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CC Exam 3 > Study Guide > Flashcards

Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common gender affected by Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)?

a) 74% females
b) 74% males
c) Equal distribution between males and females
d) 50% males, 50% females

A

Answer: b) 74% males

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2
Q

Among which age group is TBI incidence highest?

a) 5-10 years
b) 16-25 years
c) 30-40 years
d) 60-70 years

A

Answer: b) 16-25 years

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3
Q

Which ethnic group has a higher incidence of TBI?

a) African Americans
b) Asians
c) Caucasians
d) Hispanics

A

Answer: c) Caucasians

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of TBI?

a) Motor Vehicle Accidents (MVA)
b) Falls
c) Drowning
d) Violence

A

Answer: c) Drowning

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5
Q

Which type of skull fracture is often associated with epidural hematoma?

a) Linear fracture
b) Depressed fracture
c) Basilar fracture
d) None of the above

A

Answer: c) Basilar fracture

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6
Q

What is the typical presentation sequence of epidural hematoma?

a) Immediate loss of consciousness (LOC), then lucid period, then deterioration
b) Immediate deterioration, then lucid period, then loss of consciousness (LOC)
c) Immediate loss of consciousness (LOC) without lucid period
d) Gradual onset of symptoms without loss of consciousness (LOC)

A

Answer: a) Immediate loss of consciousness (LOC), then lucid period, then deterioration

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7
Q

Which artery is commonly associated with epidural hematoma?

a) Carotid artery
b) Vertebral artery
c) Middle meningeal artery
d) Basilar artery

A

Answer: c) Middle meningeal artery

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8
Q

Subdural hematoma is commonly associated with which type of acceleration?

a) Rapid deceleration
b) Slow acceleration
c) No association with acceleration
d) Vertical acceleration

A

Answer: a) Rapid deceleration

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9
Q

Which type of headache is characteristic of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

a) Migraine
b) Tension headache
c) Thunderclap headache
d) Cluster headache

A

Answer: c) Thunderclap headache

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10
Q

Cerebral contusion most commonly involves which brain lobes?

a) Occipital and parietal
b) Parietal and temporal
c) Frontal and temporal
d) Frontal and occipital

A

Answer: c) Frontal and temporal

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11
Q

What is the term for bleeding within the brain tissue?

a) Subdural hematoma
b) Epidural hematoma
c) Intracerebral hematoma
d) Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Answer: c) Intracerebral hematoma

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with penetrating brain injury?

a) Scalp laceration
b) Skull fracture
c) Diffuse axonal injury
d) Intracerebral hemorrhage

A

Answer: c) Diffuse axonal injury

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13
Q

What is a common feature of a penetrating brain injury?

a) Diffuse stretching, tearing, and shearing of axons

b) Projectile penetrates the calvarium

c) Typically associated with high-velocity injuries such as Motor Vehicle Accidents (MVC)

d) Commonly results in diffuse swelling and bleeding visible on CT or MRI

A

Answer: b) Projectile penetrates the calvarium

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14
Q

Which injury is often underestimated as a mechanism of injury but is a common cause of severe disability following Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)?

a) Subdural hematoma
b) Skull fracture
c) Diffuse axonal injury
d) Epidural hematoma

A

Answer: c) Diffuse axonal injury

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15
Q

Which of the following is true regarding diffuse axonal injury (DAI)?

a) It is always visible on CT or MRI scans
b) It primarily affects the elderly population
c) Damage is microscopic and not visible on CT or MRI
d) It is commonly associated with penetrating brain injury

A

Answer: c) Damage is microscopic and not visible on CT or MRI

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16
Q

What is the typical patient population most commonly affected by Intraventricular hemorrhage?

a) Middle-aged adults
b) Elderly individuals
c) Premature or low birth weight infants
d) Adolescents

A

Answer: c) Premature or low birth weight infants

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17
Q

The following are TBI outcome measures.

A) Glasgow outcome Scale- evaluated
B) Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test (GOAT)
C) Ranchos Los Amigos
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

  • Glasgow outcome Scale- evaluated in 4 areas
  • Eye opening response
  • Verbal response
  • Motor response
  • Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test (GOAT)
  • Ask the patient questions
  • Ranchos Los Amigos
  • Levels 1-8 (1= coma, 4= minimal conscious)
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18
Q

What does the Glasgow Outcome Scale primarily evaluate?

a) Muscle strength and coordination

b) Cognitive function and memory

c) Eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response

d) Emotional stability and social functioning

A

Answer: c) Eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response

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19
Q

True or False: The following are TBI signs and symptoms Headache, Disorientation/memory deficits, Impaired concentration/attention, Gross incoordination, dizziness/vertigo, nausea/vomiting, Irritability, Exaggerated emotional responses, Fatigue, LOC/coma, Focal weakness, Seizure, Asymmetric pupils in setting of, unresponsiveness, Delayed recovery from LOC, Posturing

A

True

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with acute TBI signs and symptoms?

a) Disorientation/memory deficits
b) Gross incoordination
c) Clear and focused attention
d) Nausea/vomiting

A

Answer: c) Clear and focused attention

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21
Q

Which of the following is a potential neurological sequelae of TBI characterized by enlarged ventricles, gait apraxia, cognitive dysfunction, incontinence ?

