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A&P I Lab > study for final > Flashcards

study for final Flashcards

1
Q

3 main functions of cranial nerves

A

muscle control
sensory interpretation
controlling glands

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2
Q

CN I Olfactory

A

Smell

“sensory”

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3
Q

CN II Optic

A

Vision

“sensory”

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4
Q

CN III Oculomotor

A 
Eye movement (pupil contration/lid movement)
"motor"
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5
Q

CN IV Trochlear

A

down and in eye movement

“motor”

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6
Q

CN V Trigeminal

A

“both”
S= facial expression, secretion of saliva and tears
M= chewing

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7
Q

CN XII Hypoglossal

A

Tounge movement

“motor”

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8
Q

CN VI Abducens

A

Roll eye laterally

“motor”

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9
Q

CN VII Facial

A

“Both”
M= facial expression’
S= Taste

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10
Q

CN VIII Vestibulocochlear

A

Hearing and balance

“sensory”

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11
Q

CN X Vagus

A

Digestion and heart

“Both”

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12
Q

CN IX Glossopharyngeal

A

“Both”
S= Swallowing/ saliva
M= Taste impulse

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13
Q

CN XI Spinal Accessory

A

Supplies motor signals to muscles in head

“motor”

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14
Q

CN XII Hypoglossal

A

“Motor”

Tongue movement

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15
Q

Mneumonics for CN

names and function

A

Names:
ooh ooh ooh to touch and feel very good velvet such heaven
function: Some say marry money but my brother says big boobs matter more.

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16
Q

TUG Test stands for

A

timed up and go

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17
Q

TUG test assesses

___ and ____ balance

A

Static and dynamic

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18
Q

Uses for TUG Test

A

Test mobility skills in seniors, or people with arthritis, Post CVA, or Vertigo

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19
Q

TUG Test Scoring for normal healthy adults

A

10 sec or less

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20
Q

Normative reference values for TUG Test by age range
60-69 years
70-79 years
80+ years

A
  1. 1-9.0
  2. 2-10.2
  3. 0-12.7
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21
Q

TUG test cut off values predictive of falls Community dwelling

A

> 14 sec HIGH RISK

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22
Q

TUG test cut off values predictive of falls

Post-op hip fracture @ time of discharge

A

> 24 sec predictive of falls within the next 6 months after hip fracture

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23
Q

TUG test cut off values predictive of falls

frail older adults

A

> 30 sec predictive of requiring assistive device and dependent on ADLs

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24
Q

3 types of sensory analysis

A

Stereognosis
Graphesthesia
Light touch localiization

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25
Q

stereognosis

A

perceptual skillthat enables an individual to identify common objects and geometric shapes through tactile perception without aid of vision

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26
Q

Inability to reach in pocket and identify object is called

A

Astereognosis

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27
Q

Stereognosis testing procedure

A

client must have eyes covered, place several items in clients hand and one at a time and record whether they can recall them or not.

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28
Q

Graphesthesia

what is it

A

The ability to recognize writing in the skin purely by the sense of touch

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29
Q

what is graphesthesia used for

A

Graphesthesia is commonly used in sensory re-education following peripheral nerve injuries.
- could be early sign of Alzheimer’s disease

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30
Q

Graphesthesia testing procedure

A

client closes eyes, draw number letter or symbol on hand. have client identify symbol and repeat 3-5 times

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31
Q

peripheral nerve injuries graded on the

A

Sunderland scale, 5 degrees of severity

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32
Q

causes of peripheral nerve injuries

A 
Laeration
sever bruising
gunshot
overstretching
drug injection injury
electrical injury
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33
Q

neuropathy

A

non-reversible disease caused by nerve damage (damage to the nervous system) that creates pain, mostly in hands and feet.

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34
Q

Light touch localization

A

Localization tests the individual’s ability to perceive where on the skin he/she was touched with a light stimulus

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35
Q

Problems that can happen if client has touch localization issues

A

Impaired touch localization may lead to decreased fine motor coordination
-Drop things, risk of burns, cuts, cold or heat receptors (Frost bite, Heat stroke)

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36
Q

Localization –Testing Procedure

A

pt. closes eyes.
Lightly touch the applicable body regions with the piece of cotton using consistent and minimal contact pressure.
Ask patient to indicate where touched.

