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AQP > Study Guide > Flashcards

Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What does the AVAIL light mean?

A

AVAIL switch light indicates correct voltage, frequency and phase

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2
Q

What are the sources of AC power in the CRJ 900?

A

2 engine driven generators
APU generator
1 Air driven generator (ADG)
1 AC external power Plug in

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3
Q

What does the generator control unit do?

A

Controls and monitors the generators and provides protection and voltage regulation for each generator

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4
Q

What is the main battery rated to?

A

24 volts / 17 amps

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5
Q

How long can the battery master be left on without another power source?

A

5 minutes

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6
Q

Why does the CRJ have the 5 minute limitation for the battery master?

A

Because ED1 and ED2 utilize AC cooling fans therefore will overheat after 5 minutes

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7
Q

What is an IDG and what does it do?

A

Integrated Drive Generator

Converts variable N2 to a constant 12,000 RPM

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8
Q

What are the generators rated to?

A

40 KVA, 115 VAC, 400 HZ

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9
Q

What is the APU generator rated to?

A

40 KVA, 115 VAC, 400 HZ

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10
Q

When would the ADG automatically deploy?

A

Complete loss of AC power.

AC bus 1 and AC bus 2

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11
Q

What is the ADG rated to?

A

15 KVA, 115 VAC, 400HZ

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12
Q

What does the ADG power?

A

FLash

Flaps and Slats (1/2 speed)
AC essential bus
Stab trim Channel 2
Hydraulic pump 3B

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13
Q

What would cause the FAULT light on the IDG to illuminate?

A

HOTLOP

High oil temp and/or low oil pressure

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14
Q

What will cause the AC ESS XFER switch light to illuminate?

A

Anytime the AC essential bus is not being powered by AC BUS 1

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15
Q

What is the priority for the Auto XFER?

A

On side generator
APU
Offside generator
External power

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16
Q

What would cause the FAIL light to illuminate on the AUTO XFER switch light?

A

The GCU has detected a bus fault or a generator over current

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17
Q

When the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH switch lights are selected, what happens?

A

(Fuck Harry, Bertha Got Squibs)

Fuel SOV closes 
HYD SOV closes 
Bleed Air SOV closes 
Generator is taken offline 
Squibs are armed
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18
Q

What happens if a crew member selects the L HYD SOV?

A

The left HYD SOV closes and the flow of hydraulic fluid is shut off to the engine driven pump (EDP)

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19
Q

How many hydraulic systems does the CRJ 900 have?

A

3 independent systems

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20
Q

What is the hydraulic system normal pressure?

A

3000 psi

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21
Q

What is the normal hydraulic fluid quantity?

A

45-85%

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22
Q

During normal cruise flight, how many pumps would be operating?

A

3 hydraulic pumps

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23
Q

What would cause the backup (B) pumps to turn on?

A

Flaps greater than 0

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24
Q

What lighting should be on when instructed to “line up and wait?”

A

All lights except landing and taxi lights

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25
Q

What would cause a boost pump to automatically turn on?

A

Low fuel pressure at the main ejector

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26
Q

In AUTO mode, when would the system begin to transfer fuel?

A

Imbalance of more than 200 lbs

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27
Q

When will the system stop transferring fuel?

A

When the fuel tanks are balanced plus 50 lbs

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28
Q

What would cause the GRAVITY XFLOW FAIL light to illuminate?

A

The gravity crossflow valve is in the uncommanded position

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29
Q

How many fuel pumps does the CRJ 900 have?

A

5 total

2 engine driven
2 boost pumps
1 APU pump

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30
Q

What is the max fuel imbalance for takeoff?

A

300 lbs

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31
Q

What is the max imbalance for all other phases of flight?

A

800 lbs

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32
Q

What would cause the fuel SOVs to close?

A

The engine fire push switch

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33
Q

After selecting the APU PWR FUEL switch, what must the crew observe prior to selecting the START/STOP switch?

A

APU SOV OPEN status message
APU IN BITE status message
APU RPM and EGT gauges are displayed
APU DOOR OPEN message is displayed

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34
Q

When will the APU AVAIL light illuminate?

A

At 99% RPM plus 2 seconds

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35
Q

What is the max altitude for operating the APU?

A

FL 410

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36
Q

What is the max altitude to start the APU?

A

FL 370

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37
Q

What is the max altitude for bleed air extraction?

A

FL 250

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38
Q

If the APU door is open or the position is unknown with the APU not operating, what airspeed is the crew restricted to?

A

220 kts

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39
Q

What APU exhaust hazard area exists for the CRJ900?

A

None, due to the height of the exhaust

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40
Q

Where does the APU receive its fuel from?

A

Left collector tank

41
Q

In the event that the APU pump fails, will the APU continue to operate?

A

Yes, if the APU pump fails an internal bypass valve opens

42
Q

How much voltage must batteries have prior to start attempt?

A

22 volts on each battery

43
Q

If there is a fire in the APU, what prevents/contains the fire from spreading to the other areas?

A

The APU Is surrounded by a titanium fire proof container

44
Q

In the event of an emergency and the crew is not present, how can the ground crew shut down the APU?

A

APU shut off switch on external panel

45
Q

What would happen if the APU caught fire and the aircraft was unattended?

A

The APU will automatically shut down and the APU bottle will discharge after 5 seconds

46
Q

What would happen if the APU caught fire in flight?

