Study Deck Flashcards
Learn about AWS
Which statement best describes an Availability Zone
A) A fully isolated portion of the AWS global infrastructure
B) A site that Amazon CloudFront uses to cache copies of content for faster delivery to users at any location
C) The server from which Amazon CloudFront gets your files
D) A separate geographical location with multiple locations that are isolated from each other
A) A fully isolated portion of the AWS global infrastructure
An Availability Zone is a single data center or a group of data centers within a Region.
Availability Zones are located tens of miles apart from each other. This helps them to provide interconnectivity to support the services and applications that run within a Region.
Which compute option reduces costs when you commit to a consistent amount of compute usage for a 1-year or 3-year term?
A) Spot Instances
B) Dedicated Hosts
C) Savings Plans
D) Reserved Instances
C) Savings Plans
Amazon EC2 Savings Plans enable you to reduce your compute costs by committing to a consistent amount of compute usage for a 1-year or 3-year term. This results in savings of up to 72% over On-Demand Instance costs. Any usage up to the commitment is charged at the discounted Savings Plan rate (for example, $10 an hour). Any usage beyond the commitment is charged at regular On-Demand Instance rates.
Which service is used to quickly deploy and scale applications on AWS?
A) AWS Outposts
B) AWS Elastic Beanstalk
C) AWS Snowball
D) Amazon Cloud Front
B) AWS Elastic Beanstalk
You upload your application, and Elastic Beanstalk automatically handles the deployment details of capacity provisioning, load balancing, auto-scaling, and application health monitoring.
Which tool enables you to visualize, understand, and manage your AWS costs and usage over time?
A) AWS Pricing Calculator
B) AWS Budgets
C) AWS Cost Explorer
D) AWS Artifact
C) AWS Cost Explorer
With AWS Cost Explorer, you can quickly create custom reports to analyze your AWS cost and usage data.
Which statement best describes Amazon GuardDuty?
A) A service that lets you monitor network requests that come into your web applications
B) A service that checks applications for security vulnerabilities and deviations from security best practices
C) A service that provides intelligent threat detection for your AWS infrastructure and resources
D) A service that helps protect your applications against distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks
C) A service that provides intelligent threat detection for your AWS infrastructure and resources
AWS GuardDuty identifies threats by continually monitoring the network activity and account behavior within your AWS environment.
You want to store data in a key-value database. Which service should you use?
A) Amazon Aurora
B) Amazon RDS
C) Amazon DynamoDB
D) Amazon Document DB
C) Amazon DynamoDB
Amazon DynamoDB is a key-value database service. A key-value database might include data pairs such as “Name: John Doe,” “Address: 123 Any Street,” and “City: Anytown”.
You want to send and receive messages between distributed application components. Which service should you use?
A) Amazon ElastiCache
B) AWS Snowball
C) Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)
D) Amazon Route 53
C) Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)
Amazon SQS is a message queuing service. Using Amazon SQS, you can send, store, and receive messages between software components at any volume size, without losing messages or requiring other services to be available.
In the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class, Amazon S3 moves objects between a frequent access tier and an infrequent access tier. Which storage classes are used for these tiers? (Select TWO.)
A) S3 Glacier B) S3 One Zone-IA C) S3 Standard D) S3 Glacier Deep Archive E) S3 Standard-IA
C) S3 Standard
E) S3 Standard-IA
In the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class, Amazon S3 monitors objects’ access patterns. If you haven’t accessed an object for 30 consecutive days, Amazon S3 automatically moves it to the infrequent access tier, S3 Standard-IA. If you access an object in the infrequent access tier, Amazon S3 automatically moves it to the frequent access tier, S3 Standard.
Which service is used to transfer up to 100 PB of data to AWS? A) Amazon CloudFront B) AWS Snowmobile C) AWS DeepRacer D) Amazon Neptune
B) AWS Snowmobile
AWS Snowmobile is a service that is used for transferring up to 100 PB of data to AWS. Each Snowmobile is a 45-foot long shipping container that is pulled by a semi-trailer truck. It can transfer up to 100 PB of data.
Which tasks are the responsibilities of AWS? (Select TWO.)
A) Creating IAM users and groups
B) Training company employees on how to use AWS services
C) Configuring AWS infrastructure devices
D) Configuring security groups on Amazon EC2 instances
E) Maintaining virtualization infrastructure
C) Configuring AWS infrastructure devices
E) Maintaining virtualization infrastructure
The other three response options are tasks that are the responsibilities of customers.
Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework focuses on using computing resources in ways that meet system requirements?
A)Security
B)Reliability
C)Performance Efficiency
D)Operational Excellence
C)Performance Efficiency
The Performance Efficiency pillar focuses on using computing resources efficiently to meet system requirements, and to maintain that efficiency as demand changes and technologies evolve.
Which service is used to run containerized applications on AWS?
A) Amazon Aurora
B) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)
C) Amazon SageMaker
D) Amazon Redshift
B) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)
Amazon EKS is a fully managed service that you can use to run Kubernetes on AWS. Kubernetes is open-source software that enables you to deploy and manage containerized applications at scale.
Containers provide you with a standard way to package your application’s code and dependencies into a single object. Containers are frequently used for processes and workflows in which there are essential requirements for security, reliability, and scalability.
Which Support plans include access to all AWS Trusted Advisor checks? (Select TWO.)
A)Developer B) Business C) AWS Free Tier D) Basic E) Enterprise
B) Business
E) Enterprise
The other response options are incorrect because:
The Basic and Developer Support plans provide access to a limited selection of AWS Trusted Advisor checks.
The AWS Free Tier is not a Support plan. It is a program that consists of three types of offers that allow customers to use AWS services without incurring costs: Always free, 12 months free, and Trials.
Which virtual private cloud (VPC) component controls inbound and outbound traffic for Amazon EC2 instances?
A) Network access control list
B) Internet gateway
C) Subnet
D) Security group
D) Security group
A security group is a virtual firewall that controls inbound and outbound traffic for an Amazon EC2 instance.
By default, a security group denies all inbound traffic and allows all outbound traffic. You can add custom rules to configure which traffic should be allowed or denied.
Which action can you perform in Amazon CloudFront?
A)Provision an isolated section of the AWS Cloud to launch resources in a virtual network that you define.
B) Provision resources by using programming languages or a text file.
C)Deliver content to customers through a global network of edge locations.
D) Run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach.
C)Deliver content to customers through a global network of edge locations.
It uses a network of edge locations to cache content and deliver content to customers all over the world. When content is cached, it is stored locally as a copy. This content might be video files, photos, webpages, and so on.
Which statement best describes Elastic Load Balancing?
A) A service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances
B) A service that monitors your applications and automatically adds or removes capacity from your resource groups in response to changing demand
C) A service that provides data that you can use to monitor your applications, optimize resource utilization, and respond to system-wide performance changes
D) A service that enables you to set up, manage, and scale a distributed in-memory or cache environment in the cloud
A) A service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances
A load balancer acts as a single point of contact for all incoming web traffic to your Auto Scaling group. This means that as Amazon EC2 instances are added or removed in response to the amount of incoming traffic, these requests are routed to the load balancer first and then spread across multiple resources that will handle them.
Which service enables you to consolidate and manage multiple AWS accounts from a central location?
A) AWS Organizations
B) AWS Artifact
C) AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
D) AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS)
A) AWS Organizations
In AWS Organizations, you can centrally control permissions for the accounts in your organization by using service control policies (SCPs). Additionally, you can use the consolidated billing feature in AWS Organizations to combine usage and receive a single bill for multiple AWS accounts.
Which actions can you perform in Amazon Route 53? (Select TWO.)
A) Connect user requests to infrastructure in AWS and outside of AWS.
B) Monitor your applications and respond to system-wide performance changes.
C) Automate the deployment of workloads into your AWS environment.
D) Manage DNS records for domain names.
E) Access AWS security and compliance reports and select online agreements
A) Connect user requests to infrastructure in AWS and outside of AWS.
D) Manage DNS records for domain names.
Amazon Route 53 is a DNS web service. It gives developers and businesses a reliable way to route end users to internet applications that are hosted in AWS.
Additionally, you can transfer DNS records for existing domain names that are currently managed by other domain registrars, or register new domain names directly within Amazon Route 53.
You are running an Amazon EC2 instance and want to store data in an attached resource. Your data is temporary and will not be kept long term. Which resource should you use?
A) Instance store
B) Subnet
C) Amazon S3 bucket
D) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume
A) Instance store
Instance stores are ideal for temporary data that does not need to be kept long term.
