorical responses/qualitative

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56
Q

Discrete

A

arises from a counting process

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57
Q

Variance

A

measurement of the spread between numbers in a data set. Measures how far each number in the set is from the mean

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58
Q

Standard Deviation

A

a measure of the dispersion of a set of data from its mean. The more spread out the higher deviation

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59
Q

Range

A

the difference between the low and high prices for a security or index over a specific time period

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60
Q

Normal distribution

A

68% of values 1 STD, 95.5% of values 2 STD, and 99.7 values 3 STD

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61
Q

Skewness

A

Right (+) Left (-)

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62
Q

Kurtosis

A

is either platy (flat) or lepto(peaked)

63
Q

T-test

A

used when determining if two averages or means are the same or different

64
Q

ANOVA

A

preferred if comparing three or more means

65
Q

Collectively Exhaustive

A

data includes all possible observations without missing any values

66
Q

Mutually Exclusive

A

observation is assigned one and only one category

67
Q

Research

A

organized study; methodical investigation into a subject in order to discover facts; to establish or revise a theory

68
Q

Theory

A

speculation; abstract thought or contemplation

69
Q

Scientific Method

A

the system of advancing knowledge by formulating a question, collecting data about it through observation an experiment, and testing a hypothetical answer

70
Q

Hypothesis

A

educated guess or hypothetical answer

71
Q

Applied Research

A

type of scientific investigation that is undertaken to solve a specific problem

72
Q

Pure Research

A

investigation that seeks to gain knowledge for the sake of knowledge itself

73
Q

Non experimental research

A

descriptive, historical, correlational and qualitative; describes relationships between variable but not their cause and effect

74
Q

Experimental research

A

true and Quasi experimental; tries to discover causal relationships

75
Q

Descriptive research

A

describes characteristics of existing phenomena and provides a broad picture. Serves as basis for other types of research. Ex: Averages and Ordinals

76
Q

Historical Research

A

describes past events in the context of the other past or currents events. Primary and Secondary data sources.

77
Q

Correlational Research

A

asks what several events have in common; ask whether knowing one event can allow prediction of another event. This does not imply causation

78
Q

Qualitative Research

A

examines behavior in natural social, cultural, and political contexts. Focus on process not products or outcomes. Focus on participants experiences

79
Q

True Experimental Research

A

participants are assigned to groups. Treatment variable controlled by researcher. Control of potential causes of behavior

80
Q

Quasi Experimental Research

A

pre-assigned groups, useful when researcher cannot manipulate variables. Occurs post hoc

81
Q

Independent Variable

A

variable that is varied or manipulated by the researcher, the presumed cause

82
Q

Dependent Variable

A

the response that is measured, the presumed effect

83
Q

Primary Source

A

first hand testimony concerning topic under investigation

84
Q

Secondary Source

A

usually published books or articles in which the author presents a personal interpretation of a topice

85
Q

Steps in Scientific Inquiry

A
  1. Ask a question
  2. ID important factors
  3. Formulate hypothesis
  4. Collect info
  5. Test hypo
  6. Work hypo
  7. Reconsider theory
  8. Ask new questions
86
Q

Format of Journal Research Article

A
  1. Abstract (1 or 2 para)
  2. Background
  3. Methods
  4. Results
  5. Discussion
  6. References
87
Q

Quality research paper

A
  1. based on the work of others
    2 replicable
  2. generalized
    4.
88
Q

Simple sampling

A

each member of the population has an equal independent chance of being chosen. Very representative of population

89
Q

Systematic sampling

A

develop a system that randomly selects participants

90
Q

Stratified sampling

A

the characteristics of interest are identified. Individuals in the population are listed separately according to their classification. The proportional representation of each class is determined. A random sample is selected that reflects the proportions in the population

91
Q

Cluster sampling

A

Units of individuals are identified. A random sample of units is then selected. Units must be homogeneous to avoid bias

92
Q

Convenience sampling

A

captive or easily sampled population, Not random, Weak representativeness

93
Q

Quota sampling

A

Proportional stratified sampling is desired but not possible. Participants with the characteristic of interest are non-randomly selected until a set quota is met

94
Q

Significance of sample size

A

as sample size increases, sample error decreases. Larger samples are usually more representative

95
Q

Reliability

A

represents consistency

96
Q

Validity

A

represents authenticity, a valid test must be reliable

97
Q

Descriptive statistics

A

describes a sample’s characteristics

98
Q

Inferential statistics

A

used to gather data about a population based on a sample’s characteristics

99
Q

Central Limit Theorem

A

In statistics, any of several fundamental theorems in probability. Originally known as the law of errors, in its classic form it states that the sum of a set of independent random variables will approach a normal distribution regardless of the distribution of the individual variables themselves, given certain general conditions. Further, the mean (see mean, median, and mode) of the normal distribution will coincide with the (arithmetic) mean of the (statistical) means of each random variable.