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37
Q

Pain Acute VS Chronic

A

Protective process (acute pain) becomes destructive (chronic pain)

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38
Q

Name all 9 Endocrine glands

A

Hypothalamus, Pituitary gland, Thyroid gland, Parathyroid, Adrenal gland, Pineal Gland, Thymus, Gonads, Pancreas, Ovaries

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39
Q

the process of when the pancreas release hormones and why.

A

o Pancreas oversees keeping blood sugar levels under control. It uses insulin (high blood sugar) and glucagon (low blood sugar) to either increase or decrease the amount glucose in blood

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40
Q

where the hormones go after they are released from the pancreas

A

o When insulin -> tissue cells., and the glucose -> liver

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41
Q

Normal range of glucose for a person fasting, after eating, and 2-3 hours after a meal

A

F: 80-100
AE: 170-200
HRS: 120-140

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42
Q

Diabetic range of glucose for a person fasting, after eating, and 2-3 hours after a meal

A

F: 126+
AE: 220-230
HRS: 200+

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43
Q

Is there another organ that helps with the release of these 2 hormones

A

o The liver, it holds glycogen in it until it gets signaled to be released as glucagon

44
Q

hyperglycemia

A

(too much sugar)- frequent urination, thirsty, tired, weak, blurry vision, hungry after a meal

45
Q

hypoglycemia

A

(too little sugar)-Shaky, dizzy, nervous, sweat, hunger, headache, pale skin, clumsy, confused, trouble paying attention, tingling around mouth, fainting.

46
Q

DMI

A

Type 1-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus
•Pancreas does not produce insulin
•autoimmune
•Usually diagnosed in childhood, adolescence, or in young adulthood <30 years of age

47
Q

DMII

A

Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus
•Can occur at any age; obesity is a risk factor
•or elevated amounts of insulin are present in the blood, but receptors on the cells do not respond to it
•Insufficient insulin production to handle the glucose concentration in the body

48
Q

Most common pulse points

A

Radial artery and common carotid

49
Q

Normal pulse rate

A

usually 70 beats per minute (bpm)

50
Q

Evaluating pulse

A

count for 30 sec then multiply by 2. if it is irregular do it for full 60 sec. people must be sitting or laying

51
Q

Blood pressure usually measured at

A

brachial artery

52
Q

Instrument that records blood pressure changes

A

Sphygmomanometer

53
Q

Systolic pressure

A

higher number. recorded when left ventricle contracts

54
Q

diastolic pressure

A

bottom number

recorded when left ventricle relaxes

55
Q

Normal b/p

A

120/80

56
Q

hypotension

A

low b/p

57
Q

Hypertension

A

high b/p

58
Q

risk factors for high b/p

A

smoking, foods high in sodium low in potassium, not enough activity, obesity, alchohol

59
Q

CABG

A

Coronary artery bypass grafting, classified by how many arteries are grafted ie. CABG X2
creates a new path for O2 rich blood to flow to heart

60
Q

Sternal percautions

A

up to 12 weeks after surgery.

dont reach arms up, to the side, behind back. dont life more than 5-8lbs, push up from chair, pull with arms, or drive.

61
Q

what would cause respiration rates to increase?

A

fever, illness, medical conditions

62
Q

normal respiration rate

A

12-18 breaths per minute

63
Q

pursed lip breathing is beneficial for people who…

A

is not expelling enough co2 out of body. example asthma or COPD

64
Q

pursed lip breathing does what to airways

A

applies back pressure to keep airways open longer so co2 can escape

65
Q

incentive spirometer is used when?

A

after surgery to help keep lungs clear and active. or for someone who is inactive, or people at risk of airway breathing problems (smokers, lung disease).

66
Q

what does an incentive spirometer measure

A

how deeply one can inhale

67
Q

things to remember about incentive spirometer as an OTA

A

we cannot issue them, only respiratory therapist
we can watch them do it correctly.
should be sitting upright as much as possible

68
Q

what is pulse oximetry:

A

measure oxygen saturation of blood.