When an Amazon EC2 instance is stopped or terminated, all the data that has been written to the attached instance store is deleted.
Which migration strategy involves changing how an application is architected and developed, typically by using cloud-native features?
A) Refactoring
B) Replatforming
C) Rehosting
D) Repurchasing
A) Refactoring
Repurchasing involves replacing an existing application with a cloud-based version, such as software found in AWS Marketplace.
Rehosting involves moving an application to the cloud with little to no modifications to the application itself. It is also known as “lift and shift.”
Replatforming involves selectively optimizing aspects of an application to achieve benefits in the cloud without changing the core architecture of the application. It is also known as “lift, tinker, and shift.”
Which AWS Trusted Advisor category includes checks for your service limits and overutilized instances?
A) Security
B) Performance
C) Fault Tolerance
D) Cost Optimization
B) Performance
In this category, AWS Trusted Advisor also helps improve the performance of your services by providing recommendations for how to take advantage of provisioned throughput
Which service enables you to build the workflows that are required for human review of machine learning predictions?
A) Amazon Augmented AI
B) Amazon Aurora
C) Amazon Textract
D) Amazon Lex
A) Amazon Augmented AI
Amazon Augmented AI (Amazon A2I) provides built-in human review workflows for common machine learning use cases, such as content moderation and text extraction from documents. With Amazon A2I, you can also create your own workflows for machine learning models built on Amazon SageMaker or any other tools
You want Amazon S3 to monitor your objects’ access patterns. Which storage class should you use?
A) S3 Standard-IA
B) S3 Glacier
C) S3 Intelligent-Tiering
D) S3 One Zone-IA
C) S3 Intelligent-Tiering
In the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class, Amazon S3 monitors objects’ access patterns. If you haven’t accessed an object for 30 consecutive days, Amazon S3 automatically moves it to the infrequent access tier, S3 Standard-IA. If you access an object in the infrequent access tier, Amazon S3 automatically moves it to the frequent access tier, S3 Standard.
Which statement is TRUE for AWS Lambda?
A) The first step in using AWS Lambda is provisioning a server.
B) Before using AWS Lambda, you must prepay for your estimated compute time.
C) You pay only for compute time while your code is running.
D) To use AWS Lambda, you must configure the servers that run your code.
C) You pay only for compute time while your code is running.
AWS Lambda is a service that lets you run code without needing to provision or manage servers.
While using AWS Lambda, you pay only for the compute time that you consume. You are charged only when your code is running. With AWS Lambda, you can run code for virtually any type of application or backend service, all with zero administration.
Which component or service enables you to establish a dedicated private connection between your data center and virtual private cloud (VPC)?
A) Amazon CloudFront
B) AWS Direct Connect
C) Internet gateway
D) Virtual private gateway
B) AWS Direct Connect
AWS Direct Connect is a service that enables you to establish a dedicated private connection between your data center and VPC.
The private connection that AWS Direct Connect provides helps you to reduce network costs and increase the amount of bandwidth that can travel through your network
You want to store data in a volume that is attached to an Amazon EC2 instance. Which service should you use?
A) AWS Lambda
B) Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)
C) Amazon ElastiCache
D) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
D) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
Amazon EBS provides block-level storage volumes that you can use with Amazon EC2 instances. If you stop or terminate an Amazon EC2 instance, all the data on the attached EBS volume remains available.
Which statement best describes AWS Marketplace?
A) A resource that provides guidance, architectural reviews, and ongoing communication with your company as you plan, deploy, and optimize your applications
B) A resource that can answer questions about best practices and assist with troubleshooting issues
C) A digital catalog that includes thousands of software listings from independent software vendors
D) An online tool that inspects your AWS environment and provides real-time guidance in accordance with AWS best practices
C) A digital catalog that includes thousands of software listings from independent software vendors
You can use AWS Marketplace to find, test, and buy software that runs on AWS.
Which service enables you to review details for user activities and API calls that have occurred within your AWS environment?
A) AWS CloudTrail
B) AWS Trusted Advisor
C) Amazon CloudWatch
D) Amazon Inspector
A) AWS CloudTrail
With CloudTrail, you can view a complete history of user activity and API calls for your applications and resources.
Events are typically updated in CloudTrail within 15 minutes after an API call was made. You can filter events by specifying the time and date that an API call occurred, the user who requested the action, the type of resource that was involved in the API call, and more.
Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework focuses on recovering IT workloads to meet the requirements of your business stakeholders?
A) Operations Perspective
B) Governance Perspective
C) People Perspective
D) Business Perspective
A) Operations Perspective
The Operations Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework also includes principles for operating in the cloud by using agile best practices.
Which tool is used to automate actions for AWS services and applications through scripts?
A) AWS Snowball
B) Amazon Redshift
C) AWS Command Line Interface
D) Amazon QLDB
C) AWS Command Line Interface
The AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI) enables you to control multiple AWS services directly from the command line within one tool. For example, you can use commands to start an Amazon EC2 instance, connect an Amazon EC2 instance to a specific Auto Scaling group, and more. The AWS CLI is available for users on Windows, macOS, and Linux.
What is Cloud computing according to amazon
On demand delivery of IT resources over the internet with pay as you go pricing
What are the 3 kinds of deployments of cloud computing?
Cloud-Based Deployments
On-Premises Deployment
Hybrid deployment
What are aspects of a cloud based deployment
All parts of an app run in the cloud, as well as future design and development being done in the cloud
What are the aspects of an on-premises deployment
Deploy resources on site by using virtualization and resource management tool. Increases resource utilization by using app management and virtualization technologies.
AKA private cloud deployment
I like to think of it as adding a layer of cloud virtualization to existing hardware to better manage resources
What are the aspects of Hybrid deployment
Connect cloud-based resources to on-premises infrastructure. Its like hooking up existing hardware to AWS to benefit from cloud computing
What are the 6 benefits of cloud computing with Amazon
- Trade upfront expense for variable expense
(Dont have to pay for a data center,servers,etc) - Stop spending money to run and maintain data centers
(Less time spent on management) - Stop guessing capacity
(AWS scales to your needs) - Benefit from massive economies of scale
(So many people are using AWS it costs less) - Increase speed and agility
(new resources can be created in a few clicks) - Go global in minutes
Describe EC2 instances
They are virtual servers run on physical machines. EC2 instances can run a multitude of different software and services and can be scaled up to meet your needs.
What are the 5 types of EC2 instances
General Purpose Compute Optimized Memory Optimized Accelerated Computing Storage Optimized
What are the characteristics of a general purpose EC2 instance?
Balances computing, memory and networking resources.
Good for webservices, code repos, game servers and small - medium databases
What are the characteristics of a Compute Optimized EC2 instance?
Ideal for compute-bound applications that benefit from high-performance processors.
What are the characteristics of a Memory Optimized EC2 instance?
Created with a lot of memory, ideally for processing large datasets in memory. Ideal for high-performance databases
What are the characteristics of a Accelerated Computing EC2 instance?
Uses hardware accelerators or coprocessors to perform functions more efficiently than is possible running on CPUs. Good for floating-point number calculations, graphic processing etc
What are the characteristics of a Storage Optimized EC2 instance?
Prioritizes workloads that require high, sequential read and write access to large databases. Designed to handle tens of thousands of input/output operations per second
What are the 5 EC2 pricing categories and what are they for
On-Demand
(Standard pay-as- you go category)
EC2 Savings Plan
(A 1 or 3 year plan that limits your computing usage for a lower price, if you go above what is described in your plan you are charged on-demand rate)
Reserved Instances
(A discount applied to the On-Demand instances. Think of it as a safety net if you go over on a savings plan. can have 1 to 3 year plans for instances)
Spot Instances
(Instances that can be started or stopped by AWS if they need the processing power.)
Dedicated Hosts
(Physical servers dedicated for your exclusive use.)
Define Scaling Up
Making components larger or faster to handle bigger loads
Define Scaling out
Adding more components in parallel to spread out a large load
What does the AWS Elastic Load Balancing do?
Distributes incoming traffic across multiple resources
What services help you avoid a monolithic application and how?
Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS) and Simple Queue Service (SQS)
SNS allows you to set up individual app components as subscribers that can send and receive notifications.
SQS allows you to actually send, store and receive messages.
This setup allows each component to do its own thing without waiting for other components to send requests or come back online if they die
What is a container?
Containers package your app’s code and all of its dependencies into a single object.
What are some of the services that deal with containers?
Amazon Elastic Container Service - a container management system
Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service - Allows you to deploy and manage containerized apps
AWS Fargate - A serverless compute engine for containers (makes containers serverless)
What is a Region?
A geographic location with Amazon datacenters to run your app out of.
What are the 4 considerations of selecting a region
Compliance with data governance and legal requirements
Proximity to customers
Available services in a region
Pricing - Not all regions cost the same
What is an availability zone
1 or many datacenters within a region. They are close enough to ensure low latency within the region, but far enough away to not be taken out by a natural disaster
Does Elastic Load Balancing work across Regions?
Yes
What are edge locations and what do they do? Bonus points for what AWS service uses them
Edge Locations are sites that CloudFront uses to store cached copies of your content outside your region. This allows people far from your region a closer copy of your content to retrieve.
What are the 5 utilities to setup an AWS resource?
AWS Management Console
AWS Command line interface (CLI)
Developer SDK
AWS Elastic Beanstalk - Allows you to deploy resources with code
AWS CloudFormation - Treats infrastructure as code
What is a Virtual Private cloud (VPC)?
A networking service that allows you to set boundaries and your AWS resources and limit access to them
What is a subnet?
A section of a VPC that can group resources based on security or operational needs.
What security feature acts as a firewall at the subnet level?
The network Access Control List
What is a Security Group?
A firewall that controls inbound & outbound traffic for an EC2 instance.
Which security feature is stateless and what does that mean?
Access Control lists are stateless and that means they don’t remember any network packets that they have already checked, so they check it incoming and outgoing. Security groups are stateful meaning they will only check a packet the first time they encounter it.
What is Amazon Route 53 and what does it do?
Route 53 is Amazon’s domain name service (DNS) manager. It lets you register and manage domain names and route users to your applications.
What other service does Route 53 work with to use edge locations
CloudFront
What is the differences between Instance Stores and Elastic Block Stores (EBS)
An Instance store only retains data while an EC2 instance is active, while EBS survives after the EC2 instance is terminated.
Does an Elastic Block Stores instance scale automatically?
No
Describe Object level storage and Block level storage?
In object level storage any given item of data (file, directory whatever) is considered an object complete with metadata and a key. When an object is changed it is completely overwritten. Block level storage splits an item into equal blocks of data, and when one is altered then the only change happens and is saved only the blocks affected are overwritten.
What are the 6 storage classes of Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3)?
S3 Standard
S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard-IA)
S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (One Zone-IA or Standard One Zone-IA)
S3 Intelligent-Tiering
S3 Glacier
S3 Glacier Deep Archive
How many availability zones does S3 standard store data in at minium?
3
How often should data put in an S3 standard bucket be accessed?
Frequently
What does S3 intelligent-Tiering do?
Intelligent-Tiering moves data between multiple access tiers depending on if a user has accessed it or not.
How long does data have to go un-accessed on the frequent tier before S3 intelligent-Tiering moves the data to in infrequently accessed tier?
30 days
What is S3 Glacier?
S3 Glacier is a data storage option meant for long term infrequently accessed information. It is mostly used for data archiving and is able to retrieve objects within a few minutes or hours.
What is S3 Glacier Deep Archive?
Deep Archive is like regular glacier but costs less and retrieval time is about 12 hours.
In what situations would you use Elastic Block storage over Amazon S3?
You would use EBS when you had a lot of writes and edits, and S3 if you were making more reads but not a lot of writes.
What are some of the aspects of Amazon Elastic File System?
Uses block storage with a local file system
Clients access data through file paths
Scales automatically
Can scale up to petabytes without disruption
What are the scopes of Elastic Block Storage and Elastic File System? (Do they cover regions, AZs etc)
EBS is only available to an EC2 instance it is attached to at the same availability zone. EFS is available to any instance within a region, and can also be used by on-premises servers.
What are some of the advantages to using Amazon RDS over a traditional relational database system?
Amazon RDS automates provisioning, setup, patching, and backups. Integrates with other services (like Lambda) and is compatible with multiple flavors of SQL
What is Amazon Aurora?
Aurora is Amazons relational database engine. It is compatible with MySQL and PostgreSQL, is faster than either of the previously mentioned database (5x faster than MySQL and 3x faster)
How many availability zones does Aurora replicate across?
3
Where does Aurora keep its automatic backups?
S3 bucket