100
Q

Focus Group

A

The discussion group is made up of people representative of a particular class, such as voters or consumers. As a rule, the participants do not know each other. While engaged in lively discussion, members reveal feelings, through verbal and non-verbal communication, that a simple questionnaire may be unable to capture.

101
Q

Case Study

A

one subject study of situation: an analysis of a particular case or situation used as a basis for drawing conclusions in similar situations.

102
Q

Internal Validity

A

has to do with accuracy of the results

103
Q

External Validity

A

has to do with the generalizability of all threats to external validity interact with the independent variable

104
Q

Epidemiology

A

Study of the distribution and determinants of disease frequency in human populations.

105
Q

Data

A

Any collection of information gathered systematically to document and report on the outcome, progress, or certain aspects of a process.

106
Q

Recall bias

A

Faulty memory of subjects who tend to remember certain types of information because of their exposure of disease under study. Withholding information and giving an inaccurate response. (Women admitting to having an abortion)

107
Q

Fetal Death Rate

A

Total # of intermediate and/or late fetal deaths for a period x 100/total # of live births +intermediate +late fetal deaths for period.

108
Q

ALOS

A

Total LOS (discharge days)/ total # of discharge

109
Q

Administrative systems

A

contain primarily administrative or financial data. Used to support the management functions and general operations of the healthcare organization.

110
Q

Clinical information systems

A

contain clinical or health related information relevant to the provider in diagnosing, treating and monitoring the patients care

111
Q

Information

A

processed data

112
Q

Problems with poor quality data

A

Diminished quality of Patient care data can lead to problems with patient care, communication among providers and patients, documentation, reimbursement, outcomes assessment, and research. MRI states, patient safety, public safety, continuity of patient care, health care economics, clinical research and outcomes

113
Q

Good quality data

A

Accessibility, consistency, currency, granularity, precision, accuracy, comprehensiveness, definition, relevancy, timeliness.

114
Q

Licensure

A

States oversee facility licensure. Facilities must have a license to operate. Emphasis is on standards for physical plant, safety, etc. Minimum standards for patient records. Non voluntary

115
Q

Certification

A

Gives authority to participate in Medicare and Medicaid. Standards were established in 1970’s. Given by a voluntary non-governmental association

116
Q

Accreditation

A

a voluntary external review. Well known agencies. Deemed status for CMS programs and some state licensure. Required for reimbursement for some payers. Validates quality of care. May influence liability insurance. May enhance managed care contracts. Gives competitive edge over non accredited facilities. CARF, AAAHC

117
Q

Joint Commission

A

Founded as a nonprofit in 1951. 85% of all general hospitals; 95% of those over 200 beds. Includes other health care facilities. They survey every three years to compare practice to standards.

118
Q

Legal Health Record

A

in terms of AHIMA a legal health record is the documentation of the healthcare services provided to an individual in any aspect of healthcare delivery by a healthcare provider organization.

119
Q

Authentication

A
  • as defined by the Joint Commission, authentication is the validation of correctness for both the information itself and for the person who is the author or the user of the information.
120
Q

EMR

A

is an electronic record of health related information on an individual that can be created, gathered, managed, and consulted by authorized clinicians and staff in one health care organization.

121
Q

EHR

A

is an electronic record of health related information on an individual that conforms to nationally recognized interoperability standards and that can be created, managed, and consulted by authorized clinician and staff across more than one health care organization

122
Q

The Automated Medical Record

A

paper-based record with some computer-generated documents

123
Q

Computer Medical Record

A

makes documents of level 1 electronically available

124
Q

The Electronic Patient Record (EPR

A

is a patient-centered record with information from multiple institutions.

125
Q

The Electronic Health Record (EHR)

A

adds general health-related information to the EPR that is not necessarily related to a disease

126
Q

The Electronic Medical Record (EMR)

A

restructures and optimizes the documents of the previous levels ensuring inter-operability of all documentation systems.

127
Q

CPOE (Computerized Provider Order entry):

A

Driven by need to improve patient safety. Automates the ordering process. Accepts orders electronically, provides decision support, may aid in diagnosis and treatment. Use, Status, and Barriers: Estimates vary from 5-15% higher estimates usually indicate that physicians are not direct ordering. Teaching hospitals are more likely to use. Many organizations are in planning or early implementation stages. Barriers include complexity of the ordering process. Physician entries. Takes longer to place an order, many systems are cumbersome, take too many steps and incentives may not be aligned with use. Lack of confidence in system reliability. Insufficient training. Mandating use.

128
Q

Medication Administration Systems:

A

Use of barcoding becoming more widespread. Aids in correctly identifying the patient, drug dose, etc. HIMSS implementation guide-good use. More widely accepted. Has been used successfully by many healthcare organizations.

129
Q

Telemedicine:

A

Use of telecommunications for the direct provision of care to patients at a distance. Funding is an issue and cost effectiveness not fully known. Store and forward.

130
Q

Telehealth

A

Telehealth: Using telecommunications to communicate with patients and deliver services. Examples are email communication, refilling prescriptions, registering patient, scheduling appointments. Patient uses online researches to acquire info about their health (self-diagnoses). Cons: complexity of infrastructure, degree of integration, message structure, cost, security, reimbursement.

131
Q

RFI

A

Think of the RFI (request for information) as the information step of probing. You’re looking for information that includes everything, such as rates, experience, and relevant reasons for the candidates’ application, and you can use this to get a sense of how well versed they are in the stages of good communication with potential clients. Any vendor who cannot adequately meet the expectations, or omits the necessary information, has indicated that they do not belong on the short list

132
Q

RFP

A

For financial arrangement considerations, you’d rather submit an RFP (request for proposal). This gives the particular contractor, or vendor, the clear understanding that you are looking to negotiate a contract with someone based on price and quality of delivery. In order to get an accurate response to the RFP, you have to be able to present the vendor with all of the project details.

133
Q

System Software

A

computer operating system: the operating system and utility programs used to operate and maintain a computer system and provide resources for application programs such as word processors and spreadsheets. InterFace engines

134
Q

Relational Database:

A

A relational database consists of a collection of tables that store particular sets of data. The invention of this database system has standardized the way that data is stored and processed. The concept of a relational database derives from the principles of relational algebra.

135
Q

Data Warehousing:

A

Data warehousing combines data from multiple, usually varied, sources into one comprehensive and easily manipulated database. Different methods can then be used by a company or organization to access this data for a wide range of purposes. Common methods for accessing systems of data warehousing include queries, reporting, and analysis. In general, a data warehouse tends to be a strategic but somewhat unfinished concept; a data mart tends to be tactical and aimed at meeting an immediate need.

136
Q

Data Mart

A

A data mart is a repository of data gathered from operational data and other sources that is designed to serve a particular community of knowledge workers. In scope, the data may derive from an enterprise-wide database or data warehouse or be more specialized. The emphasis of a data mart is on meeting the specific demands of a particular group of knowledge users in terms of analysis, content, presentation, and ease-of-use. Users of a data mart can expect to have data presented in terms that are familiar.

137
Q

Data Mining

A

: Generally, data mining (sometimes called data or knowledge discovery) is the process of analyzing data from different perspectives and summarizing it into useful information - information that can be used to increase revenue, cuts costs, or both. Data mining software is one of a number of analytical tools for analyzing data. It allows users to analyze data from many different dimensions or angles, categorize it, and summarize the relationships identified. Technically, data mining is the process of finding correlations or patterns among dozens of fields in large relational databases

138
Q

WAN

A

A wide area network (WAN) is a geographically dispersed telecommunications network. The term distinguishes a broader telecommunication structure from a local area network (LAN). A wide area network may be privately owned or rented, but the term usually connotes the inclusion of public (shared user) networks

139
Q

LAN

A

A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line or wireless link. Typically, connected devices share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area (for example, within an office building). Usually, the server has applications and data storage that are shared in common by multiple computer users. A local area network may serve as few as two or three users (for example, in a home network) or as many as thousands of users (for example, in an FDDI network).

140
Q

Ethernet

A

: Ethernet is the most widely-installed local area network ( LAN) technology. Specified in a standard, IEEE 802.3, Ethernet was originally developed by Xerox from an earlier specification called Alohanet (for the Palo Alto Research Center Aloha network) and then developed further by Xerox, DEC, and Intel. An Ethernet LAN typically uses coaxial cable or special grades of twisted pair wires. Ethernet is also used in wireless LANs. The most commonly installed Ethernet systems are called 10BASE-T and provide transmission speeds up to 10 Mbps. Devices are connected to the cable and compete for access using a Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD ) protocol. a computer network architecture consisting of various specified local-area network protocols, devices, and connection methods

141
Q

HUB

A

: A hub is a central connecting device in a network. Data arrives at the hub from one or more devices and is forwarded out using just one cable. For example, four cables from three computers and a printer are connected to a hub and then a single cable connects the hub to a server. A hub can also include a router. Most hubs were originally passive. The data simply passed through the hub without any change.