A

The APU ECU will shut down but the crew must discharge the bottle

47
Q

What are the engine starter limitations?

A

Attempts 1 & 2: 90 seconds ON, 30 seconds OFF

Attempts 3 through 5: 90 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF

48
Q

What are the HOT start memory items?

A

Affected Thrust Lever- Shut off
Dry motor- until ITT below 120 or starter limit, whichever is first
Affected Engine, ENG stop switch- STOP

49
Q

When must continuous ignition be used?

A

Takeoff & landing on contaminated runways

Moderate or heavy rain

Moderate or greater turbulence

Vicinity of thunderstorms

50
Q

How can the crew set Go Around Thrust?

A

TOGA

51
Q

How can the crew set max continuous thrust?

A

Climb

52
Q

How can the crew set APR thrust?

A

Max power

53
Q

What speed must the thrust reversers he idle power?

A

60 kts

54
Q

Why does the CRJ 900 have the 60 kt limitation for the thrust reverser stowage?

A

FOD ingestion hazard

55
Q

When do icing conditions exist on the ground?

A

OAT is 10 degrees Celsius or below and visible moisture is present or surface contamination exists

56
Q

What visibility would be considered visible moisture?

A

1 SM or less

57
Q

When do icing conditions exist in the air?

A

TAT is 10 degrees Celsius of below and visible moisture is present; except when SAT is less than -40 degrees Celsius

58
Q

What is bleed air used for in the CRJ900?

A 
Engine start 
Anti ice 
Pressurization 
Air conditioning 
Avionics cooling
59
Q

What stage of the engine normally supplies bleed air?

A

The 6th stage

60
Q

What happens when there is a higher demand for bleed air than that stage is capable of producing?

A

The HPV opens to supply 10th stage bleed air

61
Q

What PSI does the pressure regulating function limit the bleed air output to the packs?

A

45 psi

62
Q

At what cabin altitude would we receive the cabin altitude CAUTION?

A

Cabin altitude > 8,500

63
Q

When would we receive the Cabin Altitude WARNING?

A

Cabin Altitude > 10,000

64
Q

How can the crew manually decrease cabin altitude?

A

Select PRESS CONTROL to MAN
MAN ALT ON
Adjust MAN RATE to desired rate

65
Q

How many pressure controllers does the CRJ900 have?

A

2; PC1 and PC2

66
Q

Do both pressure controllers operate at the same time?

A

No

67
Q

How is it determined which PC is used?

A

WOW + 3 minutes

Or if 1 PC fails, the other will take over

68
Q

When EMER DEPRESS is selected, what happens to the aircraft’s pressurization?

A

The aircraft will depressurize to 14,500 +/- 500’

69
Q

What would cause a pack fault?

A

Over pressure or over temp

70
Q

What is the single pack limitation?

A

FL 250

71
Q

What is the maximum altitude to select RAM AIR?

A

15,000’

72
Q

How can the crew manually cool down the cabin?

A

MAN switch, then toggle hot or cold

73
Q

When must the CARGO COND AIR be selected ON?

A

When live animals are in the AFT Cargo

74
Q

Which side of the mixing manifold does the RAM air supply air to?

A

Right side of the mixing manifold

75
Q

Which of the cargo bays are pressurized?

A

Both forward and aft

76
Q

Can we carry live animals in both cargo bays?

A

No, aft only.

77
Q

What is the AFT cargo weight limitation?

A

4375 lbs

78
Q

What is the FWD cargo weight limitation?

A

850 lbs each

79
Q

What is the cargo floor loading limitation?

A

75lbs per sq ft

80
Q

What can de done if an item exceeds the cargo floor loading limitation?

A

Pallet the item with a displacer

81
Q

If we are flying at 250kts, temperature is 3C, in the clouds, there is No “ICE” annunciated, what should be on?

A

Cowls

82
Q

What airspeed determines wing anti ice usage?

A

230 kts

83
Q

Which hydraulic system is used for landing gear extension and retraction?

A

3

84
Q

Which hydraulic system is used for alternate landing gear extension?

A

2

85
Q

What is the max speed for landing gear retraction?

A

200 kts

86
Q

What is the max speed for landing gear extension?

A

220 kts

87
Q

What is the max tire speed?

A

195 kgs

88
Q

After type 4 fluid has been applied, if needed for taxi, which anti ice system should be on?

A

Only cowls

89
Q

What are the effects of ice and front contamination?

A

Increased weight
Loss of lift
Increased drag
Loss of control

90
Q

If we are flying into an uncontrolled airport at night, how will be turn on the runway lights?

A

Click the mic.
3- low
5- medium
7- high

91
Q

What is the lowest reported RVR required to initiate a CAT II approach?

A

1200 RVR

92
Q

When setting up for a CAT II approach what is the decision height determined by?

A

Radar altimeter

93
Q

What is the lowest visibility required for takeoff per Mesa opspecs?

A

500 RVR

94
Q

What is the lowest visibility for an FO to conduct a takeoff?

A

1 SM

95
Q

When do you need an alternate?

A

+/- 1 hour ETA
Ceiling is less than 2000’
And visibility less than 3 SM

96
Q

How many RVR reporting systems are required for a 500 RVR takeoff?

A

Minimum of 2

97
Q

Max crosswind?

A

35 takeoff

32 landing

98
Q

Is the crosswind a limitation?

A

No

99
Q

Max tailwind for takeoff and landing?

A

10 kts

AQP (1 decks)

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