Study Guide Flashcards
indications
Reasons for giving a drug to a patient.
Contraindications
Reasons for not giving a drug to a patient.
prescription drug
A drug regulated by the FDA that must be labeled with a specific caution statement.
Veterinarian-client relationship
The veterinarian has assumed responsibility for making clinical
judgments about the health of the animals and the need for treatment, and the client has agreed to follow the veterinarian’s instructions. The veterinarian has sufficient knowledge of the animal(s) to issue
a diagnosis, must have recently seen the animal. The veterinarian must be available for follow-up evaluations of the patient.
drug regimen
A plan for administering drugs, including kind of drug, route, dosage, frequency, and duration.
T.i.d
Three times a day.
q.i.d
Four times a day.
b.i.d
Two times a day.
pharmacokinetics
The complex series of events that occurs once a drug is administered to the patient.
Oral route (OR)
Administering drugs in the mouth; may not be effective if the animal is vomiting or has diarrhea.
Intravenous (IV) route
Administration into veins, takes effect almost immediately but does not last long.
Intramuscular (IM) route
Administration into muscle; absorbed more slowly than IV but more quickly than SQ.
Subcutaneous (SQ) route
Administration into the tissue beneath the skin.
Intradermal (ID) route
An injection into the skin, used for testing allergies.
Intraperitoneal (IP) route
An injection into the abdominal cavity.
Intraarterial (IA) route
An injection into an artery.
Intraarticular route
An injection into a joint.
Intracardiac route
An injection into the heart, often used for euthanasia or CPR.
Intramedullary route
An injection into the bone marrow cavity.
Epidural/subdural route
An injection into the spine (epidural) or near the spine (subdural).
Nebulizer
A device that allows drugs to be inhaled in a fine mist.
Metered-dose inhaler
A hand-held device that fits over an animal’s nose and mouth for drug administration.
Anesthetic gases
Gaseous forms of drugs given with vaporizers.
Topical (or transdermal) drug administration
Drugs placed on the skin for slow absorption over time.
Concentration gradient
The movement of drugs from areas of high concentration to lower concentration.
bioavailability
A measure of the amount of drug that gets absorbed and is available to the patient.
water-soluble drugs
Drugs that dissolve in water and tend to stay in the bloodstream.
lipid-soluble drugs
Drugs absorbed by bodily fats and tend to move out of the bloodstream.
drug residues
Drugs that appear in the animal’s milk or meat products.
pharmacodynamics
The study of how drugs produce physiological changes in the body.
efficacy
The degree to which a drug produces its desired effect.
potency
The amount of drug needed to produce the desired effect.
Lethal dose (LD50)?
The dose of the drug that’s lethal to 50% of the animals given that drug.
What is an effective dose (ED50)?
The dose of a drug that produces the desired effect in 50% of the animals.
Therapeutic index
The ratio of LD50 to ED50.
adverse drug reaction
Any undesired response to a drug.
formulary
A book that contains drug dosages and a listing of adverse reactions.
Drugs classifications
Labeled as proprietary (trade name) or generic (unpatented copy).
What 8 things must drug labels contain?
Drug names, concentration, quantity, manufacturer info, controlled substance status, lot number, and expiration date.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
Regulate the development and approval of animal topical pesticides.
Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
Regulate Substances with potential for human abuse; requires careful record-keeping.
USDA (United states drug administration)
Regulates the development and approval of biologics such as vaccines and serums.
Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act (AMDUCA)
Made the extra-label use of approved veterinary drugs legal under certain conditions.
The six rights of drug administration
Right patient, drug, dose, route, time and frequency, and documentation.
Forms of oral medications
Tablets, suspensions, capsules.
emulsions
Milky solutions containing the drug that need to be shaken before use.
elixirs
Liquid medications held in solution by alcohol, often flavored.
What are the four types of syringes?
Slip tip, luer lock, eccentric tip, catheter tip.
IV catheter
A device placed into a vein for repetitive intravenous medications.
Tranquilizers
Drugs used to calm or quiet a patient.
Neuroleptanalgesics
A combination of an opioid and a tranquilizer producing reduced awareness and analgesia.
Behavioral pharmacotherapy
The use of drugs to treat various behavioral problems in animals.
antianxiety medications
Drugs that help relieve anxiety in animals.
Side effects of antianxiety medications
Lethargy, ataxia, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperexcitability, and liver problems in cats.
Antidepressant medications
Drugs used to treat various medical conditions by blocking norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake.
Side effects of antidepressant medications
Sedation, tachycardia, mydriasis, dry mouth, urine retention, and constipation.
Serotonin-reuptake inhibitors
Drugs that increase serotonin levels in the brain.
Side effects of serotonin-reuptake inhibitors
Anorexia, nausea, lethargy, anxiety, and diarrhea.
Monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors
Drugs that block the enzyme monoamine oxidase, increasing dopamine levels.
inotropic drugs
Drugs that affect the force/strength of heart contractions.
chronotropic drugs
Drugs that affect heart rate.
Emetics
Drugs that cause vomiting, used in poisonings and overdoses.
Antiemetics
Drugs that help control or prevent vomiting.
Hematinics
Iron supplements that help correct anemia.
Anticoagulants
Drugs that stop clot formation.
Laxatives
Medications given to stimulate bowel movements.
Anti-acids
Drugs that neutralize stomach acid.
Antitussives
Drugs that suppress or inhibit coughing.
Expectorants
Drugs that reduce the adhesiveness of mucus.
Mucolytics
Drugs that alter the chemical composition of mucus.
Decongestants
Drugs that eliminate or reduce nasal congestion.
Corticosteroids
Drugs that treat respiratory conditions due to allergies.
Acetylcholine
A neurotransmitter that enables learning and memory.
Anticholinergics
Drugs that decrease GI motility and dry secretions.
Adrenergic agents
Drugs that stimulate heartbeats and correct hypotension.
Barbiturates
Drugs that depress the central nervous system.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
A large group of drugs that provide mild pain relief and anti-inflammatory benefits.
Synthetic progestins
Drugs used to treat behavioral problems associated with hormonal changes.
Euthanasia agents
Drugs used to relieve suffering by ending an animal’s life.
What are antidiuretic hormones
Drugs used to treat diabetes insipidus.
Urinary acidifiers
Drugs used to lower the pH of urine to discourage urinary crystals.
Urinary alkalinizers
Drugs used to raise the pH of urine to discourage urinary stones.
Urinary incontinence
The inability of the animal to urinate on demand.
Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
Drugs that help manage interstitial cystitis.
The 3-4 types of stones or crystals found in urine
Urate, calcium oxalate, and cystine stones or crystals.
Urinary incontinence
The inability of the animal to urinate on demand, either unable to urinate at all or urinates uncontrollably.
Common conditions associated with urinary incontinence
Nerve damage and hormonal imbalance.
What role do glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) play in interstitial cystitis?
They help manage interstitial cystitis and prevent microorganisms and crystals from sticking to the bladder wall.
What is Epakitin and its function?
Is extracted from crab and shrimp shells and binds phosphorus in the intestine to help eliminate high blood phosphorus levels in pets with renal failure.
What are catecholamines and their effects?
Catecholamines, such as epinephrine, stimulate the sympathetic nervous system to increase heart contractions, constrict blood vessels, and elevate blood glucose levels.
What are the side effects of catecholamines?
Side effects include tachycardia, dyspnea, and changes in blood pressure.
What do bipyridine derivatives do?
They inhibit enzymes that lead to an increase in cellular calcium.
What is the function of surfactants like docusate?
Surfactants reduce water surface tension, allowing water to penetrate and soften gastrointestinal contents.
What are protectants and examples?
Protectants, such as bismuth subsalicylate and activated charcoal, coat the intestines and relieve inflammation.
What do antifoaming agents do?
Antifoaming agents, such as bloat guard, prevent gas bloating in ruminants by breaking down gas bubbles.
What are anti-inflammatory drugs used for?
They decrease inflammation in the intestinal walls in cases of idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease.
What do GI prokinetics/stimulants do?
They increase the motility of the gastrointestinal system to speed up material transit.
What are bulk-producing agents and examples?
Bulk-producing agents, such as Metamucil, absorb water and swell to increase intestinal bulk, stimulating peristalsis.
What is recommended to rule out parasites in fecal examinations?
A float using a centrifuge to separate fecal matter and direct smearing on a slide for microscopic examination.
What are prostaglandin E-1 analogs used for?
They decrease stomach acid production and protect the stomach lining, preventing or treating gastric ulcers associated with NSAIDs.
What are the components of the endocrine system?
Pituitary, adrenal, thyroid, ovaries or testicles, pancreas, kidneys, and hypothalamus.
What factors influence hormone production by the hypothalamus?
Odors, sounds, sights, stress, and temperature.
What is the role of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)?
GnRH causes the pituitary gland to release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
What does FSH do?
FSH causes a follicle to form and begins to release estrogen.
What is the function of estrogen?
