Study for Final Flashcards

1
Q
This cell is involved in repair of the airway; it is capable of mitosis and also produces surfactant.
A.	Mast Cell
B.	Clara cell
C.	Type 1 pneumocyte
D.	Goblet Cell
E.	Type II pneumocyte
A

E. Type II pneumocyte

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2
Q

Stimulation of this specific nerve causes laryngospasm, causing the vocal cords to abruptly close.
A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Sphenopalatine ganglion
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Superior laryngeal nerve – internal branch
E. Superior laryngeal nerve – external branch

A

D. Superior laryngeal nerve – internal branch

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3
Q
What is the narrowest portion of the airway in a 34 year old.
A.	Vocal Cords
B.	Hyaline Cartilage
C.	Cricoid Cartilage
D.	Thyroid cartilage
E.	Oropharynx
A

A. Vocal Cords

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4
Q
This midline anatomic location is found at the root of the tongue and the base of the epiglottis.
A.	Vallecula
B.	Lingula
C.	Carina
D.	Uvula
E.	Sella Turcica
A

A. Vallecula

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5
Q
The recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx EXCEPT
A.	Cricothyroid
B.	Posterior cricoarytenoid
C.	Trachealis
D.	Lateral cricoarytenoid
E.	Thyroarytenoid
A

A. Cricothyroid

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6
Q

The pulmonary vascular system is considered a
A. High pressure and High resistance system
B. High pressure and low resistance system
C. Low pressure and high resistance system
D. Low pressure and low resistance system
E. None of the above

A

D. Low pressure and low resistance system

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7
Q

In the upright lung, moving from the apex of the lung toward the base:
A. Perfusion an dventilation both increase
B. The V/Q ratio stays uniform throughout the lung
C. Perfusion decreases but ventilation increases
D. Perfusion and ventilation both decrease
E. Perfusion increases but ventilation decreases

A

A. Perfusion an dventilation both increase

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8
Q

This occurs in the alveolar vasculature when a large volume breath is given during positive pressure ventilation.
A. An increase in the pulmonary vascular resistance
B. The whole lung to convert to a zone III-type distribution
C. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
D. An increase in the resistance in the extra-alveolar vessels
E. A decrease in the pulmonary vascular resistance

A

A. An increase in the pulmonary vascular resistance

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9
Q
The zone of the lung is increased with high cardiac output and provides the ideal v/q ratio and optimum gas exchange to occur.
A.	FRC
B.	Zone 1
C.	Zone 4
D.	Zone 3
E.	Zone 2
A

D. Zone 3

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10
Q

When blood flow or pressure is increased in the pulmonary circulation the pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) decreases mainly due to
A. Recruitment of additional previously closed capillary vessels
B. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
C. Bronchodilation of the airways
D. Histamine release
E. Distention of open capillary vessels

A

A. Recruitment of additional previously closed capillary vessels

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11
Q
A  healthy patient breathing normally, without supplemental oxygen, would have the following alveolar partial pressures:
A.	PO2 50 ; PCO2 50
B.	PO2 100 ; PCO2 40 
C.	PO2 150 ; PCO2 45
D.	PO2 150 ; PN2 610 ; PCO2 0
E.	Alveolar gas can never be determined
A

B. PO2 100 ; PCO2 40

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12
Q

Ficks law describes
A. Physiologic shunts
B. Physiologic dead spaces
C. Solubility of a gas with regards to temperature
D. Movement of fluid through a tube
E. Movement of gas across a tissue membrane *

A

E. Movement of gas across a tissue membrane

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13
Q
Which gas sample would best represent alveolar partial pressures of the respiratory gasses
A.	Room air sample
B.	B. Sample from the vocal cords
C.	Sample at the beginning of exhalation
D.	Sample at the middle of exhalation
E.	Sample at the end of exhalation
A

E. Sample at the end of exhalation

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14
Q

By which mechanism does gas exchange occur between the alveolar space and the pulmonary capillaries
A. Simple diffusion down partial pressure gradients
B. Negative pressure pulmonary ventilation
C. Active transport
D. Positive pressure pulmonary ventilation
E. Receptor mediated

