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study guide Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is the unit of absorbed dose?
    a. Rad
    b. Rem
    c. RBE
    d. Roentgen
A

A

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following personnel monitoring devices is capable of providing an immediate reading?
    a. Film badge
    b. Ring badge
    c. Pocket dosimeter
    d. TLD
A

c. Pocket dosimeter

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3
Q
  1. Of the following types of radiation, which one is considered the most ionizing?
    a. Alpha
    b. Beta
    c. Gamma
    d. X-ray
A

a. Alpha

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4
Q
  1. The Geiger counter is capable of detecting which of the following type(s) of radiation?
  2. X-rays
  3. Gamma rays
  4. Beta particles
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 1 &2 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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5
Q
  1. The time it takes for a radioactive material to have ½ of its atoms disintegrate is known as what?
    a. Lethal dose
    b. Half life
    c. Degree of disintegration
    d. Specific ionization
A

b. Half life

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6
Q
  1. While wearing a lead apron, where should the radiation monitor be worn?
    a. On the collar, outside the apron
    b. At the waist, outside the apron
    c. At the waist under the apron
    d. On the wrist
A

a. On the collar, outside the apron

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is a radiation survey instruments?
    a. Gamma camera
    b. Cutie pie
    c. Pocket dosimeter
    d. TLD
A

b. Cutie pie

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following the least expensive type of radiation monitoring device?
    a. TLD
    b. OSL
    c. Film badge
    d. Pocket dosimeter
A

c. Film badge

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is the unit of exposure dose of gamma or x-rays?
    a. Rad
    b. Rem
    c. RBE
    d. Roentgen
A

d. Roentgen

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following radiation monitoring devices is considered to be the most accurate?
    a. Film badge
    b. Ring badge
    c. OSL
    d. TLD
A

c. OSL

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11
Q
  1. If the exposure rate is 10 R/minute at 40 inches, what will be the rate at 20 inches?
    a. 20 R/minute
    b. 40 R/minute
    c. 60 R/minute
    d. 80 R/minute
A

b. 40 R/minute

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12
Q

How many half value layers are required to reduce a 100R/minute exposure rate to 25R/minute?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8

A

b. 2

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13
Q

Which of the following interactions will occur in the diagnostic x-ray range?

  1. Coherent scatter
  2. Compton effect
  3. photoelectric absorption
    a. 1 only
    b. 1 & 2 only
    c. 2 & 3 only
    d. 1, 2, &3
A

d. 1, 2, &3

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the measuring of the quantity of an x-ray beam?
    a. Quality control
    b. Quantity control
    c. Beam assurance
    d. Dosimetry
A

d. Dosimetry

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15
Q

The Becquerel (curie) is a measurement of which of the following?

a. Number of atoms in an element
b. Number of gamma rays emitted
c. Number of disintegrations per second
d. Number of possible radioisotopes

A

c. Number of disintegrations per second

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16
Q
  1. Radiation that leaves the tube housing by any means other than through the window is called:
    a. Primary radiation
    b. Scatter radiation
    c. Leakage radiation
    d. Remnant (exit) radiation
A

c. Leakage radiation

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following are by-products of photoelectric absorption?
  2. Photoelectron
  3. Characteristic x-ray
  4. Ionized atom
    a. 1 & 2 only
    b. 1 & 3 only
    c. 2 & 3 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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18
Q

What is the cumulative dose equivalent limits for 25 year old radiation worker?

a. 50 mSv (5 rem)
b. 100 mSv (10 rem)
c. 250 mSv (25 rem)
d. 350 mSv (35 rem)

A

c. 250 mSv (25 rem)

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19
Q

Which of the following is a major disadvantage of a film badge as a radiation monitoring device?

a. Radiation types cannot be determined
b. Immediate readings are not available
c. Must be changed monthly
d. They are grossly inaccurate

A

b. Immediate readings are not available

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20
Q

Where should a radiation worker’s radiation monitor be located if he is receiving a medical radiography exam?

a. On the collar of the patient gown
b. Lying on x-ray table - at eye level
c. Lying on x-ray table – waist high
d. Not in the radiographic room

A

d. Not in the radiographic room

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21
Q

Which of the following is the unit for biological dose?

a. Rad
b. Rem
c. RBE
d. Roentgen

A

c. RBE

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22
Q

What are the two general types of radiation detection devices?

a. Field survey and personnel monitoring
b. Survey meters and badges
c. Pocket and portable dosimeters
d. Particle and ray detectors

A

a. Field survey and personnel monitoring

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23
Q

Which of the following is the unit of measuring the activity of a radionuclide?

a. Rad
b. Rem
c. Curie
d. Roentgen

A

c. Curie

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24
Q

What do the letters LET stand for?

a. Lethal effective tolerance
b. Lethal exchange table
c. Linear energy transmutation
d. Linear energy transfer

A

d. Linear energy transfer

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25
Q

How does the energy of scatter radiation compare to that of the primary beam?

a. Less energy
b. More energy
c. Equal energy
d. Doubled energy

A

a. Less energy

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26
Q

How many milliroentgens are in one roentgen?

a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 5000

A

c. 1000

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27
Q

Which of the following refers to the fact that different types of radiation have different biological effects?

a. Roentgen
b. Rad
c. Rem
d. RBE

A

d. RBE

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28
Q
  1. How is the roentgen unit determined?
    a. Absorbed dose
    b. Ionization in air
    c. Half-value layer
    d. Compared with rem
A

b. Ionization in air

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29
Q
  1. During fluoroscopy which of the following will produce the greatest amount of scatter radiation?
    a. Tube housing
    b. Table top
    c. Patient
    d. Image intensifier
A

c. Patient

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30
Q
  1. The Coulomb/kg (roentgen) unit only applies to which of the following types of radiation?
    a. Alpha
    b. Beta
    c. X and gamma rays
    d. Background
A

c. X and gamma rays

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31
Q
  1. Why do film badge holders have filters inside?
    a. To block alpha particles
    b. To block beta particles
    c. To prevent backscatter
    d. To determine the radiation energies
A

d. To determine the radiation energies

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32
Q

Which of the following filters would produce an x-ray beam with the highest average photon energy?

a. 1 mm of Al
b. 2 mm of Al
c. 3 mm of Al
d. 4 mm of Al

A

d. 4 mm of Al

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the amount of ionizing radiation energy transferred by any type of radiation to any target material?
    a. RBE
    b. Rad
    c. Rem
    d. Roentgen
A

b

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning the roentgen is true?
  2. It is measured by ions in air
  3. it only measures x and gamma rays
  4. measurement is affected by humidity
    a. 1 only
    b. 1 and 2 only
    c. 1 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2, & 3
A

d

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35
Q
  1. The density of a film badge is compared to which of these to determine the exposure to the worker?
    a. Density standard
    b. National standard
    c. Control film badge
    d. Fellow technologist’s film badge
A

c. Control film badge

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36
Q
  1. The rad, the rem and the roentgen will all be equal when measuring which type of radiation?
    a. Alpha
    b. Beta
    c. X-ray
    d. Neutrino
A

c

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37
Q
  1. A measure of the number of ion pairs produced in air by a quantity of x-rays defines which of these?
    a. Rad
    b. Rem
    c. Joule
    d. Roentgen
A

d

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38
Q
  1. The fact that some materials can store energy, then emit light when heated, is the principle that is used for which of these?
    a. Ion detector
    b. TLD
    c. OSL
    d. Proportional spectrometer
A

b. TLD

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following is the quantity of radiation received by radiation workers?
    a. Rad
    b. Rem
    c. RBE
    d. Roentgen
A

b. Rem

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40
Q

Which of the following measurements is equal to 1 joule per kilogram?

a. Gray
b. Sievert
c. RBE
d. Coulomb/kg

A

a. Gray

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41
Q
  1. What do the letters “rem” stand for?
    a. Radiation effective measure
    b. Rad equivalent man
    c. Roentgen energy measurement
    d. Radiation energy management
A

b. Rad equivalent man

42
Q
  1. Which of these is a measure of the rate at which energy is transferred from radiation to soft tissue?
    a. Rad
    b. Erg
    c. LET
    d. RBE
A

c. LET

43
Q

The optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter uses which of the following to detect radiation?

a. Aluminum oxide
b. Silver bromide
c. Calcium tungstate
d. Cesium iodide

A

a. Aluminum oxide

44
Q

What is the primary purpose of beam filtration?

a. Improve radiographic contrast
b. Protect patient form low energy x-rays
c. Produce uniform densities on image
d. Increase visibility of detail

A

b. Protect patient form low energy x-rays

45
Q

Patient dose during fluoroscopy can be minimized by which of the following?

  1. Decrease tube to tower distance
  2. Restrict beam size
  3. Increase fluoroscopic milliamperage
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 1 & 3 only
A

b. 2 only

46
Q
  1. Which of the following radiographic techniques will provide the least amount of exposure to the patient?
    a. 400 mAs, 60 kVp
    b. 200 mAs, 70 kVp
    c. 100 mAs, 80 kVp
    d. 50 mAs, 92 kVp
A

d. 50 mAs, 92 kVp

47
Q
  1. What is the dose equivalent limit for a non radiation worker?
    a. 2.5 mSv
    b. 5.0 mSv
    c. 12 mSv
    d. 25 mSv
A

a. 2.5 mSv

48
Q

Which of the following will not have an effect on patient dose?

a. Filtration
b. SID
c. Focal spot size
d. kVp

A

c. Focal spot size

49
Q

The function of a beam filter is to remove which of the following from the x-ray beam?

a. Secondary radiation
b. Scatter radiation
c. Low energy radiation
d. High energy radiation

A

c. Low energy radiation

50
Q

Which of the following will not reduce the amount of exposure to the patient?

a. Higher grid ratio
b. Proper collimation
c. Beam filtration
d. Use of intensifying screens

A

a. Higher grid ratio

51
Q

Which of the following are features of fluoroscopic equipment designed to reduce unnecessary radiation to the patient?

  1. Collimation
  2. Protective lead curtain
  3. Dead man switch
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 1 & 2 only
    d. 1 & 3 only
A

d. 1 & 3 only

52
Q

Which of the following radiographic procedures will require gonadal shielding?

a. Chest
b. Knee
c. Unilateral hip
d. Skull series

A

c. Unilateral hip

53
Q

Which of the following will reduce exposure to the patient as well as improve radiographic contrast?

  1. Beam restriction
  2. increase screen speed
  3. Highest recommended developer temp.
    a. 1 & 2 only
    b. 1 & 3 only
    c. 2 & 3 only
    d. 1, 2, & 3 only
A

d. 1, 2, & 3 only

54
Q

According to the 10 day rule, when is the safest time to radiograph a female?

a. 10 days prior to the menstrual cycle
b. 10 days after the menstrual cycle
c. 10 days during the menstrual cycle
d. 10 days after the onset of the menstrual cycle

A

d. 10 days after the onset of the menstrual cycle

55
Q

Which of the following examinations would not allow male gonadal shielding?

a. Intravenous Urogram
b. Pelvis examination
c. Knee arthrogram
d. Voiding cystourethrogram

A

d. Voiding cystourethrogram

56
Q

A 0.5 mm lead gonadal shield will reduce female gonadal exposure by approximately what percentage?

a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 99%

A

d. 99%

57
Q

The dose rate at the table top during fluoroscopy cannot exceed ____R per minute.

a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10

A

d

58
Q

The source to skin distance for stationary fluoroscopy must not be less than which of the following?

a. 5 inches
b. 15 inches
c. 30 inches
d. 40 inches

A

b. 15 inches

59
Q

When using mobile radiograph equipment, the source to skin distance cannot be less than what?

a. 12 inches
b. 24 inches
c. 36 inches
d. 48 inches

A

a

60
Q
  1. Which of the following things a radiographer should do in order to avoid unnecessary patient exposure?
  2. Avoid repeats
  3. use high speed screens
  4. keep equipment in good working order
    a. 1 & 2 only
    b. 1 & 3 only
    c. 2 & 3 only
    d. 1, 2, & 3
A

d

61
Q

What is the name of the filtration that is a permanent part of the x-ray tube head?

a. Added filtration
b. Inherent filtration
c. Compensating filtration
d. Stem filtration

A

b. Inherent filtration

62
Q
  1. Which of the following types of beam restricting devices is considered the best at reducing patient exposure?
    a. Cone
    b. Diaphragm
    c. Collimator
    d. Extension cylinder
A

d. Extension cylinder

63
Q

How will beam filtration affect the primary beam?

a. Make it more homogeneous
b. Make it more heterogeneous
c. Make it less penetrating
d. Reduce its quality

A

a. Make it more homogeneous

64
Q

When using over 70 kVp, the total beam filtration must be how much?

a. 1.5 mm Al
b. 2.5 mm Al
c. 3.5 mm Al
d. 4.5 mm Al

A

b. 2.5 mm Al

65
Q

Which of the following effects will result from precise collimation?

  1. Less biological tissue is exposed
  2. Less scatter radiation is produced
  3. Radiographic quality is improved
    a. 1 & 2 only
    b. 1 & 3 only
    c. 2 & 3 only
    d. 1, 2, & 3
A

d

66
Q
  1. How can a fast film screen combination reduce patient exposure?
    a. Requires less kVp
    b. Allows for smaller focal spot size
    c. Allows for a reduction in mAs
    d. Eliminates the need for a grid
A

c. Allows for a reduction in mAs

67
Q
  1. What is the dose equivalent limit for a pregnant female patient?
    a. 1 mSv
    b. 5 mSv
    c. 15 mSv
    d. 50 mSv
A

D

68
Q

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the amount of radiation exposure to the patient?

a. Focal spot size
b. SID
c. Size of exposed area
d. Type of grid (linear or cross hatch)

A

c. Size of exposed area

69
Q

Which of the following are disadvantages of using a flat piece of lead for gonadal shielding?

  1. Cannot be used for erect views
  2. Difficult to keep in place
  3. Is not very useful for fluoroscopy
    a. 1 & 2 only
    b. 1 & 3 only
    c. 2 & 3 only
    d. 1, 2, & 3
A

D

70
Q

Which of the following types of equipment could have a great effect on reducing population exposure?

a. Fluoroscopic devices
b. Tomographic machines
c. Automatic exposure control(AEC)
d. Computerized tomography equipment

A

c. Automatic exposure control(AEC)

71
Q

If 2 mm Al is added to an x-ray beam that has a HVL of 2 mm Al, how much will the exposure be reduced?

a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 95%

A

b. 50%

72
Q

Which of the following are reasons for using beam restricting devices?

  1. Reduce scatter radiation
  2. Reduce patient exposure
  3. Improve radiographic contrast
    a. 1 & 2
    b. 1 & 3
    c. 2 & 3
    d. 1, 2, &3
A

D

73
Q

The quality of an x-ray beam can be measured by which of the following methods?

  1. Rate meter 2. Sensitometry 3. Half Value layer
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 2 & 3 only
A

C

74
Q

Which of the following could result from excessive radiation exposure to a fetus during the first trimester?

  1. Prenatal death 2. Neonatal death 3. Congenital abnormalities
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 1, 2, & 3
A

D

75
Q

How far must a radiographer stand back during a mobile radiographic exposure?

a. 1 meter
b. 2 meters
c. 3 meters
d. 4 meters

A

B. 2

76
Q

Personnel monitoring devices are used for which of the following reasons?

  1. Because it is a requirement
  2. To assure workers receive less than the dose equivalent limit
  3. to check radiation safety practices
    a. 1 & 2 only
    b. 1 & 3 only
    c. 2 & 3 only
    d. 1, 2, & 3
A

D

77
Q

Which of the following is the best protection from radiation?

a. Distance
b. Lead glass
c. Lead shield
d. Lead apron

A

A

78
Q

What is the dose equivalent limit for the hands of a technologist?

a. 50 mSv
b. 250 mSv
c. 500 mSv
d. 750 mSv

A

C. 500 MSV

79
Q

What is the dose equivalent limit for the whole body of a radiation worker?

a. 50 mSv
b. 250 mSv
c. 500 mSv
d. 750 mSV

A

A, 50 MSV

80
Q

Personnel monitoring is required when there is any likelihood that an individual will receive more than _____ the dose equivalent limits

a. ½
b. 1/6
c. 1/10
d. 1/24

A

c. 1/10

81
Q

Which of the following is a primary factor in protecting radiographers from scatter radiation?

a. Increase kVp
b. Reduce focal spot size
c. Use some type of lead shielding
d. Reduce screen speed

A

c. Use some type of lead shielding

82
Q

Radiation workers are monitored for radiation exposure by which of the following means?

a. Chest x-ray
b. Radiation monitor
c. Complete blood count
d. Gamma camera

A

b. Radiation monitor

83
Q

What must be the lead equivalency be for a lead apron?

a. 0.25 mm Pb
b. 0.50 mm Pb
c. 2.5 mm Pb
d. 5.0 mm Pb

A

b. 0.50 mm Pb

84
Q

Where should a radiation monitor be worn to assure that a technologist is not receiving too much radiation?

a. On the collar
b. At the waist
c. On the finger
d. In a pocket

A

a. On the collar

85
Q

Which of the following individuals should be asked to help hold an uncooperative child?

a. Student
b. Transporter
c. Technologist
d. Patent

A

D

86
Q

Which of the following is a primary factor in protecting radiographers from scatter radiation?

a. Increase kVp
b. Reduce focal spot size
c. Eliminate the use of grids
d. Increase distance from patient

A

d. Increase distance from patient

87
Q

How much is radiation exposure reduced if the distance between the patient and technologist is doubled?

a. 2 times
b. 4 times
c. 6Times
d. 8 times

A

b. 4 times

88
Q

Which of the following definitions describes dose equivalent limits?

a. The maximum dose a body can tolerate
b. A dose that is not expected to produce significant effects
c. The dose a worker will receive/ year
d. The maximum doses a radiation monitor records.

A

b. A dose that is not expected to produce significant effects

89
Q

What is the dose equivalent limit a radiography student may receive in one year if he/she is less than 18 years old?

a. 1 mSv
b. 5 mSv
c. 10 mSv
d. 50 mSv

A

a. 1 mSv

90
Q

To reduce the amount of scatter radiation, which of the following should be done by the radiographer?

  1. Increase kVP and reduce mAs
  2. Utilize precise collimation
  3. Increase the OID
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 1 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2, & 3
A

b. 2 only

91
Q

What is the dose equivalent limit to the fetus of a pregnant radiologic technologist?

a. 0.1 mSv/ month
b. 0.5 mSv/ month
c. 1.0 mSv/ month
d. 5. 0 mSv/month

A

b. 0.5 mSv/ month

92
Q

How thick must the lead be in a primary barrier of a radiographic room?

a. 1/32 inches
b. 1/16 inches
c. 1/8 inches
d. ½ inches

A

b. 1/16 inches

93
Q

The lead equivalency for a pair of protective gloves must be at least how much?

a. 0.25 mm
b. 0.50 mm
c. 0. 75 mm
d. 1.5 mm

A

a. 0.25 mm

94
Q

During fluoroscopy, where is an acceptable position for the radiographer to stand?

a. In the room, next to the patient
b. In the room, next to the radiologist
c. In the room as far from the patient as practical
d. Holding the patient

A

c. In the room as far from the patient as practical

95
Q

Which of the following materials is the most effective as a protective barrier?

a. Lead
b. Lead glass
c. Copper
d. Aluminum

A

a. Lead

96
Q

What are the dose equivalent limits a radiation worker can receive in any one quarter (13 weeks) of a year?

a. 10 mSv
b. 30 mSv
c. 50 mSv
d. 70 mSv

A

b. 30 mSv

97
Q

Primary radiation barriers in walls must be how high?

a. 5 feet
b. 7 feet
c. 9 feet
d. 11 feet

A

b. 7 feet

98
Q

Which of the following describes a primary protective barrier?

  1. A lead apron
  2. A barrier to absorb scatter radiation
  3. A barrier to absorb primary radiation
    a. 1 only
    b. 3 only
    c. 2 & 3 only
    d. 1, 2, & 3
A

b. 3 only

99
Q

The fact that distance is the best protection against radiation is proven by which of these laws?

a. Ohm’s law
b. Inverse square law
c. Coulomb/s law
d. Law of conservation of energy

A

b. Inverse square law

100
Q

Mobile protective barriers should not be used when making exposures above what kilovoltage?

a. 70 kVp
b. 90 kVp
c. 110 kVp
d. 140 kV

A

b. 90 kVp

Radiobiology (1 decks)

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