69
Q

normal pulse ox

A

95-100%

70
Q

what can affect pulse ox?

A

changing position

71
Q

what can hinder pulse ox reading?

A

nail polish, wrong sized probe, placement of probe,

motion, dysrhythmia.

72
Q

downward trend of baseline (pulse ox) may be a sign of…

A

fatigue, increases work of breathing, or aspiration

73
Q

what happens when someone is hyperventilating, what can they do?

A

too much O2 in system, give them paper bag to blow and inhale co2 back in body so levels go back too normal

74
Q

causes of dysphagia

5 examples

A

Facial paralysis, motor planning deficits, oral cavity sensory impairment, weakness of tongue or pharynx,
cognitive deficits

75
Q

aspiration

A

penetration of the bronchi/ bronchioles by particles of the bolus

76
Q

aspiration can lead to…

A

pneumonia

77
Q

signs of aspiration (4)

A

coughing, facial flushing, gasping, silent aspiration

78
Q

swallowing evaluation

A

video fluoroscopy

79
Q

positioning for feeding

A

feet stable, hips stable, trunk control, head control, jaw control

80
Q

feeding interventions for infants and parents

A

explain positioning, and setting influences

81
Q

feeding interventions for toddlers

A

size/texture of food, finger feeding, hlding utensils etc.

82
Q

feeding interventions for enteral feeding

A

positioning

83
Q

feeding interventions for aging clients

A

adaptive equipment and positioning

84
Q

dysphagia diets does not include

A

liquids, or pediatrics

85
Q

dysphagia diet level 1

A

dysphagia pureed, mod- sever.

does not include chewing

86
Q

dysphagia diet level 2

A

Dysphagia Ground( mild – mod oral & pharyngeal dysphagia.

Moist, soft-textured foods that need some chewing (easily formed into a bolus)

87
Q

dysphagia diet level 3

A

Dysphagia Advanced (mild oral and/or pharyngeal dysphagia
• Transition to a regular diet
• Textures of food are regular EXCEPT very hard, sticky, or crunchy foods

88
Q

Compensatory swallowing strategies

A

head rotation, throat clearing, alternate food/liquid, chin tuck

89
Q

liquid thicknesses, leave viscous to most viscous

A

thin
nectar
honey
pudding

90
Q

2 types of dialysis

A

hemodialysis

peritoneal

91
Q

hemodialysis

A

performed at center. multiple times a week.

92
Q

peritoneal dialysis

A

manual bag exchange 4x/day or night cycler

93
Q

why does b/p decrease durring dialysis

A

o The excess fluid is being removed by the machine. When you have less blood fluid/ volume it will decrease pressure

94
Q

3 stages of prevention

A

primary, secondary, tertiary

95
Q

stages of prevention: primary

A

No disease yet, main focus is disease prevention

96
Q

stages of prevention: secondary

A

stage of disease is imminent, main objective early detection

97
Q

stages of prevention: tertiary

A

disease is established, mainf objective is to minimize damage

98
Q

ESRD

A

end stage renal disease: kidney failure, must receive dialysis or transplant

99
Q

COPD

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease:
chronic inflammatory lung disease that causes obstructed airflow from the lungs. Symptoms include breathing difficulty, cough, mucus (sputum) production and wheezing.

100
Q

stages of Edema (4)

A

stage 0- latency (swelling not evident)
stage 1- early onset (pitting swelling)
stage 2- spontaneous irreversible protein rich fluid, tissue changes
stage 3- lymphostatic elephantiasis fibrotic tissue, folds

101
Q

lymphedema classifications

A

primary- congenital

secondary- permanent damage to intact system

102
Q

techniques to reduce edema

A

elevation, movement, retrograde massage, glove, coban, contrast baths

103
Q

what helps move lymph?

A

skeletal muscle contractions, gravity, peristalsis

104
Q

what body parts drained by the right lymphatic duct?

A

right side, arm/head/neck/chest

105
Q

what body parts are drained by the left thoracic duct?

A

Both legs, groin, abdomen, left arm/shoulder/chest/head/neck

106
Q

two ducts in the lymphatic system?

A

right lymphatic duct, and thoracic duct

A&P I Lab (1 decks)

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