A

A. Simple diffusion down partial pressure gradients

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15
Q
An athlete runs up five flights of stairs; the muscles in her legs have increased CO2, increased H+, increased temperature, what does this do to the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve of the hemoglobin in her legs
A.	Shift it up
B.	Shift it down
C.	Shift it right
D.	Shift it left
E.	Becomes more linear
A

C. Shift it right

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16
Q
CO2 is mainly transported throughout the body
A.	In the form of HCO3- (bicarbonate)
B.	Dissolved gas in plasma
C.	Bound to hemoglobin
D.	Bound to amino acids
E.	Bound to albumin
A

A. In the form of HCO3- (bicarbonate)*

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17
Q
During a prolonged, difficult intubation a patient’s saturation SpO2 drops to 90%, this represents a PaO2 of: 
A.	27 mmHg
B.	40 mmHg
C.	60 mmHg 
D.	100 mmhg
E.	760 mmHg
A

C. 60 mmHg

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18
Q

Which of the following decreases the O2 content in the blood the most:
A. PaCO2 increasing from 35 mmHg to 65 mmHg
B. Saturation SpO2 dropping from 100% to 90%
C. PaO2 dropping from 250 mmHg to 100mmHg
D. Decreasing the body temperature from 37 to 34 degrees
E. Hemoglobin dropping from 15g/dl to 10g/dl

A

E. Hemoglobin dropping from 15g/dl to 10g/dl

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19
Q
What is the approximate volume of oxygen consumed per minute at rest in a normal adult
A.	50ml
B.	100ml
C.	250ml
D.	2L
E.	5L
A

C. 250ml

20
Q
The central chemoreceptors on the brainstem are mainly sensitive to:
A.	A. Temperature
B.	Hyperglycemia
C.	Hypoxia
D.	Hypercapnia
E.	Hypocapnia
A

D. Hypercapnia

21
Q
This group of neurons is responsible for controlling respiration at rest and provides the basic respiratory rhythm.
A.	Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
B.	Ventral respiratory group (VRG)
C.	Pneumotaxic center
D.	Cerebellum
E.	Cerebral Cortex
A

A. Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

22
Q

Increasing the PCO2 in blood alters respiration in which way
A. Acts at the peripheral chemoreceptors
B. Potent acute effect and weak chronic effect*
C. Weak acute effect and potent chronic effect
D. Increases the inspiratory RAMP duration
E. Potent acute effect and potent chronic effect

A

B. Potent acute effect and weak chronic effect

23
Q
Which of the following conditions would cause the greatest increase in minute ventilation in a normal adult?
A.	Hypercapnia
B.	Acidosis
C.	Hypercapnia and acidosis
D.	Alkalosis
E.	Hypercapnia and Alkalosis
A

C. Hypercapnia and acidosis

24
Q
The peripheral chemoreceptors found the carotid and aortic bodies are sensitive to 
A.	Hypercapnia
B.	Hypocapnia
C.	Hypoxia
D.	Acidosis
E.	Alkalosis
A

C. Hypoxia

25
Q

The following blood gas results represent:
(pH 7.24; pCO2 34; pO2 175; Bicarb 16; B.E. -5)
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
E. Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis

A

C. Metabolic Acidosis

26
Q

Which of the following needs to be intubated:
A. Child with severe epiglottitis
B. Elderly patient with respiratory rate of 34 and using accessory muscles
C. Patient with burns of the airway
D. ABG shows pO2 65 & pCO2 of 67 on FiO2 of 0.8
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

27
Q
The severity of obstructive lung disease like COPD is best revealed by which test:
A.	CT of the chest
B.	Total lung capacity
C.	Chest X-Ray
D.	FEV-1 second
E.	Pulse Oximetry
A

D. FEV-1 second

28
Q

Which PFT result would indicate a high-risk patient:
A. FEV-1 of 1.7L
B. spO2 of 97% on RA
C. FEV1/FVC of 0.7
D. ABG of pH 7.38/CO2 52/02 91/Bicarb 27/BE +2 on RA
E. Chest Xray showing small areas of atelectasis at the lung base

A

A. FEV-1 of 1.7L

29
Q

The following blood gas results represent:
(pH 7.25 / pCO2 217/ Bicarb 28/ BE +2)
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
E. Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis

A

A. Respiratory Acidosis

30
Q
Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency predisposes a patient to this disease:
A.	Smoking
B.	Bronchitis
C.	Asthma
D.	Emphysema
E.	Pneumonia
A

D. Emphysema*

31
Q
What is the main symptom of emphysema
A.	Sputum production
B.	Syncope
C.	Cough
D.	Fever
E.	Progressive dyspnea
A

E. Progressive dyspnea

32
Q

How does nicotine stimulate the sympathetic nervous system
A. Vagal nerve stimulation
B. Increased goblet cell production
C. Release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla
D. Initiates inflammatory response
E. GABA Receptor Activation

A

C. Release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla*

33
Q
What are the two main components of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):
A.	Seasonal allergies ; bronchitis
B.	Bronchitis ; laryngospasm
C.	Asthma ; Bronchitis
D.	Asthma ; pneumonia
E.	Emphysema ; bronchitis
A

E. Emphysema & bronchitis

34
Q
What is the classic triad of symptoms with asthma:
A.	Cough, headache, rhinorrhea
B.	Wheeze, cough, dyspnea
C.	Fever, increased EtCO2, cough
D.	Dyspnea, fever, laryngospasm
E.	Wheeze, sneeze, gag
A

B. Wheeze, cough, dyspnea

35
Q
What is the most important property of an inhaled agent that determines the rate of induction and emergence
A.	Solubility 
B.	Molecular weight
C.	Color
D.	Pungency
E.	Boiling Point
A

A. Solubility

36
Q

Which patient has the highest MAC requirement:
A. 19yr old pregnant patient for appendectomy
B. 81 yo male for tracheostomy
C. 40 yo male with hyperthyroidism for cholecystectomy
D. 6 mo male for tonsillectomy
E. 37 yo female for laporoscopic cholecystectomy

A

D. 6 mo male for tonsillectomy

37
Q
Which of the following decreases a patient’s MAC requirement:
A.	Chronic alcohol abuse
B.	Hypothyroidism
C.	Obesity
D.	Hyperthyroidism
E.	Elderly
A

E. Elderly

38
Q
What is the correct order of MAC values (most potent to least potent) for the following volatile anesthetic agents:
A.	SEVO/DES/ISO/HAL
B.	HAL/ISO/SEVO/DES 
C.	SEVO/HAL/ISO/DES
D.	DES/HAL/SEVO/ISO
E.	ISO/HAL/SEVO/DES
A

B. HAL/ISO/SEVO/DES

39
Q
This agent can react with soda lime to form Compound A, so fresh gas flows should be kept at least 2L/Min
A.	Iso
B.	Hal
C.	Sevo
D.	Des
E.	N20
A

C. Sevo

40
Q
While under general anesthesia with a muscle relaxant in the lateral position, ventilation favors which lung (assume no surgical changes).
A.	Both lungs ventilate equally
B.	Both lungs perfuse equally
C.	The nondependent lung
D.	The right lung has 3 lobes
E.	The dependent lung
A

C. The nondependent lung

41
Q
This is the standard treatment of an episode of malignant hyperthermia:
A.	Propofol
B.	Diltiazem
C.	Dantrolene 
D.	Diazepam
E.	Acetaminophen
A

C. Dantrolene *

42
Q
What is the most specific sign of malignant hyperthermia
A.	Increasing end-tidal CO2
B.	Fever
C.	Hypotension
D.	Desaturation
E.	Tachycardia
A

A. Increasing end-tidal CO2

43
Q
All are triggers for malignant hyperthermia EXCEPT:
A.	Desflurane
B.	Succinylcholine
C.	Sevoflurane
D.	Propofol
E.	Isoflurane
A

D. Propofol

44
Q
This receptor fails in malignant hyperthermia resulting in a large increase in the intracellular concentration of calcium in the myocyte:
A.	Serotonin
B.	Ryanodine
C.	Mu
D.	Gaba
E.	Acetylcholine
A

B. Ryanodine

45
Q
What are the normal venous blood partial pressures when breathing room air in a healthy adult
A.	PO2 40 & PC02 45 
B.	PO2 150 & PCO2 45
C.	PO2 28 & PCO2 75
D.	PO2 80 & PCO2 45
E.	PO2 100 & PCO2 40
A

A. PO2 40 & PC02 45