Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Periop 101 > Study Guide > Flashcards

Study Guide Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Physics 101 flashcards Psychology 101 flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards Biology 101 flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards Sociology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Who can provide anesthesia services?

A
  1. Anesthesiologists
  2. Certified RN Anesthetists (CRNAs)
  3. Anesthesiologist Assistants (AAs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Factors to consider before determining what anesthetic to use for a patient

A
  1. Age
  2. Length and type of surgery
  3. Patient and surgeon preferences
  4. Patients co-existing diseases
  5. Patients mental and psychological status
  6. Patients previous experience with anesthesia
  7. Plans and protocols for post op pain management
  8. Position for surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long before surgery can you have clear liquids?

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long before surgery can you have breast milk?

A

4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long before surgery can you have infant formula

A

6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long before surgery can you have a light meal?

A

6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long before surgery can you have fried foods, fatty foods or meat?

A

8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Phases of General Anesthesia

A
  1. Induction
  2. Maintenance
  3. Emergence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the reversal agent for fentanyl?

A

Naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the reversal agent for Rocuronium, Vecuronium and Pancuronium?

A

Sugammadex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the reversal agent for Midazolam?

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What triggers HM?

A

inhalation anesthetic gases and succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most specific sign of MH?

A

Increased end-tidal carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Other signs of MH?

A

Skeletal muscle rigidity
Ventricular dysrhythmia
Skin mottling
Hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is hypothermia defined?

A

Temp less than 36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Two actions the RN should take when confronted with an MH crisis

A 
Get the HM cart
Call for help
Ventilate with 100% O2
Give Dantrolene 
Cool the pt if >39 stop at <38
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Role of an RN during a local only procedure

A 
Monitor:
BP
EKG
O2
HR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Role of the RN during moderate sedation surgery

A 
Assess for an provide mod sedation and analgesia 
Cardiac monitoring
Able to administer reversal meds
Airway assessment
CPR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

After spinal anesthesia, what complication should the nurse watch out for?

A

Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Complications that can occur during administration of anesthesia

A 
Difficult airway
Laryngospasm
Cardiac Problems
Hemorrhage
Anaphylaxis
Hypothermia
MH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Patients risk factors due to alcoholism

A

Lowered immunity
Prolonged bleeding times
Increased stress response
Cardiac complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Physiological effects of cannabis

A 
Anxiety, euphoria, memory dysfunction
Tachycardia, atherosclerosis
Airway edema, chronic bronchitis
Increased appetite, hyperemesis
Paranoia 
BS elevation
unknown tolerance to analgesics
Potential increase in pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The SDOH

A 
Economic stability
Education
Social and Community Context
Health and Health Care
Neighborhood and Build environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Goals of Enhanced Recovery after surgery

A
  1. Reduce patients stress response
  2. Optimize physical function
  3. Facilitate recovery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the no-fly zone?

A

A zone designated for the safe use of imaging and other equiptment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Potential complications with gas insufflation

A 
Increased BP
Increase in blood CO2 levels
Acidosis
Decreased cardiac output
Arrhythmias
Gas Embolism
Peritoneal Irritation
Decreased renal blood flow/urine output
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a boreoscope

A

An inspection tool that is placed through the instruments lumen and is used to inspect the internal element of the instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A rare but serious complication of insufflation

A

Gas embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When should damp dusting be done in the OR?

A

Before the first surgical case of the day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When does terminal cleaning occur?

A

At the end of the day in each OR that was used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the areas of MDR?

A

Decontamination
Assembly
Sterilization
Storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What area in MDR is cleaned last?

A

Decontamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

3 ways to measure cleanliness of the perioperative environment

A

Visual Inspections
Fluorescent gels/markers with black light
ATP monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What IFU info in most important in the OR?

A

The contact time (time product remains wet on surface)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Documentation in the patients health care record includes:

A

Current and past health status
Nursing diagnoses and interventions
Expected patient outcomes
Evaluation of patients response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

For surgical consent, what is the nurse responsible for?

A

Reinforce what has been discussed
Ensure the consent is correct
Ensure the consent is signed and witnessed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When taking a history, what should be noted?

A 
Allergies
Implants, piercings
Discharge plans
Medications
Nutritional status
Cultural considerations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Patient health record is a:

A

Tool for monitoring and evaluating
Resource to determine compliance
Method to review for reimbursement for services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Who can obtain informed consent?

A

Surgeon or licensed practitioner performing the surgery

Anesthesiologist or Anesthesia provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Info from the pre-op nurse should include:

A 
Patient identifies
Planned procedure
Operative site
NPO status
Allergies
Diagnostic test results
Current meds
Blood products available
Mobility issues
Family contact
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Info from the OR nurse to post-op nurse

A 
Current condition for ABCs
Type of anesthesia
Procedure
Surgical issues
Skin condition
Pressure injury risk
Hypothermia status
EBL
Input/output
Drains/Dressings/Packing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Informed consent should include:

A 
Name of facility
Name of intervention
Indications for intervention
Name of the HCP performing 
Risks/Benefits
Discussion of Risks/Benefits
Signature
Date and time it was signed
Date and time of the witness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 3 methods of hemostasis?