a) Post-traumatic hydrocephalus
b) Post-traumatic CNS infection
c) Post-traumatic seizures
d) Post-traumatic headache

A

Answer: a) Post-traumatic hydrocephalus

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22
Q

Post-traumatic seizures following TBI may occur in different timelines. Which timeline represents seizures that develop months or years post-injury?

a) Immediate seizures
b) Early seizures
c) Late seizures
d) Impact seizures

A

Answer: c) Late seizures

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23
Q

What is a common sign/symptom of post-traumatic hydrocephalus?

a) Impaired vision
b) Vertigo or dizziness
c) Enlarged ventricles
d) Motor impairments

A

Answer: c) Enlarged ventricles

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24
Q

Which type of TBI-related infection is more common in open/penetrating injuries?

a) CNS Infection
b) seizures
c) empyema
d) Vertigo

A

Answer: b) CNS infection

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25
Q

Cranial nerve injury is a common sequelae of TBI. Which cranial nerve is very commonly injured due to shearing of the nerve through the cribriform plate?

a) CN VII
b) CN V
c) CN I
d) CN II

A

Answer: c) CN I

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26
Q

What is a characteristic symptom of CN VII palsy in the lower motor neuron (LMN) type?

a) Entire ipsilateral side of face droops
b) Vertigo and nystagmus
c) Contralateral drooping of the lower half of the face
d) Impaired vision

A

Answer: a) Entire ipsilateral side of face droops

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27
Q

Which medical complication is characterized by the presence of normal bone tissue in abnormal locations?

a) Hypertension
b) Venous thromboembolic disease
c) Heterotopic ossification
d) Urinary dysfunction

A

Answer: c) Heterotopic ossification

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28
Q

Executive dysfunction following TBI can manifest as which of the following?

a) Increased speed of information processing
b) Socially inappropriate behavior
c) Enhanced visuospatial skills
d) Improved language abilities

A

Answer: b) Socially inappropriate behavior

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29
Q

Which type of amnesia is characterized by memory loss for events that occurred after the traumatic brain injury?

a) Retrograde amnesia
b) Anterograde amnesia
c) Posttraumatic memory impairment
d) Executive dysfunction

A

Answer: b) Anterograde amnesia

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30
Q

What is the term for the impairment in the ability to recognize and interpret sensory stimuli?

a) Neglect
b) Agnosia
c) Apraxia
d) Extinction

A

Answer: b) Agnosia

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31
Q
A
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32
Q

Which of the following symptoms is indicative of autonomic dysfunction commonly seen in individuals in a low-responsive state following Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)?

a) Increased sweating
b) Bradycardia
c) Constricted pupils
d) Hypotension

A

Answer: b) Bradycardia

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33
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes concussion?

a) Always associated with loss of consciousness (LOC)
b) Results in permanent brain damage
c) Typically shows abnormalities on scans
d) May or may not be associated with loss of consciousness (LOC)

A

Answer: d) May or may not be associated with loss of consciousness (LOC)

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34
Q

What is the typical duration for most patients to recover from a concussion?

a) 1-3 days
b) 1-3 weeks
c) 1-3 months
d) 1-3 years

A

Answer: c) 1-3 months

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35
Q

Which syndrome is characterized by persistent symptoms and social/vocational difficulties following a concussion?

a) Post-concussive syndrome
b) Chronic traumatic encephalopathy
c) Second-impact syndrome
d) Concussion syndrome

A

Answer: a) Post-concussive syndrome

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36
Q

What is the morbidity rate associated with second-impact syndrome?

a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 100%

A

Answer: d) 100%

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37
Q

Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is associated with:
a) A single concussion
b) Rapid recovery within days
c) Multiple concussions over time
d) Immediate onset of symptoms after trauma

A

Answer: c) Multiple concussions over time

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38
Q

What is the hallmark symptom of an absence seizure?

a) Brief staring
b) Sudden loss of consciousness
c) Rhythmic jerking movements
d) Abrupt stiffening/posturing

A

Answer: a) Brief staring

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39
Q

Which type of seizure is characterized by sudden loss of muscle tone?

a) Myoclonic seizure
b) Atonic seizure
c) Tonic seizure
d) Clonic seizure

A

Answer: b) Atonic seizure

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40
Q

What is the term for a seizure that starts in one area of the brain and then spreads to involve the whole brain?

a) Simple partial seizure
b) Complex partial seizure
c) Secondarily generalized seizure
d) Absence seizure

A

Answer: c) Secondarily generalized seizure

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41
Q

Which type of seizure originates in one area of the brain and may involve preserved awareness?

a) Generalized seizure
b) Absence seizure
c) Simple partial seizure
d) Complex partial seizure

A

Answer: c) Simple partial seizure

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42
Q

What percentage of the population will experience a seizure at least once?

a) 0.1-0.5%
b) 1-2%
c) 5-10%
d) 10-15%

A

Answer: c) 5-10%

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43
Q

What is the definition of a seizure?

a) Normal and synchronized activity in cortical neurons

b) Abnormal and excessively synchronized activity in cortical neurons

c) Brief periods of confusion and disorientation

d) Sudden loss of consciousness without motor symptoms

A

Answer: b) Abnormal and excessively synchronized activity in cortical neurons

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44
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT typically considered in the differential diagnosis of seizures?

a) Stroke
b) Migraine
c) Diabetes
d) Movement disorder

A

Answer: c) Diabetes

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45
Q

What is the primary classification of epilepsies based on the presence or absence of an obvious cause?

a) Primary and secondary
b) Simple and complex
c) Focal and generalized
d) Acute and chronic

A

Answer: a) Primary and secondary

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46
Q

What is the term for seizures that are not caused by epilepsy and may have a psychological origin?

a) Secondary seizures
b) Breathholding seizures
c) Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures
d) Cardiac arrhythmia seizures

A

Answer: c) Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures

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47
Q

Which diagnostic tool is commonly used to record seizures with continuous video monitoring?

a) EEG
b) MRI
c) CT scan
d) PET scan

A

Answer: a) EEG

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48
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a seizure trigger?

a) Stress
b) Sleep deprivation
c) Regular exercise
d) Alcohol consumption

A

Answer: c) Regular exercise

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49
Q

What is a recommended action in providing first aid during a seizure?

a) Restrain the person to prevent movement
b) Give food or liquid to help them recover faster
c) Turn the person on their side and loosen tight clothing
d) Put something in the person’s mouth to prevent them from biting their tongue

A

Answer: c) Turn the person on their side and loosen tight clothing

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50
Q

Which of the following is NOT a recommended action during a seizure?

a) Restraining the person to prevent movements
b) Giving antiepileptic drugs (AED) if available
c) Ensuring the person’s safety by removing nearby hazards
d) Putting anything in the person’s mouth to prevent them from swallowing their tongue

A

Answer: a) Restraining the person to prevent movements

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51
Q

What percentage of seizures are not controlled by medications, making the individual a candidate for alternative treatments?

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 50%

A

Answer: c) 30%

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52
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential psychosocial issue associated with epilepsy?

a) Anxiety
b) Depression
c) Hair loss
d) Suicidality

A

Answer: c) Hair loss

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53
Q

What is a common neurological impairment associated with epilepsy?

a) Hearing loss
b) Vision impairment
c) Memory loss
d) Tremor

A

Answer: d) Tremor

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54
Q

What is the term for sudden unexpected death in epilepsy?

a) Seizure-induced mortality
b) Epileptic shock
c) Sudden cardiac arrest
d) Sudden unexpected death (SUDEP)

A

Answer: d) Sudden unexpected death (SUDEP)

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55
Q

Which drug is mentioned as a treatment option for Multiple Sclerosis?

a) Natalizumab
b) Penicillin
c) Aspirin
d) Insulin

A

Answer: a) Natalizumab

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56
Q

What is the common assessment tool used to evaluate the disability status of individuals with Multiple Sclerosis?

a) MRI scan
b) EEG (Electroencephalogram)
c) EDSS (Expanded Disability Status Scale)
d) PET scan

A

Answer: c) EDSS (Expanded Disability Status Scale)

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57
Q

Which of the following symptoms is NOT commonly associated with Multiple Sclerosis?

a) Paresthesia
b) Lhermitte’s sign
c) Seizures
d) Visual disturbances

A

Answer: c) Seizures

MS Symptoms
* Paresthesia
* Lhermitte’s
* Bladder: urgency, frequency, incomplete emptying
* Visual disturbance: blurred, diplopia (double vision)
* Weakness
* Spasticity
* Fatigue
* Cognitive impairment
* Depression
* Pseudobulbar affect (laughing/crying @ inappropriate times)
*

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58
Q

Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Multiple Sclerosis?

a) Degeneration of neurons due to aging
b) Infection of the central nervous system by bacteria
c) Autoimmune disorder causing demyelination and axonal injury
d) Excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid leading to hydrocephalus

A

Answer: c) Autoimmune disorder causing demyelination and axonal injury

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59
Q

Which gender is more commonly affected by Multiple Sclerosis?

a) Men
b) Women
c) No gender predilection
d) Equally affects both men and women

A

Answer: b) Women

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60
Q

At what age range is Multiple Sclerosis commonly diagnosed?

a) 10-20 years
b) 20-50 years
c) 50-70 years
d) 70-90 years

A

Answer: b) 20-50 years

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61
Q

What is the estimated worldwide prevalence of Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

a) 1 million people
b) 2.5 million people
c) 5 million people
d) 10 million people

A

Answer: b) 2.5 million people

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62
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the NIH Stroke Scale (NIHSS) used for stroke neuro exams?

a) Facial strength
b) Limb ataxia
c) Blood pressure
d) Level of consciousness

A

Answer: c) Blood pressure

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63
Q

What is the 4th leading cause of death in the United States?

a) Cancer
b) Heart disease
c) Stroke
d) Chronic lower respiratory diseases

A

Answer: c) Stroke

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64
Q

What is the approximate number of strokes that occur each year in the United States?

a) 100,000-150,000
b) 400,000-450,000
c) 700,000-750,000
d) 1 million

A

Answer: c) 700,000-750,000

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65
Q

What term is used to describe a transient neurological impairment caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia without acute infarction?

a) Hemorrhagic stroke
b) Ischemic stroke
c) Silent stroke
d) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

A

Answer: d) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

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66
Q

What is the classification of a stroke that involves the occlusion of a blood vessel resulting in neurological impairments?

a) Ischemic stroke
b) Hemorrhagic stroke
c) Transient ischemic attack
d) Silent stroke

A

Answer: a) Ischemic stroke

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67
Q

What is the mortality rate within one year after a stroke?
a) 1-10%
b) 16-36.8%
c) 21-30%
d) 31-40%

A

Answer: b) 16-36.8%

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68
Q

What is the recommended management strategy for secondary stroke prevention?

a) Lifestyle modifications only
b) Medication therapy only
c) Combination of lifestyle modifications and medication therapy
d) Surgical intervention

A

Answer: c) Combination of lifestyle modifications and medication therapy

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69
Q

What is the risk of recurrent stroke within one month after an initial stroke?

a) 1.2-3.3%
b) 6.1-9.0%
c) 9.2-14.1%
d) 16-36.8%

A

Answer: a) 1.2-3.3%

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70
Q

What is the first-line treatment for acute ischemic stroke within 3 hours of symptom onset?

a) Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (IV tPA)
b) Aspirin
c) Heparin
d) Warfarin

A

Answer: a) Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (IV tPA)

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71
Q

What acronym is commonly used to recognize the signs and symptoms of a stroke?

a) RAPID
b) FAST
c) SWIFT
d) SPEED

A

Answer: b) FAST

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72
Q

What is the initial imaging test recommended for acute strokes?

a) MRI with contrast
b) CT of head without contrast
c) PET scan
d) Ultrasound of the carotid arteries

A

Answer: b) CT of head without contrast

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73
Q

Which of the following are strategies to recover from stroke?

A) Forced use therapy
B) Early rehab
C) Robot assisted therapy
D) TMS
E) All of the above

A

All of the above

74
Q

What is one of the recovery strategies commonly used after a stroke that involves forcing the use of the affected limbs?

a) Passive range of motion exercises
b) Forced use therapy
c) Meditation
d) Acupuncture

A

Answer: b) Forced use therapy

75
Q

What type of therapy is associated with improved recovery after stroke and involves using a treadmill?

a) Yoga
b) Pilates
c) Treadmill-assisted therapy
d) Tai Chi

A

Answer: c) Treadmill-assisted therapy

76
Q

What percentage of stroke survivors experience depression post-stroke?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

A

Answer: d) 20%

77
Q

Which factor is NOT associated with affecting recovery after a stroke?

a) Age
b) Pre-stroke physical activity
c) Blood type
d) Recurrent strokes

A

Answer: c) Blood type

78
Q

What percentage of stroke survivors require institutional care at 3 months post-stroke?

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%

A

Answer: c) 30%

79
Q

Which concern is commonly expressed by stroke survivors regarding their ability to perform daily activities?

a) Driving restrictions
b) Financial stability
c) Employment opportunities
d) Memory loss

A

Answer: a) Driving restrictions

80
Q

What is the purpose of chronic anti-platelet agents in stroke prevention?

a) Lowering blood pressure
b) Reducing cholesterol levels
c) Preventing blood clot formation
d) Treating atrial fibrillation

A

Answer: c) Preventing blood clot formation

81
Q

Which medication is commonly prescribed for lipid-lowering to prevent stroke?
a) Aspirin
b) Statins
c) Warfarin
d) Metformin

A

Answer: b) Statins

82
Q

Which medical condition is often linked as an increase risk of stroke?
a) Migraine
b) Osteoarthritis
c) Headache
d) Dyslipidemia

A

Answer: d) Dyslipidemia

83
Q

What is a primary preventive measure for reducing the risk of stroke associated with hypertension?

a) Regular exercise
b) Smoking cessation
c) Antihypertensive medication
d) Vitamin D supplementation

A

Answer: c) Antihypertensive medication

84
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common risk factor for stroke?

a) Hypertension
b) Osteoporosis
c) Diabetes
d) Atrial fibrillation

A

Answer: b) Osteoporosis

85
Q

What complication has the greatest impact on mortality rates in individuals with spinal cord injuries?

a) Septicemia
b) Pneumonia
c) Deep vein thrombosis
d) Neurogenic shock

A

Answer: b) Pneumonia

86
Q

What syndrome results from hemisection of the spinal cord?

a) Central cord syndrome
b) Brown-Sequard syndrome
c) Anterior cord syndrome
d) Mixed cord syndrome

A

Answer: b) Brown-Sequard syndrome

87
Q

In which syndrome is there preservation of light touch and joint position but loss of motor function and pain sensation?

a) Central cord syndrome
b) Brown-Sequard syndrome
c) Anterior cord syndrome
d) Mixed cord syndrome

A

Answer: c) Anterior cord syndrome

88
Q

What is a common reason for rehospitalization in individuals with spinal cord injuries?

a) Musculoskeletal injuries
b) Respiratory complications
c) Cardiovascular diseases
d) Gastrointestinal disorders

A

Answer: b) Respiratory complications

89
Q

What is the average length of stay in acute care for individuals with spinal cord injuries?

a) 5 days
b) 11 days
c) 20 days
d) 35 days

A

Answer: b) 11 days

90
Q

In which type of spinal cord injury is there complete paralysis of the lower extremities but partial preservation of upper extremity function?

a) Incomplete tetraplegia (quadriplegia)
b) Incomplete paraplegia
c) Complete paraplegia
d) Complete tetraplegia (quadriplegia)

A

Answer: b) Incomplete paraplegia

91
Q

Which level of injury is characterized by weakness or paralysis affecting all four limbs?

a) Incomplete tetraplegia (quadriplegia)
b) Incomplete paraplegia
c) Complete paraplegia
d) Complete tetraplegia (quadriplegia)

A

Answer: a) Incomplete tetraplegia (quadriplegia)

92
Q

What racial/ethnic group experiences the highest incidence of spinal cord injuries?

a) Hispanic
b) Asian
c) Non-Hispanic white
d) African American

A

Answer: c) Non-Hispanic white

93
Q

Which of the following is the leading cause of spinal cord injuries?

a) Falls
b) Violence
c) Medical/surgical procedures
d) Motor vehicle crashes

A

Answer: d) Motor vehicle crashes

94
Q

What is the average age of individuals who sustain spinal cord injuries?

a) 25
b) 35
c) 42
d) 50

A

Answer: c) 42

95
Q

Which gender is more commonly affected by spinal cord injuries?

a) Women
b) Men
c) Both genders equally
d) Gender has no impact on the incidence of spinal cord injuries

A

Answer: b) Men

96
Q

What is the approximate number of spinal cord injuries that occur annually?

a) 7,000
b) 12,000
c) 17,000
d) 25,000

A

Answer: c) 17,000

97
Q

Which neurological level is determined as the highest of either the sensory or motor levels?
a) Sensory level
b) Motor level
c) Neurological level
d) ASIA level

A

Answer: c) Neurological level

98
Q

What is the sensory level defined as in spinal cord injury assessment?

a) The lowest dermatome with normal sensation
b) The highest dermatome with normal sensation
c) The lowest innervated muscle with grade 3 strength
d) The highest innervated muscle with grade 5 strength

A

Answer: a) The lowest dermatome with normal sensation

99
Q

What is the scoring range for sensory testing using light touch and pinprick?

a) 0-1
b) 0-2
c) 1-3
d) 1-4

A

Answer: b) 0-2

100
Q

How many dermatomes are examined on each side for sensory testing?

a) 10
b) 20
c) 28
d) 30

A

Answer: c) 28

101
Q

How many key muscles are tested on each side for motor testing using the MMT method?
a) 5 upper extremity and 5 lower extremity muscles
b) 10 upper extremity muscles
c) 10 lower extremity muscles
d) 5 key muscles total

A

Answer: a) 5 upper extremity and 5 lower extremity muscles

102
Q

Which testing method is used to assess muscle strength in spinal cord injury patients?
a) Sensory testing
b) Motor testing
c) Neurological level assessment
d) Reflex testing

A

b) Motor testing

103
Q

What is the ASIA Grade for a patient with complete loss of sensory and motor function at the S4/5 level?
a) Grade A
b) Grade B
c) Grade C
d) Grade E

A

Answer: a) Grade A

104
Q

Which classification system is commonly used to assess spinal cord injuries?
a) NINDS Scale
b) ASIA Exam
c) Glasgow Coma Scale
d) FIM Score

A

Answer: b) ASIA Exam

105
Q

What is the focus of injury in Cauda Equina Syndrome?
a) Lower spinal cord and/or individual nerve roots
b) Upper spinal cord
c) Cervical nerve roots
d) Lumbar vertebrae

A

Answer: a) Lower spinal cord and/or individual nerve roots

106
Q

What percentage of individuals with ASIA-A spinal cord injury are likely to remain complete?

a) 10-20%
b) 30-40%
c) 50-60%
d) 80-90%

A

Answer: d) 80-90%

107
Q

What percentage of individuals with ASIA-B spinal cord injury become ambulatory?

a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 95%

A

Answer: b) 50%

108
Q

Which ASIA classification has the highest likelihood of becoming community ambulatory?
a) ASIA-A
b) ASIA-B
c) ASIA-C
d) ASIA-D

A

Answer: d) ASIA-D

109
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia is a potential complication of spinal cord injury. What is a common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia?

a) Elevated blood pressure
b) Low blood sugar
c) Bladder dysfunction
d) Hypothermia

A

Answer: c) Bladder dysfunction

110
Q

Orthostatic hypotension is a common concern in individuals with spinal cord injury. What is orthostatic hypotension characterized by?

a) High blood pressure when lying down

b) Low blood pressure when standing up

c) Irregular heart rate during exercise

d) Elevated blood pressure during physical activity

A

Answer: b) Low blood pressure when standing up

111
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of spinal cord injury?

a) Neoplastic spinal compression
b) Spinal epidural abscess
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Spinal epidural hematoma

A

Answer: c) Pulmonary embolism

112
Q
A
113
Q

What type of orthopedic deformity is commonly seen in cerebral palsy?

a) Scoliosis
b) Clubfoot
c) Cleft palate
d) Kyphosis

A

Answer: a) Scoliosis

114
Q

Which cognitive deficit is commonly observed in individuals with cerebral palsy?

a) Dysarthria
b) Dysphagia
c) Seizures
d) Cognitive deficits

A

Answer: d) Cognitive deficits

115
Q

What is a common hearing problem associated with cerebral palsy?

a) Tinnitus
b) Rubella
c) Otosclerosis
d) Otitis media

A

Answer: b) Rubella

116
Q

Which motor type of cerebral palsy is characterized by slow, labored speech and limb ataxia?

a) Spastic
b) Athetoid
c) Ataxic
d) Atonic

A

Answer: c) Ataxic

117
Q

What is the major characteristic of spastic type cerebral palsy?

a) Fluctuating muscle tone
b) Limb ataxia
c) Increased muscle tone
d) Hypotonia

A

Answer: c) Increased muscle tone

118
Q
A
119
Q

Which imaging technique is commonly used in the diagnosis of cerebral palsy?

a) X-ray
b) Ultrasound
c) PET scan
d) Electrocardiogram

A

Answer: b) Ultrasound

120
Q

What is the prevalence of cerebral palsy in the population?
a) 1 out of 500
b) 1 out of 1,000
c) 1 out of 5,000
d) 1 out of 10,000

A

Answer: b) 1 out of 1,000

121
Q

Which therapeutic intervention involves cutting nerve groups to reduce spasticity in individuals with cerebral palsy?
a) Botox injections
b) Antispasticity medication
c) Selective dorsal rhizotomy
d) Constraint-induced therapy

A

Answer: c) Selective dorsal rhizotomy

122
Q

What is the primary purpose of constraint-induced therapy in cerebral palsy management?
a) To reduce muscle tone
b) To promote relaxation
c) To increase range of motion
d) To encourage the use of the affected limb

A

Answer: d) To encourage the use of the affected limb

123
Q

Which therapeutic intervention focuses on goal-direction and motor learning approach?
a) Myofascial release
b) NDT and sensory integration
c) Constraint-induced therapy
d) Therapeutic intervention (PT/OT/SLP)

A

Answer: c) Constraint-induced therapy

124
Q

What is the primary goal of myofascial release in cerebral palsy management?

a) To increase muscle tone
b) To reduce muscle stiffness
c) To promote muscle relaxation
d) To improve muscle strength

A

Answer: b) To reduce muscle stiffness

125
Q

Which type of intervention focuses on educational strategies for children with limited participation and developmental delay?

a) Surgical intervention
b) Therapeutic intervention (PT/OT/SLP)
c) Compensatory approach
d) Educational intervention

A

Answer: d) Educational intervention

126
Q

Whichof the following are intervention used for cerebral palsy management?

a) Surgical
b) Selective dorsal rhizotomy
c) Antispasticity medication
d) Botox
e) Therapeutic intervention (PT/OT/SLP)
f) Constraint-induced therapy
g) Goal-direction
h) Motor learning approach
i) NDT and sensory integration
j) Compensatory approach
k) Myofascial release
l) Kinesio-taping
m) All of the above

A

m) All of the above

127
Q

Which medical intervention involves the use of botulinum toxin to reduce muscle spasticity?
a) Selective dorsal rhizotomy
b) Botox injections
c) Antispasticity medication
d) Surgical intervention

A

Answer: b) Botox injections

128
Q

What is the primary purpose of antispasticity medication in cerebral palsy management?

a) To increase muscle tone
b) To promote relaxation
c) To reduce muscle spasticity
d) To improve coordination

A

Answer: c) To reduce muscle spasticity

129
Q

Which surgical intervention involves cutting nerve groups to reduce spasticity in individuals with cerebral palsy?

a) Selective dorsal rhizotomy
b) Botox injections
c) Antispasticity medication
d) Constraint-induced therapy

A

Answer: a) Selective dorsal rhizotomy

130
Q

What is the primary goal of surgical intervention in cerebral palsy management?

a) To improve cognitive function
b) To address sensory processing issues
c) To reduce muscle spasticity or contractures
d) To enhance social skills

A

Answer: c) To reduce muscle spasticity or contractures

131
Q

Besides symptom relief, what is a key aspect of ALS management?
a) Surgical intervention
b) Management of feeding and communication
c) Physical therapy for muscle strengthening
d) Psychological counseling

A

Answer: b) Management of feeding and communication

132
Q

Which initial signs are commonly observed in individuals with ALS?
a) Fever and chills
b) Visual disturbances
c) Difficulty swallowing and slurred speech
d) Joint pain and stiffness

A

Answer: c) Difficulty swallowing and slurred speech

133
Q

In Guillain-Barre Syndrome, which part of the nervous system is primarily affected?
a) Central nervous system
b) Peripheral nervous system
c) Autonomic nervous system
d) Enteric nervous system

A

Answer: b) Peripheral nervous system

134
Q

In ALS, what is the primary site of degeneration?
a) Cerebellum
b) Basal ganglia
c) Spinal cord and cortices
d) Brainstem

A

Answer: c) Spinal cord and cortices

135
Q

What triggers Guillain-Barre Syndrome?
a) Genetic mutations
b) Traumatic injury
c) Bacterial or viral infection
d) Chemical imbalance

A

Answer: c) Bacterial or viral infection

136
Q

Which medication is commonly prescribed for the management of ALS due to its ability to decrease glutamate levels?

a) Riluzole
b) Botox
c) Antispasticity medication
d) Immunosuppressants

A

Answer: a) Riluzole

137
Q

What is the primary characteristic of upper motor neuron involvement in ALS?

a) Flaccid paresis
b) Fasciculations
c) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
d) Muscle cramping

A

Answer: c) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

138
Q

Which test is commonly used to assess muscle enzyme levels in individuals suspected of having neuromuscular disorders?

a) Electrodiagnostic testing
b) Muscle biopsy
c) Nerve conduction studies
d) Muscle enzyme test

A

Answer: d) Muscle enzyme test

139
Q

Which of the following clinical presentations is characteristic of Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

a) Flaccid paresis, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations
b) Spastic paresis, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, and weight loss
c) Difficulty walking, hand weakness, slurred speech, and dysphagia
d) Painless, progressive weakness, muscle cramps, and cognitive changes

A

Answer: d) Painless, progressive weakness, muscle cramps, and cognitive changes

140
Q

What is the primary trigger for myasthenia gravis?

a) Genetic mutations
b) Traumatic injury
c) Autoimmune response blocking ACh receptors
d) Chemical imbalance

A

Answer: c) Autoimmune response blocking ACh receptors

141
Q

What is the approximate prevalence of myasthenia gravis in the population?

a) 5-10 per 100,000
b) 10-14 per 100,000
c) 14-20 per 100,000
d) 20-25 per 100,000

A

Answer: c) 14-20 per 100,000

142
Q

Which symptom is characteristic of ocular myasthenia gravis?

a) Bulbar weakness
b) Proximal weakness
c) Bilateral ptosis
d) Respiratory weakness

A

Answer: c) Bilateral ptosis

143
Q

When does weakness in myasthenia gravis typically worsen?
a) In the morning
b) After meals
c) In cold environments
d) With exercise, heat, and in the evening

A

Answer: d) With exercise, heat, and in the evening

144
Q

Which class of drugs is commonly used for medical management of myasthenia gravis to inhibit the breakdown of acetylcholine?
a) Antihistamines
b) Anticholinesterase drugs
c) Antidepressants
d) Antibiotics

A

Answer: b) Anticholinesterase drugs

145
Q

What is a common treatment option for myasthenia gravis that involves the removal of the thymus gland?
a) Chemotherapy
b) Radiation therapy
c) Thymectomy
d) Immunotherapy

A

Answer: c) Thymectomy

146
Q

What characterizes a myasthenia crisis?
a) Temporary relief of symptoms
b) Severe muscle weakness leading to respiratory arrest
c) Sudden onset of symptoms
d) Muscle spasms and tremors

A

Answer: b) Severe muscle weakness leading to respiratory arrest

147
Q

Which medical procedure may be necessary to assist with feeding in individuals with spinal muscular atrophy?
a) Tracheostomy
b) Respiratory assessment
c) GI tube placement
d) Scoliosis treatment

A

Answer: c) GI tube placement

148
Q

What is the primary medical intervention for individuals with spinal muscular atrophy?

a) Surgical correction of motor neuron loss
b) Administration of gene therapy
c) No specific treatment available
d) Stem cell transplantation

A

Answer: c) No specific treatment available

149
Q

Which respiratory symptom is commonly observed in individuals with spinal muscular atrophy?

a) Hyperventilation
b) Impaired cough
c) Increased lung capacity
d) Normal respiratory function

A

Answer: b) Impaired cough

150
Q

Which type of spinal muscular atrophy is characterized by the inability to sit up?
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 3
d) Type 4

A

Answer: a) Type 1

151
Q

Which type of cells undergo progressive degeneration and loss in spinal muscular atrophy?
a) Motor neurons
b) Sensory neurons
c) Interneurons
d) Glial cells

A

Answer: a) Motor neurons

152
Q

What is the approximate prevalence of spinal muscular atrophy in the population?
a) 1 per 5,000
b) 1 per 10,000
c) 1 per 15,000
d) 1 per 20,000

A

Answer: b) 1 per 10,000

153
Q

What is the primary cause of spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)?

a) Autosomal dominant mutation
b) Deletion of the survival motor neuron gene
c) X-linked recessive disorder
d) Chromosomal abnormality

A

Answer: b) Deletion of the survival motor neuron gene

154
Q

What is a common respiratory complication associated with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
a) Hyperventilation
b) Asthma
c) Respiratory function declines
d) Pneumonia

A

Answer: c) Respiratory function declines

155
Q

Which therapeutic intervention aims to manage the curvature of the spine in individuals with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
a) Gene therapy
b) Physical therapy
c) Respiratory therapy
d) Scoliosis management

A

Answer: d) Scoliosis management

156
Q

What is the primary goal of steroid therapy in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

a) To cure the condition
b) To reduce serum creatine kinase levels
c) To improve muscle strength and function
d) To prevent cardiac dysrhythmias

A

Answer: c) To improve muscle strength and function

157
Q

Which symptom of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy usually appears first?
a) Respiratory difficulties
b) Scoliosis
c) Muscle weakness in legs
d) Cognitive impairments

A

Answer: c) Muscle weakness in legs

158
Q

At what age does Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy typically begin to manifest symptoms?

a) Birth
b) 2-6 years
c) Adolescence
d) Adulthood

A

Answer: b) 2-6 years

159
Q

What is the approximate prevalence of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy in the population?