142
Q

Bridge

A

A combination of hardware and software to link two similar networks. It often connects LANs that use the same protocol, such as Ethernet. A bridge examines each data packet on a LAN and forwards any data packets addressed to a connected LAN. Bridges are faster than routers because they connect networks that are using the same protocol.

143
Q

Router

A

A device that determines where to send a data packet between at least two networks. Its decision is based on its current understanding of the networks. A router maintains a table of the available routes and their conditions. It uses this table together with distance and cost algorithms to determine the best route for a given data packet. Data packets often travel through a number of networks and routers before arriving at their destination.

144
Q

Gateway

A

A combination of hardware and software to link two different types of networks. This usually involves converting different protocols. For example, a gateway could be used to convert a TCP/IP packet to a NetWare IPX packet.

145
Q

Switch

A

: device that directs data packets along a path. It may include the function of a router. In general, a switch is a simpler and faster mechanism than a router as it does not maintain knowledge of the networks. A switch is not always required in a network. Many LANs are organized so that the nodes inspect each data packet.

146
Q

Internet

A

The Internet is a global system of interconnected computer networks. It is not controlled by a central entity and therefore relies on network devices and accepted conventions and protocols to relay the data traffic until it gets to its destinations.

147
Q

Intranet

A

The difference between an intranet and the Internet is defined in terms of accessibility, size and control. Unless content filters are being used or the government is censoring content, all the Internet’s content is accessible to everyone. On the other hand an intranet is owned and controlled by a single organization that decides which members are allowed access to certain parts of the intranet. In general, an intranet is usually very small and is restricted to the premises of a single organization

148
Q

Extranet

A

Both intranets and extranets are owned, operated and controlled by one organization. However, the difference between intranets and extranets is defined in terms of who has access to the private network and the geographical reach of that network. Intranets allow only members of the organization to access the network, while an extranet allows persons from outside the organization (i.e. business partners and customers) to access the network. Usually, network access is managed through the administration of usernames and passwords, which are also used to determine which parts of the extranet a particular user can access.

149
Q

DICOM:

A

Standard use to coordinate the transfer of digital imaging for radiology pictures

150
Q

NHIN

A

The National Health Information Network (NHIN) is an ambitious modernization plan proposed by the U.S. government. The idea is to move as an entire nation from paper medical files to electronic medical files that are shared. Specifically, the government goal is to digitize patients’ health records and medical files and create a national network to place the information in. The network, called the NHIN, would be a sophisticated network that hospitals, insurers, doctors, and others could potentially access. Such a network brings patient privacy, security, and confidentiality issues into sharp relief. Started in Spring 2009.

151
Q

CIO

A

: Chief Information Officer (CIO) is a job title commonly given to the person in an enterprise responsible for the information technology and computer systems that support enterprise goals. As information technology and systems have become more important, the CIO has come to be viewed in many organizations as a key contributor in formulating strategic goals. In many companies, the CIO reports directly to the Chief Executive Officer (CEO). In some companies, the CIO sits on the executive board. Typically, the CIO in a large enterprise delegates technical decisions to employees more familiar with details. Usually, a CIO proposes the information technology an enterprise will need to achieve its goals and then works within a budget to implement the plan.

152
Q

Outsourcing

A

Outsourcing is contracting with another company or person to do a particular function. Almost every organization outsources in some way. Typically, the function being outsourced is considered non-core to the business. An insurance company, for example, might outsource its janitorial and landscaping operations to firms that specialize in those types of work since they are not related to insurance or strategic to the business. The outside firms that are providing the outsourcing services are third-party providers, or as they are more commonly called, service providers.

153
Q

Project Steering Committee

A

The project steering committee is an organizational entity formed to provide executive oversight, advocacy, support and decision making for one or more designated projects. While you’re here, pick up a few things for your manager’s bag of tricks. Project steering committees are formed as collaborative, decision making units, charged with guiding a single project (or group of projects) to successful conclusion. As the name itself indicates, these committees are formed to “steer”, not “manage”.

154
Q

IT value and failure of Strategic IT initiatives

A

The value of IT has both tangible and intangible components. One of the major tangible aspects of good IT programs is increased revenue.