A

Mechanical
Thermal
Chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Examples of Mechanical Hemostasis

A 
Pressure
Clamps
Sutures
Staples
Clips
Ligatures (tie)
Pledgets (non-absorbable suture)
Bone wax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Examples of Chemical Hemostasis

A 
Epi
Vitamin K
Protamine
Vasopressors
Lysine
Active agents (thrombosis) 
Passive agents (collagen, flowable agents, sealants)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Examples of Thermal Hemostasis

A 
Electric current
Bipolar 
Laser
Ultrasonic energy
Argon gas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Goals of hemostasis

A 
Decrease and control bleeding
Minimize the need for blood replacement
Optimize the surgical field view
Avoid organ damage
Shorten length of stay
Decrease risk of infection
Decrease costs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Issues associated with surgical bleeidng

A 
Visualization
Surgical time
Blood transfusion
Hypothermia
SSI
Thrombocytopenia
Hemodilution
Lactic acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How can you determine how much blood was lost?

A

Suction canisters
Sponges
Drapes
Lab values

50
Q

4 types of surgical drains

A

Simple
Closed suction (JP, hemovac)
Chest
Negative pressure wound therapy

51
Q

6 steps of medication use

A 
Procuring
Prescribing
Transcribing
Dispensing/Preparing
Administering
Monitoring
52
Q

Symptoms of anaphylaxis

A 
Headache
Anxiety
Stridor
Abd pain
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Itchy
Swelling
53
Q

Precautions to avoid med errors

A

Using single dose vials
Prefilled syringes
Limiting the number of medication concentrations
Buying meds in a size close to typical dose
Securing stored meds

54
Q

Side effects of extravasation

A

Edema
Abd distension
Intraabdominal compartment syndrome

55
Q

Side effects of intravasation

A

Hyponatremia
Hypervolemia
Cardiovascular complications
Pulmonary edema

56
Q

How to handle hazardous materials

A 
Contain spills
Dispose of materials in designated container
Store correctly
Use correct amount in the correct way
Wear PPE
57
Q

A culture of safety is promoted by:

A

A health care organizations commitment to patient safety
A commitment to safety at all levels of the organization
A focus on systems, process improvement, and individual accountability
Sufficient resources
Ability of providers to discuss near miss events without reprisal

58
Q

3 steps for preventing wrong site, wrong procedure, wrong patient

A

Conducting a pre-procedure verification process
Marking the site
Performing a time out

59
Q

The 3 types of errors that a team member can make:

A

Skill-based
Knowledge-based
Situational-based

60
Q

What is a skill-based error

A

The provider has the knowledge for the action

There is little or no attention or attention is diverted

61
Q

What is a knowledge-based error?

A

Mistakes include errors in perception, judgement or interpretation

62
Q

What is a situational-based error

A

Lack of attention and situation factors play a role

63
Q

What is the 3 goals of ERAS?

A

Reducing a patients stress
Optimizing physiological function
Facilitating a patients recovery

64
Q

What is an accountable care organization (ACO)

A

a model of care that includes physicians, heath care organization representatives, and other health care providers joining togethers to:

  • give high quality coordinated care
  • avoid duplication of services
  • decrease errors
65
Q

Intraoperative factors to consider for positioning

A

Anesthesia
Length of surgery
Position required

66
Q

What are the 3 basic surgical positions

A

Supine (dorsal recumbent)
Lateral
Prone

67
Q

In the supine position, arms are extended less than 90 degress to avoid compression of the:

A

Brachial Plexus

68
Q

What are the pressure points in a supine position

A 
Occiput
Scapulae
Thoracic
Vertebrae
Olecranon process (elbow)
Sacrum/coccyx
69
Q

If a patient is pregnant, what side would you place a wedge under?

A

Under the right side

70
Q

What happens if you return a patients legs down from lithotomy too fast?

A

A significant drop in blood pressure

71
Q

What nerves can be damaged in the lithotomy position?

A

Femoral
Obturator
Perineal

72
Q

What 3 forces can act upon the patient during positioning?

A

Pressure
Shearing
Friction

73
Q

Name the 3 zones in the perioperative environment

A

Unrestricted
Semi-Restricted
Restricted

74
Q

What medication is used in an HM crisis?

A

Dantrolene

75
Q

How do you mix dantrolene?

A

With 60ml of sterile water

76
Q

What med do you provide to a patient experiencing LAST?

A

20% Lipid emulsion therapy

77
Q

Goals of surgical skin prep

A

To remove soil and transient microorganisms from the skin
To reduce the resident microbial count
To inhibit rapid rebound growth of microorganisms

78
Q

Commonly used antimicrobial agents

A 
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) 4%
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) and alcohol
Povidone - Iodine
Alcohol
79
Q

What to use for a patient with an allergy to oidine?