a) 25 per 100,000
b) 50 per 100,000
c) 63 per 100,000
d) 100 per 100,000

A

Answer: c) 63 per 100,000

160
Q

What is the primary cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)?

a) Autosomal recessive mutation
b) Mutation in the DMD gene producing dystrophin
c) Deletion of the SMN gene
d) Trinucleotide repeat expansion

A

Answer: b) Mutation in the DMD gene producing dystrophin

161
Q

Huntington’s disease is primarily characterized by:

a) Paralysis of voluntary movement
b) Excessive movement and tremors
c) Progressive degeneration of nerve cells in the brain
d) Spasticity and rigidity

A

Answer: c) Progressive degeneration of nerve cells in the brain

162
Q

Which term refers to involuntary, rapid, jerky movements that are characteristic of certain movement disorders like Huntington’s disease?

a) Chorea
b) Athetosis
c) Ballism
d) Tremor

A

Answer: a) Chorea

163
Q

Degeneration of which brain structure is associated with movement disorders characterized by either paucity or excess movement?

a) Cerebellum
b) Hippocampus
c) Basal ganglia
d) Thalamus

A

Answer: c) Basal ganglia

164
Q

Which motor system is associated with abnormal involuntary movements, rigidity, and immobility without paralysis?

a) Pyramidal
b) Extrapyramidal
c) Spasticity
d) Rigidity

A

Answer: b) Extrapyramidal

165
Q

Which motor system is characterized by paralysis of voluntary movement and absence of involuntary movement?

a) Pyramidal
b) Extrapyramidal
c) Spasticity
d) Rigidity

A

Answer: a) Pyramidal

166
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of the disorder described? Huntington’s Disease

a) Autosomal recessive
b) X-linked recessive
c) Autosomal dominant
d) Multifactorial

A

Answer: c) Autosomal dominant

167
Q

What is the approximate prevalence of the disorder in the population? Huntington’s Disease

a) 2-4 per 100,000
b) 4-8 per 100,000
c) 10-15 per 100,000
d) 20-25 per 100,000

A

Answer: b) 4-8 per 100,000

168
Q

Which gene mutation is associated with the production of toxic protein fragments leading to severe degeneration of basal ganglia and frontal cortex? Huntington’s Disease

a) MTHFR
b) MTT
c) APP
d) BRCA1

A

Answer: b) MTT

169
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter affected by the depletion of GABA in the basal ganglia and nigra?

a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Glutamate
d) Acetylcholine

A

Answer: a) Dopamine

170
Q

Which characteristic movement disorder is commonly observed in individuals with the Hunnigtons disorder?
a) Akinesia
b) Dystonia
c) Chorea
d) Tremor

A

Answer: c) Chorea

171
Q

Which medication is commonly used to manage Huntington’s Disease?

a) Benzodiazepines
b) Antipsychotics
c) Asprain
d) Anticonvulsants

A

Answer: b) Antipsychotics

172
Q

Besides medication, what other therapeutic intervention may be beneficial for individuals with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

a) Surgery
b) Psychotherapy
c) Physical therapy
d) Radiation therapy

A

Answer: c) Physical therapy

173
Q

Besides medication, what other treatment modality is commonly used for advanced cases of Parkinson’s disease to alleviate symptoms?
a) Chemotherapy
b) Physical therapy
c) Radiation therapy
d) Deep brain stimulation

A

Answer: d) Deep brain stimulation

174
Q

What is an outcome of medication in managing Parkinson’s disease?

a) To cure the disease
b) To speed up disease progression
c) They are symptomatic
d) To prevent dementia

A

Answer: c) They are symptomatic

175
Q

Which symptom is considered a cardinal feature of Parkinson’s disease?

a) Choreiform movements
b) Athetoid movements
c) Resting tremor
d) Spasticity

A

Answer: c) Resting tremor

176
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter system affected by degeneration in Parkinson’s disease?

a) Serotonergic
b) Glutamatergic
c) GABAergic
d) Dopaminergic

A

Answer: d) Dopaminergic

177
Q

At what age does Parkinson’s disease typically begin to manifest symptoms?

a) Before age 20
b) Between ages 20-30
c) After age 40
d) After age 60

A

Answer: c) After age 40

178
Q

What is the primary cause of Parkinson’s disease in most cases?

a) Autosomal recessive mutations
b) Environmental toxins
c) Idiopathic factors
d) Viral infections

A

Answer: c) Idiopathic factors

179
Q

Which of the following are therapeutic Intervention used for spasticity?

A) Therapeutic Intervention
B) Goal-directed therapies
C) Constraint induced therapy
D) Bilateral intensive programs
E) Sensory processing
F) Functional /compensatory approach
G) All of the above

A

G) All of the above

180
Q

What is important when facilitating healing in the first 8-12 weeks for your patient with a lumbar spinal surgery?
A) smoking cessation
B) Not using NSAIDS
C) Precautions to avoid bending, lifting, and twisting for 8-12 weeks
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

181
Q

What is the gold standard treatment for ischemic stroke?

A) TPA aka mega clot buster
B) Mechanical thrombectomy
C) Rehab
D) Both A & B

A

D) Both A & B

  • Gold standard treatment for ischemic stroke is the mega clot buster (TPA = tissue Plasminogen Activator), when combined with mechanical thrombectomy*

CC Exam 3 (3 decks)

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