Study Cards Flashcards
Put Debit spread on options is:
Investor purchased the one with the higher strike price (higher premium)
Put Credit spread on options is:
investor sold the one with the higher strike price
Call Debit spread on options is:
investor purchased the one with the lower strike price (higher premium)
Call Credit spread on options is:
investor sold the one with the lower strike price (higher premium)
Company is going public for the first time. Proceeds from an offering are paid to the issuer.
I.P.O. (initial public offering)
Company has already gone public and is issuing additional shares. Proceeds from the offering are paid to the issuer.
Additional Public Offering (A.P.O.)
Covered put writing is a strategy where an investor
A)
sells a put and buys a call on the same stock.
B)
sells a put on a stock that he owns.
C)
sells a put and sells a call on the same stock.
D)
sells a put on a stock he has sold short.
D) sells a put on a stock he has sold short.
Explanation
The first thing to remember is that option sellers have an obligation. In the case of a call writer, the obligation is to deliver the underlying stock. However in the case of a put (our question), the obligation is to pay for stock delivered. A seller of an option would be covered if he has whatever it is he is obligated for.
If you sell a put and the option is exercised by the holder, meeting the obligation requires having sufficient cash to purchase the stock being put to you. Owning the shares would not help you meet your obligation; you need cash. You would be covered if you have cash available to cover the purchase. One way is a deposit of cash at the time the put is written. Alternatively, if you sell 100 shares short for each put sold, you would have cash from the short sale that could be used to cover the obligation to buy the stock at the strike price. Notice that selling a put is bullish; the short stock position is bearish.
An easy way to eliminate answer choices is to remember that hedging involves a stock position and an option position that are opposite in sentiment. Notice that the sentiments associated with the answer choice “sells a put on a stock that he owns” doesn’t work because a long stock position is bullish and selling a put is bullish. Therefore, this answer can be eliminated.
To prove the point, let’s look at the other side. If you sell a call, you are obligated to sell shares of stock. You would be covered if you already owned the shares. Notice that selling a call is bearish and owning the stock is bullish.
LO 9.f
An investor buys 2 LMN 40 calls and pays a premium of 4 each. The investor also buys 2 LMN 40 puts and pays a premium of 2.50 each. At the time of purchase, LMN is trading at $40.75. On the expiration date, LMN is trading at $32.50. If the investor closes her position for its intrinsic value, excluding commissions, the investor realizes
A)
a $100 profit.
B)
a $100 loss.
C)
a $200 profit.
D)
a $200 loss.
C.) $200 profit
Explanation
Closing out a position is the opposite of the opening transaction. In this situation, the investor opened by buying two calls for a total of $800 and closed them out by selling for their intrinsic value. (Calls have intrinsic value when the market value is above the strike price; in this situation, there is no intrinsic value.) The investor also bought two puts for a total of $500 and closed them out by selling for their intrinsic value of $1,500. (Puts have intrinsic value when the market value is below the strike price; in this situation, the intrinsic value is $7.50 per contract, or 40 − 32.50 = 7.5 × 2 = 15 × 100 shares = $1,500.) The resulting profit on the position is $200 ($1,500 − $1,300), the total of the premiums paid for all of the options.
LO 9.i
If a registered options principal is asked to approve a discretionary order to buy 1 XYZ Oct 60 put and sell 1 XYZ Oct 55 put for a net debit of $5, he should
A)
approve the order if the customer has sufficient funds in her accounts.
B)
not approve the order.
C)
approve the order in writing.
D)
obtain the best execution for the order.
B.) Not approve the order
Explanation
Because this is a debit spread, the maximum gain occurs if both sides are exercised. If this occurs, the investor earns $5 (buys stock at 55 when the short put is exercised and sells stock at 60 by exercising the long put). Because the net premium paid for the spread is $5, there can never be any gain. This spread is not economical.
A customer wrote 1 XYZ Sep 45 put at 6 and 1 XYZ Sep 35 call at 6 when XYZ was at 40. Before expiration, if XYZ was at 43, and the customer closed her positions at intrinsic value, the customer has
A)
a $600 loss.
B)
a $200 loss.
C)
a $200 gain.
D)
a $600 gain.
C) a $200 gain.
Explanation
We first identify the position. This is a short combination. The investor sold a put and sold a call on the same stock, but at different strike prices. If the prices and expiration dates were the same, it would be a straddle. When the customer begins the position by selling options, the action is an opening sale. That is, the position was opened by selling an option (in this case, two options). The customer collects $1,200 in premiums for writing the options (6 + 6). The question says the positions were closed at the intrinsic value. You close an opening sale with a closing purchase. That is, the customer buys back the option(s) that were sold. In this case, the price is $200 (45 − 43) to close out the put and $800 to close out the call (43 − 35). Determining gain or loss is simply comparing the $1,200 received to the $1,000 paid and that results in a gain of $200.
The T-chart looks like this:
Debit ($ out) Credit ($ in)
$200 (put) $600 (Sep 45 put)
$800 (call) $600 (Sep 35 call)
$1,000 $1,200
LO 9.b
Several months ago, one of your customers purchased one RMBN Apr 130 put at a premium of 5. If the common stock of RMBN is currently trading at 123 and the RMBN Apr 130 put is trading at 9, it would be correct to state that the premium represents
A)
no intrinsic value and time value of 4.
B)
intrinsic value of 4 and no time value.
C)
intrinsic value of 2 and time value of 7.
D)
intrinsic value of 7 and time value of 2.
D) intrinsic value of 7 and time value of 2.
Explanation
The option is in the money by 7 points because the strike price is 130 and the market price is down to 123. The difference between that intrinsic value of 7 and the actual premium of 9 represents the time value of 2. The price the customer paid for the option has nothing to do with the question. It would be relevant if the question stated that the customer sold the option and asked for the gain or loss.
LO 9.b
If a customer buys 1 XYZ Aug 50 put at 1 and sells 1 XYZ Aug 65 put at 10 when XYZ is at 58, what is the maximum risk?
A)
$900
B)
$1,500
C)
$600
D)
$100
C) $600
This is a credit spread. The maximum loss is the difference between the strike prices and the net credit. In this example, the strike price difference is 15 (65 – 50) and the net premium is 9 (10 − 1), or 15 − 9 = 6 × $100 = $600 maximum loss. The maximum gain is the net credit of $900. Credit put spreads are bullish (buy the low strike, sell the high strike). If the stock’s price should rise above $65 per share, both options expire worthless (who wants to sell stock at $50 or $65 when the price is above that). If the investor is wrong and the stock price falls below $50, the short put will be exercised and the investor will have to buy the stock at $65 per share. Now that the stock is owned, it can be used to exercise the long put and be sold at $50 per share. That $15 difference between the 50 and 65 strikes is the largest spread possible. Comparing the loss of $1,500 to the initial credit of $900 proves that the maximum risk of loss is $600.
LO 9.f
Your customer sells short FGH at 79 and pays $3 for an FGH 80 call. What is the breakeven and maximum loss?
A)
The breakeven is $83, and the maximum loss is $300.
B)
The breakeven is $82, and the maximum loss is $300.
C)
The breakeven is $76, and the maximum loss is $400.
D)
The breakeven is $77, and the maximum loss is $400.
C) The breakeven is $76, and the maximum loss is $400.
Explanation
The breakeven point for the short stock, long call position is the short sale price minus the premium paid ($79 – $3 = $76). The maximum loss will occur at the strike price for the long calls and the short stock. If the stock rises to $80, the customer loses $1 on the short sale and loses $3 on the option for a total of a $400 loss.
LO 9.e
If a customer buys 1 XYZ Aug 50 put at 1 and sells 1 XYZ Aug 65 put at 10 when XYZ is at 58, the maximum potential gain is
A)
$900.
B)
$1,500.
C)
$600.
D)
$1,100.
A) $900.
Explanation
The maximum gain on any credit spread is the net credit. In this case, $1,000 was received, and $100 was paid out, so the net credit is $900.
LO 9.f
In a bull call spread, an investor
buys the lower exercise price and sells the higher exercise price.
buys the higher exercise price and sells the lower exercise price.
anticipates the spread will narrow.
anticipates the spread will widen.
A)
I and IV
B)
I and III
C)
II and IV
D)
II and III
A) I and IV
Explanation
In a bull call spread (debit spread), a call with a lower strike price is purchased and a call with a higher strike price is sold. Because the long call has a lower strike price than the short call, it is more expensive, resulting in a net debit. In a bull call spread, the investor hopes the market prices rise. Maximum profit occurs if both calls are exercised, and because this is a debit spread, the spread is profitable if it widens.
LO 9.f
Intrinsic value calculation:
CMV-strike price (As long as it is >0)
If MCS is trading at 43 and the MCS Apr 40 call is trading at 4.50, what is the intrinsic value and the time value of the call premium?
A) Intrinsic value 4.50, time value 0
B)
Intrinsic value 3, time value 1.50
C)
Intrinsic value 1.50, time value 3
D)
Intrinsic value 3, time value 4.50
B)
Intrinsic value 3, time value 1.50
Explanation
The option is in the money by three points (the strike price on the call is 40 and the market price is 43). Because the actual premium is 4.50, the balance of 1.50 represents time value. Remember P – I = T (Premium minus intrinsic value equals the time value).
LO 9.b
Which of the following securities underlies a yield-based option?
A)
Income bonds
B)
Treasury securities
C)
Revenue bonds
D)
Debentures
B)
Treasury securities
Explanation
Yield-based interest rate options are based on the yields of Treasury bills, notes, and bonds.
LO 9.h
investors want a debit spread to __________
widen
investors want a credit spread to __________
narrow
If an investor buys a Jan 30 XYZ call for 4 and sells a Jan 35 call for 2, to become profitable, the spread between the prices of the two options must
A)
narrow.
B)
remain the same.
C)
widen.
D)
fluctuate.
C) widen
Explanation
This is a debit spread. A debit spread is profitable when the difference between the premiums widens. A debit spread is closed as a credit, and to be profitable, the credit must be larger than the opening debit.
LO 9.f
If a customer is long 1 ABC Oct 50 call at 11 and short 2 ABC Oct 60 calls at 5, the maximum loss potential is
A)
unlimited.
B)
$1,100.
C)
$100.
D)
$1,000.
A)
unlimited.
Explanation
The customer is short two calls and long one call, leaving one of the short calls uncovered. The loss potential for a naked call writer is unlimited on the upside. If exercised, the writer must buy the stock at the current market price so it will be delivered at the strike price.
LO 9.c
If a Japanese exporter wants to hedge a recent sale of stereo equipment to a U.S. buyer, and the exporter will be paid in U.S. dollars upon delivery of the goods, the best hedge would be to
A)
sell Japanese yen calls.
r
B)
buy Japanese yen calls.
C)
buy Japanese yen puts.
D)
sell Japanese yen puts.
B)
buy Japanese yen calls.
Explanation
The Japanese exporter will be paid in U.S. dollars upon delivery of the equipment. He would be adversely affected if the dollar dropped in value in relation to the yen. To protect his position, he should buy calls on his own currency—the yen. Then if the yen appreciates, his loss on the dollar is offset by his gain on the calls. Exporters buy puts on foreign currency to hedge, but there are no options on the U.S. dollar. The next best strategy is to buy calls on the home currency.
LO 9.h
Safest hedging method for a short sale:
Buying a call