A

Baby shampoo and a balanced salt solution

80
Q

Examples of EARS protocols

A

Strengthening exercises
Smoking cessation
Improved nutrition
Additional pre-op education

81
Q

Factors that determine the level of the patient care in post-anesthesia

A 
Type of surgery
Length of surgery
Type of anesthetic
Comorbid conditions
Anticipated postanesthetic requirements and interventions
82
Q

What is Capnography

A

Capnography is the monitoring of the concentration or partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the respiratory gases

83
Q

Elements of the nursing process

A 
Assessment
Nursing diagnosis
Outcome identification
Planning
Implementation
Evaluation
84
Q

What is research

A

Systematic inquiry or investigation

85
Q

What is quality improvement

A

A method of creating a change to a current process and then measuring the effectiveness of the change

86
Q

Policies and procedures are created to protect:

A

Patients
Personnel
Organization

87
Q

What is an Indemnity Payment

A

Payment made on behalf of the policy holder

88
Q

What is Liability

A

Legal responsibility

89
Q

What is malpractice

A

A nurses negligence or any intentional act that causes physical, financial, emotional, psychosocial and/or cognitive harm

90
Q

What is standard of care

A

Actions of a reasonable and prudent professional

91
Q

What is tort

A

A breach of duty to another person as outlined by law

92
Q

What are the 4 elements of malpractice

A

Duty
Breach of duty
Breach caused an injury
The injury was harmful to the patient

93
Q

3 tenets of radiation safety

A

Time
Distance
Shielding

94
Q

NIOSH (National Institute for Occupation Safety and Health’s Hierarchy of controls:

A

Eliminate
Substitute
Engineering controls (smoke evac, needles IV)
Administrative controls (policies, education, testing)
PPE

95
Q

Factors that affect event-related sterility

A 
Packaging material quality
Storage conditions
How an instruemnt is transported
How the instrument in handled
Environment conditions
96
Q

Asepsis is:

A

The absence of pathogenic microorganisms

97
Q

Sterility is:

A

The absence of virtually all microorganisms

98
Q

What is used to monitor a sterilizers efficiency and effectiveness ?

A

A biological indicator

99
Q

What does a negative biological indicator mean?

A

Sterilization conditions were met

100
Q

If a sterilization load has an implant, what must the load have?

A

A biological indicator

101
Q

What are the 3 testing methods that can be done during instrument sterilization?

A

Swab/strip
Solution vial
ATP

102
Q

How does the swab/strip testing method work?

A

A swab/strip that tests for specific contaminants (protein, blood, carbs)

A wet swab is wiped on a surface, if it changes color, the instrument is not clean

103
Q

How does the Solution Vial testing method work?

A

Individual vials test for specific contaminants

A water moistened swab is wiped on the surface, swab and placed into the vial, if the vial turns a color, that contaminant is present.

104
Q

How does the ATP testing work?

A

Tests for ATP which is in all organic material

A pre-treated swab is wiped on a surface then placed in a test device. If ATP is present, a bioluminescence is created and can be read by the testing device

105
Q

What are the two types of steam sterilizers?

A

Dynamic Air Removal: Pre-Vacuum

Gravity Displacement

106
Q

How does the Dynamic Air Removal Pre Vacuum sterilizer work?

A

A vacuum pulls out the air which is replaced by steam

107
Q

How does the Gravity Displacement Sterilizer work?

A

Air is removed by gravity in which incoming steam replaces.

The air is pushed down and pushed though a port or drain at the bottom of the sterilization chamber

108
Q

What is the bowie-dick test?

A

A quality assurance test that detects if any air is trapped in the sterilizer

109
Q

How long should you wash your hands for?

A

20 seconds

110
Q

What are instruments typically made out of?

A

Stainless steel
Titanium
can be plated, but prone to chipping, peeling, rupture and corrosion

111
Q

What are 3 categories for stainless steel instruments

A 
Anodized plating
-satin finish
-glare proof
-prone or corrosion
Ebony
-black finish
-prevention glare and reflection
Mirror plating
-shiny
-impedes visibility
112
Q

What are some qualities of titanium instruments

A 
Inert: doesn't react with other substances
Nonmagnetic
Lighter/Stronger
Used in microsurgery
Blue anodized finished reduces glare
113
Q

4 types of instruemnts

A

Cutters
Clamps
Retractors
Other

114
Q

3 classifications of endoscopes

A

Rigid
Semi-Rigid
Flexible

115
Q

What is the chain of infection

A 
Causative organism
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host
116
Q

Define Pathogenicity

A

Proportion of infect people who develop clinically apparent disease

117
Q

Virulence

A

Proportion of clinically apparent cases that are severe or fatal

118
Q

Suture classification system elements

A

Natural or Synthetic
Absorbable or Nonabsorbable
Monofilament or multifilament

119
Q

Suture material characteristics

A

Physical configuration
Handling
Potential tissue retraction

120
Q

Suturing methods

A 
Interrupted
Continuous or Running
Retention
Subcuticular (suture line under the epidermis)
Purse string
121
Q

SSI catergories

A 
Superficial
-epidermis/dermis/subcutaneous (30 days)
Deep Incisional
-fascial/muscle (30-90 days)
Organ/Space
-organ, space (30-90 days)

Periop 101 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions