study guide 1 Flashcards

0
Q

Which receptor causes mydriasis?

A

Alpha 1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Which receptor increases peripheral resistance (PR)?

A

Alpha 1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which receptor causes closure of the urinary bladder?

A

Alpha 1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which receptor modulates norepinephrine (NE) release?

A

Alpha 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which receptor moderates insulin release?

A

Alpha 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which receptor increases heart rate?

A

Beta 1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which receptor increases AV node conduction?

A

Beta 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which receptor increases myocardial contraction?

A

Beta 1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which receptor increases renin release?

A

Beta 1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which receptor causes vasodilation?

A

Beta 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which receptor causes bronchial dilation?

A

Beta 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which receptor increases release of glucagon?

A

Beta 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which receptor causes relaxation of urinary bladder?

A

Beta 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which receptor decreases GI secretions?

A

Beta 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which receptor causes relaxation of uterine smooth muscle?

A

Beta 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dopamine is converted to ___.

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which receptor causes vasodilation?

A

Alpha 1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Drugs used to treat shock: (4)

A
  1. epinephrine
  2. norepinephrine
  3. dopamine
  4. metaraminol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The purpose of dopamine?

A

to treat shock from MI, trauma, open heart surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Physiological fx of dopamine:

A
  • stimulates heart and BP
  • causes renal dilation to increase blood flow to kidney
  • prevents diminished blood flow to kidney
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Side fx of dopamine:

A
  • tachycardia
  • angina/pain
  • hypertension
  • dyspnea
  • N&V
  • headaches
  • arrythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tx of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) include:

A

Doxazosin
Terazosin
Tamsulosin
Difuzosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tx of BPH include drugs that target which SNS receptors?

A

Alpha 1 selective adrenergic blocking agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Side fx of prazosin

A
  • allergy to drug
  • lactation
  • hepatic impairment
  • dizziness
  • weakness
  • N&V
  • diarrhea
  • arrythmia
  • hypotension
  • edema
  • CHF
  • angina/pain
  • nasal congestion
  • syncope (fainting)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Physiological reason for “1st dose syncope (fainting)”:

A

1st dose will cause a drop in BP which can cause syncope (fainting). Best for pt to take 1st dose at night.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Asthmatic pt should take what kind of beta blocker and why?

A

Beta 1 selective adrenergic blocking agent bc they usually don’t block beta1 receptor sites which is responsible for bronchodilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Propanolol is used for treating:

A

Hypertension, angina, migraines, anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Propanolol side fx:

A
  • allergic rxn
  • bradycardia
  • CHF
  • cardiac arrythmia
  • pulmonary edema
  • gastric pain
  • BRONCHOSPASM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Do not use propanolol if pt:

A

has asthma or is a smoker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Neurotransmitters of the SNS: (3)

A

Acetylcholine
NE
Ephinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Beta blocker side fx:

A
  • fatigue, dizziness, and sleep disturbances
  • bradycardia, heart block, CHF, hypotension
  • bronchoplasm, rhinitis
  • N/V, diarrhea
  • decreased libido
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Phenylephrine used to tx:

A
  • hypertension
  • nasal decongestant
  • shock
  • tachycardia
  • cold and allergies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Side fx of phenylephrine:

A
  • anxiety
  • restlessness
  • depression
  • fatigue
  • blurred vision
  • h/a
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Do not ___ while on phenylephrine.

A

drink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pregnancy category A

A

No risk to fetus in 1st trimester

No evidence for last trimesters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pregnancy category B

A

No risk to animal fetus

No studies for pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pregnancy Category C

A

Adverse fx in animals
No adequate studies in pregnant women
May be acceptable to use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pregnancy category D

A

Human fetal risk

May be acceptable despite risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pregnancy category X

A

Clear damage to fetus

Risk outweighs any benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Therapeutic effect:

A

Amount of drug needed to cause an effect (beneficial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pharmacokinetics:

A
How the body acts on the drug
	Onset of drug action
	Movement of drug to body tissues
	Drug half-life
	Metabolism
	Site of excretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pharmacodynamics:

A

How the drug affects the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pharmacogenetics:

A

Study of genetically determined variations in response to drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

First pass effect

A

Drugs given orally are directed to liver after absorption, where they may be largely inactivated by liver enzymes before they can enter general circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Critical concentration:

A

Amount of drug needed to cause a therapeutic effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pharmacology:

A

Study of biological effects of a chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Synergistic fx:

A

2 drugs w/ diff mechanisms produce a greater effect than if given individually (1+1=3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Metoprolol treats:

A

Hypertension, CHF, & MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Additive fx:

A

2 drugs given in combo to produce a total effect the same as the sum of the indiv fx (1+1=2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Antagonist fx:

A

2 drugs cancel each other out (1+1=0)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Cumulative fx:

A

Repeated admin of a drug may produce fx more pronounced than those produced by the first dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Trade names:

A

Brand name given to a drug by the pharmaceutical co that dvlped it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Generic names:

A

Original designation that a drug is given when the drug co that dvlped it applies for the approval process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Half-life:

A

Time it takes for the amount of drug in the body to decrease to 1/2 the peak level it previously achieved

54
Q

Nursing process and admin of meds:

A
  • Assessment (h/o surgical & social, current meds, allergies)
  • Admin of ordered meds & therapy
  • Assessment of rxn to med
  • Teaching
  • Eval of teaching effective
55
Q

The 7 rights of drug admin:

A
  • (patient)
  • drug
  • dose
  • route
  • frequency/timing
  • documentation
  • storage
  • prep
56
Q

What fx drug metabolism and where does it primarily occur?

A
It primarily occurs in the liver.
Factors affecting metabolism:
	- Route
	- Fat
	- Temp (cold = longer; warm = shorter)
	- Stomach pH
	- Presence of food & smoking
57
Q

Drugs of choice for hypertension & CHF:

A

Carvedilol & Metoprolol

58
Q

Preclinical trial phase:

A

Tested on lab animals

59
Q

Phase 1 clinical trials:

A

Chemicals tested on healthy (no dz state) human volunteers

60
Q

Phase II clinical trials

A

Drugs tested on informed pts with the dz

61
Q

Phase III clinical trials

A

Drug used in vast clinical market

62
Q

Phase IV clinical trials

A

Continual eval of drug

63
Q

What is Pheochromocytoma and what does it treat?

A

Tumor of the adrenal gland that causes too much release of NE & epinephrine.
It treats hypertension.

64
Q

Fx of sympathomimetics:

A

They are drugs that mimic the fx of the SNS.
They are bronchodilators.
They increase BP & HR.

65
Q

What are adrenergic blockers and how do they work?

A

They are called sympathomimetic drugs bc they lyse/block the fx of the SNS.
They prevent NE from activating the receptor

66
Q

Aluminum is used to treat:

A
  • Decrease gastric acidity
  • Mange hyperphosphatemia
  • Prevents formation of phosphate urinary stones
67
Q

Fluoride is used for:

A
  • Prevention of dental cavities

- Prevention of osteoporosis

68
Q

Gold is used to treat:

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

69
Q

Iron is used to treat:

A

Iron deficiency anemia

70
Q

Anaphylactic rxn:

A
  • Can be fatal
  • Can happen immediately or over time after drug was taken
  • Ab’s attack Ag’s causing cell death
  • S&S include: hives, difficulty breathing, increased BP & HR
71
Q

Cytotoxic rxn:

A
  • Not immediate, can happen over a few days
  • Decreased hematocrit, WBC’s, & platelets
  • Increased liver enzymes
  • Decreased renal fxn
72
Q

Serum sickness rxn

A
  • Can occur up to one week or more
  • It is more severe than delayed allergic rxn
  • Ab’s cause damage to tissues by depositing in blood vessels
  • Itchy rash, high fever, swollen lymph nodes & joints, edema of face & limbs
73
Q

Delayed allergic rxn:

A
  • Can occur w/in several hrs
  • Ab’s bind to specific WBC’s
  • Rash, hives, swollen joints (similar to rxn to poison ivy)
74
Q

Schedule I drugs

A
  • No accepted medical use in US
  • High abuse potential
  • i.e. heroin, LSD, ecstacy
75
Q

Increased motility & secretions in the GI tract. Sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Parasympathetic

76
Q

Schedule II drugs

A
  • May lead to potential physical or psychological dependence
  • High potential abuse
  • i.e. morphine, amphetamine
77
Q

Schedule III drugs

A
  • May lead to moderate or low physical dependence
  • May lead to high psychological dependence
  • Less potential for abuse than Schedule I & II drugs
  • i.e. vicodin, tylenol w/ codeine
78
Q

Schedule IV drugs

A
  • Low potential for abuse

- i.e. xanax, valium

79
Q

Schedule V drugs

A
  • Limited potential for abuse

- i.e. cough syrups (Robitussin)

80
Q

Stomatitis:

A

Inflammation of mucous membranes

81
Q

Blood is diverted from the GI tract & internal organs. Sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic

82
Q

Superinfections:

A

Destruction of body’s normal flora

83
Q

Blood dyscrasia:

A
  • Bone marrow suppression

- Permanent abnormal cellular elements

84
Q

Atropine-like (anticholinergic) fx:

A

Dries the pt out

85
Q

Organ with the important role in med excretion:

A

Kidneys

86
Q

BP & HR increases. Sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic

87
Q

Respiratory efficiency increases. Sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic

88
Q

Bronchodilation & RR increases. Sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic

89
Q

Pupils dilate. Sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic

90
Q

Muscarinic receptors are found in:

A
  • Visceral effector organs
  • Sweat glands
  • Some vascular smooth muscle
91
Q

Piloerection (erection of hair) occurs. Sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic

92
Q

Dopamine is converted to NE which causes?

A

Renal artery dilation

93
Q

Constriction of bronchi w/ increased secretion. Sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Parasympathetic

94
Q

Relaxation of GI & bladder. Sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Parasympathetic

95
Q

Nebivolol treats:

A

Hypertension

96
Q

Atenolol treats:

A

MI, chronic angina, & hypertension

97
Q

Atenolol treats:

A

MI, chronic angina, & hypertension

98
Q

Stimulation of muscarinic receptors results in:

A
  • Pupil constriction
  • Increased GI motility
  • Increased salivation
  • Increased urinary bladder constriction
  • Decreased HR
99
Q

Muscarinic receptors:

A

Receptors stimulated by muscarine (plant alkaloid from mushrooms)

100
Q

Bisoprolol treats:

A

Hypertension

101
Q

Bisoprolol treats:

A

Hypertension

102
Q

Stimulation of nicotinic receptors results in:

A
  • Muscle contraction
  • Autonomic response
  • Release of NE & epinephrine from adrenal medulla
103
Q

Epinephrine treats:

A

Shock, glaucoma

104
Q

Nicotinic receptors are located:

A
  • CNS
  • Adrenal medulla
  • Autonomic ganglia
  • Neuromuscular jxn
105
Q

Dopamine treats:

A

Shock

106
Q

Dobutamine treats:

A

CHF

107
Q

Norephinephrine treats:

A

Shock, or is used during cardiac arrest to stimulate sympathetic activity

108
Q

Metaraminol treats:

A

Shock, or induces sympathetic activity during cardiac arrest

109
Q

Beta blockers often end with the suffix ___

A

-olol (i.e. propanolol, metaprolol)

110
Q

Ephedrine treats:

A

Seasonal arthritis, hyptensive episodes

111
Q

Alpha blockers often end with the suffix ___.

A

-osin (i.e. prazosin, doxazosin)

112
Q

Metoprolol treats:

A

Hypertension, CHF, & MI

113
Q

Isoproterenol treats:

A
  • Shock, cardiac standstill, and heartblock in transplanted hearts
  • Prevention of bronchoplasm during anesthesia
  • Inhaled to treat bronchoplasm
114
Q

Decreased HR & contractility. Sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Parasympathetic

115
Q

Carvedilol treats:

A

Hypertension & CHF

116
Q

Guanadrel treats:

A

Hypertension in adults not responding to thiazide diuretics

117
Q

Guanethidine treats:

A

Hypertension and renal hypertension

118
Q

Ritodrine use:

A

Management of preterm labor

119
Q

Phentolamine use:

A

Management of severe hypertension during pheochromocytoma surgery

120
Q

Doxazosin treats:

A

Hypertension & is also effective in tx of BPH

121
Q

Prazosin treats:

A

Hypertension alone or in combo with other drugs

122
Q

Labetalol treats:

A

Hypertension, pheochromocytoma, and clonidine w/drawal

123
Q

Tamsulosin treats:

A

BPH

124
Q

Alfuzosin treats:

A

BPH

125
Q

Terazosin treats:

A

Hypertension and BPH

126
Q

Which receptor increases BP?

A

Alpha 1 receptors

127
Q

Sotalol use:

A

Use in prevention of life-threatening ventricular arrythmias

128
Q

Propanolol treats:

A

Hypertension, angina, migraines

129
Q

Timolol treats:

A

Hypertension & used in prevention of reinfarction after MI

130
Q

Nadolol treats:

A

Hypertension & chronic angina

131
Q

Pupillary constriction. Sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Parasympathetic

132
Q

Esmolol treats:

A

Supraventricular tachycardias

133
Q

Esmolol treats:

A

Supraventricular tachycardias