Estrogen causes the body to transition from proestrus to estrus, indicating readiness for breeding.
What does LH do?
LH causes the mature follicle to ovulate and form a corpus luteum.
What is the role of the corpus luteum?
It begins to release progesterone and starts the cycle into diestrus.
What do gonadorelins do?
They cause the animal to produce FSH and LH.
What is the use of chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
hCG functions like LH and is used to treat cystic ovaries in cattle.
What is the function of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)?
FSH stimulates the ovaries to produce more follicles than normal.
What are estrogens used for?
They inhibit ovulation, increase uterine tone, and treat persistent corpus luteums in cattle.
What are androgens and their effects?
Androgens, including testosterone, promote weight gain, red blood cell formation, and tissue growth.
What are progestins used for?
Progestins have effects similar to progesterone, helping maintain pregnancy.
What are prostaglandins used for?
They help abort pregnancies, induce parturition, or treat pyometra.
What hormones do the thyroid glands convert iodine into?
T3 (active) and T4 (inactive).
What processes are the thyroid gland involved with?
Heart rate, body temperature, metabolic rate, metabolism, and skin condition.
What are the signs of hyperthyroidism?
Fast heart rates, weight loss despite eating, and hyperexcitability.
What are the signs of hypothyroidism?
Lethargy, poor skin and hair coat conditions, and bradycardia.
What is hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s disease)?
A disorder where the adrenal gland cannot produce aldosterone and glucocorticoids, leading to weakness, collapse, and diarrhea.
What is hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s disease)?
The oversecretion of aldosterone and glucocorticoids by the adrenal gland, often due to a pituitary tumor.
What is the Schirmer tear test?
It measures the amount of tears produced by the lacrimal glands.
What does fluorescein stain check for?
It checks if the cornea is intact or has an ulcer.
What is the purpose of a collagen shield?
It covers severe corneal scratches to decrease pain and protect the ulcer.
What is Rose Bengal used for?
It detects corneal damage due to viruses or low tear production.
What is intraocular pressure measurement used for?
To detect high pressure in the eye, which can lead to blindness.
What are mydriatics?
Agents used to dilate the pupils for better examination of the eye.
What are miotics used for?
To constrict the pupils and help treat glaucoma.
What do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors do?
They lower the production of aqueous humor to control intraocular pressure.
What is the purpose of a tonometer?
To measure eye pressure.
What are otic drugs used for?
To treat ear problems in animals.
What does a dermatophyte test do?
It detects fungal agents growing on the skin.
What are the functions of the skin?
Protection, temperature regulation, storage, sensory perception, secretion, and vitamin D production.
What are the three layers of the skin?
Epidermis (outermost), dermis (contains blood vessels and nerves), and hypodermis (contains fat and connective tissues).
What is seborrhea?
A skin condition resulting in increased scaling.
What is a keratolytic agent?
An agent that promotes loosening of the epidermis to remove scaling.
What are astringents used for?
To help precipitate proteins and are used on moist dermatitis.
What is an antiseptic?
An agent that inhibits bacterial growth on the skin, used for cleaning wounds.
What is an antipruritic?
Anti-itching medicine, with fatty acid supplements helping to relieve itching.
What does zoonotic mean?
Diseases from animals that can affect humans, such as roundworms and toxoplasmosis.
What are the four stages of wound healing?
- Inflammation and clotting, 2. Infection clearance, 3. Granulation tissue formation, 4. Remodeling.
What is an Elizabethan collar?
A device placed over the neck of an animal to prevent licking of wounds.
What are caustic agents?
Substances that burn away or eat dead flesh.
What are microorganisms?
Organisms that can only be seen with a microscope, including bacteria, fungi, viruses, and protozoa.
What do gram tests classify?
Bacteria based on their staining characteristics.
What does a blue stain indicate in a gram test?
Gram-positive bacteria.
What does a red stain indicate in a gram test?
Gram-negative bacteria.
What is an acid-fast stain used for?
To classify bacteria that do not stain with gram tests.
What are aerobic bacteria?
Bacteria that require oxygen to survive.
What are anaerobic bacteria?
Bacteria that can survive in oxygen-free environments.
What are antibiotics used for?
To inhibit the growth of bacteria or kill them.
How are fungal infections classified?
Into superficial (skin and eyes) and systemic (blood, lungs, CNS).
What is the purpose of culture and sensitivity tests?
To identify the agent involved in infections and determine effective antibiotics.
What is the difference between disinfectants and antiseptics?
Disinfectants are for inanimate objects, while antiseptics are for living tissues.
What are ectoparasites?
Parasites that live on a host.
What are endoparasites?
Parasites that live in a host.
What is parasitiasis?
When an animal is infected but shows no clinical signs.
What is paratiosis?
When an animal is infected and shows clinical signs.
What is an anthelmintic?
A drug used to eliminate intestinal worm parasites.
What are anticestodal medications used for?
To treat tapeworms.
What are antitrematodal drugs used for?
To remove flukes, affecting the liver.
What are antiprotozoal drugs used for?
To treat protozoa such as coccidia and giardia.
What are indirect signs of pain in a dog?
Abnormal body position, increased heart rate, decreased appetite, and restlessness.
What are corticosteroids?
Potent anti-inflammatory agents that relieve symptoms but do not treat diseases.
What do mineralocorticoids regulate?
Electrolyte and water balance in the body.
What are signs of dehydration?
Vomiting, diarrhea, dry mucous membranes, and weak pulse.
What is a macrodrip set?
A set that gives 10, 15, or 20 drops per ml.
What is a microdrip set?
A set that gives 60 drops per ml.
What are fat-soluble vitamins?
Vitamins A, D, E, and K, which are not removed from the body with increased fluids.
What is the function of vitamin A?
Growth and adequate visual pigment in eyes.
What is the function of vitamin D?
Growth and regulation of calcium levels.
What is the function of vitamin E?
Acts as an antioxidant; too little can cause muscle diseases.
What is the function of vitamin K?
Involved in the clotting process and can work as an antidote.
What are immunosuppressive agents used for?
To treat immune-mediated disorders.
What are inactivated (killed) vaccines?
Vaccines that contain killed organisms, usually safe but may require repeated doses.
What are live vaccines?
Vaccines made from living organisms that stimulate a stronger immune response.
What are modified live vaccines?
Vaccines that have been processed to remove virulence from live organisms.
What are recombinant vaccines?
Vaccines made by modifying the DNA of organisms.
What are core vaccines?
Basic vaccinations recommended for all animals to protect against common diseases.
What are noncore vaccines?
Vaccines recommended based on risk factors.
What are modified live vaccines?
Vaccines that take the live organism and process it to remove the organism’s virulence. Many viruses can be vaccinated for in this way.
What are recombinant vaccines?
Vaccines made by modifying the DNA of the organisms in various ways to produce vaccines.
What are core vaccines?
The basic vaccinations recommended for all animals that protect them from common contagious diseases.
What are noncore vaccines?
Vaccines recommended based on risk factors, such as where the animal lives and their way of life.
What is a toxoid?
A vaccine used in producing immunity to a toxin rather than to a bacterium or virus.
What are some signs that an animal is reacting to a vaccine?
Vomiting, Salivation, Dyspnea, Hives (skin blotches, redness, swelling), Lack of coordination, Swelling of the face or muscles.
What is regenerative medicine?
The use of cells and growth factors to improve the repair of damaged or poorly functioning tissues or organs, usually orthopedic disorders.
What are stem cells?
Cells that can differentiate into appropriate tissue or organs, allowing for the continuous renewal of various tissues and organs.
What are nutraceuticals?
Food components that have health benefits, including disease prevention and treatment, but do not undergo testing by the FDA for safety or efficacy.
What is chondroprotective therapy?
The use of agents like glucosamines to slow down the erosion of cartilage in animals, best used before the onset of arthritis.
What is herbal medicine?
The use of plants to treat disease, available in various forms such as dried, powdered, or as a liquid extract.
What are some examples of herbal medicine?
Ginger for anti-inflammatory effects, Aloe vera to treat burns and wounds, Milk thistle to support and heal the liver.
What type of lubricants should be used for gynecologic and rectal exams?
Water-soluble lubricants to help with the cleaning of instruments.
Why is inventory control important in veterinary practice?
It ensures the correct completion of DEA forms and verifies that invoices from vendors match the prices and quantities ordered and received.
What is the significance of having the right supplies on hand in veterinary practice?
It can make a life-or-death difference for animal patients and assure the smooth flow of caregiving.
What does triage mean in a veterinary clinic?
Making an evaluation and choosing the most injured or critically ill patient to be seen first.
What supplies are typically found in a crash cart?
Endotracheal tubes, gloves, tape, gauze, scissors, IV catheters, fluids, urinary catheters, monitors, bandage material, Ambu-bag, stethoscope, syringes, needles, blood tubes, and other laboratory supplies.
What emergency procedures can veterinary technicians perform?
CPR, catheter placement, and administration of drugs.
