Study Cards Flashcards

1
Q

What is the APGAR test? What does it measure?

A

Evaluates health of baby based on appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who is Alfred Binet? Why is he important?

A

French psychologist. Introduced the idea of intelligence testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an operational definition?

A

The exact way a construct is measured, and what qualifies something as being in/out of a given category

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an operational measure?

A

The exact way in which something is tested, and how it should always be tested (think procedure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a normative group?

A

Aka reference group. The sample of the population used to attain a base/average score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a normal distribution? What is it used for?

A

A distribution that, when mapped out, forms a bell curve. Depicting the mean, median, and mode as equal.
Used as the assumption of the layout of datasets in a group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are deviations?

A

The difference between the observed values and the mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What was the first version of the Binet-Simon intelligence test? What did results show?

A

A group of children were asked to perform a series of tasks to asses the knowledge they have acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What were Binet’s original concerns with his intelligence test?

A

That it would be misused, and that children who were behind would be labeled “idiots” and unteachable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some of Binet’s contributions to the natural and social sciences

A
  1. The development of scales of measurement
  2. The formal operationalization of constructs
  3. The development of non-verbal intelligence tests
  4. The proposal that intelligence is both acquired and innate
  5. The operationalization of terms and concepts
  6. The development of mental age
  7. The idea and use of normative groups
  8. Established the dominance of psychology in the field of testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who is Francis Galton? What did he contribute to psychology?

A

He was a psychologist who had a fascination with data collection and variability. He started the development of large scale data collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the law of error? Is it 100% true?

A

In any group or set of measurements, the outliers tend to cancel each other out, forming a normal distribution. It is not always true, but used as an assumption of truth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are distributions of error (deviations) and how do you calculate them?

A

A deviation shows how far, on a scale from -3 to +3, scores are away from the mean.
Observed score - mean = deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the first 3 principles of psychometrics?

A
  1. Defining and operationalizing is central to understanding if a claim is justifiable - always ask how a construct is measured and defined
  2. Variability exists everywhere - this is the essence of the law of error
  3. There is always a normative group - ask who is the sample and who created the sample
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does Anne Anastasi define a psychological test? Define the different aspects

A

An objective and standardized measure of a sample of behaviour
Objective: free of bias, clearly defined, little to no interpretation
Standardized: everyone gets the same test and is measured the same way
Sample of behaviour: This should be how they would act regularly, but the sample may not be representative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does Lee Cronbach define psychological tests? How does it compare to the aspects of Anastasi’s definition?

A

Psychological tests are a systematic procedure for comparing the behaviour of two people.
Systematic vs standardized and objective: Cronbach recognized that tests cannot be 100% objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is psychometrics according to Thurstone? (2 parts)

A

A construction of instruments and procedures for measurement
The development and refinement of theoretical approaches to measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a construct? And how do they relate to the definition of psychometrics?

A

A construct is any idea or concept we’d like to measure
A. Constructing tests to measure these constructs
B. The methods and approaches must be refined when measuring these constructs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 4th and 5th principles of psychometrics?

A
  1. Most (if not all) test questions, in any format, are imperfect indicators of the construct being measured
  2. Assigning numbers to data imposes a relationship among indicators that may not be justifiable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does it mean to measure something? What are the 4 main scales of measurement?

A

The assigning of numbers to individual scores in a systematic way, according to one or another rule or convention
1. Ratio
2. Interval
3. Nominal
4. Ordinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain the 4 main scales of measurement

A

Ratio: Equal intervals with a true zero
Interval: Equal intervals with NO true zero
Nominal: a categorical for, of organizing data
Ordinal: Determined rank or order, numbers have no value, intervals may be unequal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the 5th principle of psychometrics?

A

The leap of faith principle. By assigning numbers to data, you impose a relationship among indicators that might not be justifiable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does a distribution measure in psychometrics?

A

The performance of the entire test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 3 factors that ALWAYS affect variability?

A

Systematic effect, systematic bias, random effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is systematic effect?

A

It is the primary cause of the score. How much of the construct you have

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is systematic bias? Give an example

A

An affect that effects a subgroup. EX: a delayed train effects commuters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is random effect? Give an example

A

Random factors that affect the score of an individual, but have no relationship to the construct. EX: poor sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the difference between a formal and an operational definition?

A

A formal definition defines the construct for what it is while an operational definition defines how it is measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does Plato’s allegory of the cave help us understand constructs?

A

It captures the challenges we face when measuring constructs that cannot be directly seen. The shadows and they symptoms are observed and interpretations must be made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Novak’s classical test theory?

A

A persons true score is different from their observed score (due to error)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do you calculate true score (Novak)?

A

T= X +/- E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does Galton’s law of error play in classical test theory?

A

Error is just as likely to be positive as negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is item response theory?

A

An attempt to directly estimate an individual’s ‘true score’ by examining how individuals respond to questions - as a function of their ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does an item response graph show?

A

Shows the minimum required ability to get an answer correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is scientific model testing?

A

The evaluation of different approaches to find which one best explains the data in that case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does Ockham’s razor fit with scientific model testing?

A

When there are two theories that explain the data equally well, the most simple explanation is most often better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the definition of criterion validity?

A

Criterion validity is the correlating of scores with some external criterion that is relevant to the purpose of the test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is scale validation?

A

The methods used to test validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the features of scale validation according to Rulon?

A
  1. A test cannot be labeled as valid or invalid without respect to a given purpose
  2. Assessments of validity must include an assessment of the content of the instrument and its relation to the purpose
  3. Different forms of validity evidence are required for different types of instruments
  4. Some measures are obviously valid (face validity) and require no further study
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the 4 main domains of validity?

A
  1. Content validity
  2. Structural validity
  3. External validity
  4. Item validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 3 types of content validity?

A

1.Domain representativeness
2. Domain relevance
3. Face validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is content validity?

A

The content represented by the construct
The degree to which a test measures all aspects of a criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is domain representativeness?

A

The extent to which the questions/tasks/etc. measure the entire domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is domain relevance?

A

The extent to which the questions are relevant to assessing the construct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is inclusionary criteria?

A

The signs and symptoms that MUST be present to have the construct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is exclusionary criteria?

A

The signs and symptoms that CANNOT be present for the criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of validity includes inclusionary and exclusionary criteria? What is the interaction?

A

Domain relevance, these criteria are considered more important or more relevant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is face validity?

A

Whether the test APPEARS to measure a given construct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is structural validity?

A

The components that a test measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the 2 components of structural validity?

A
  1. Dimensionality
  2. Order
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is dimensionality?

A

The number of factors the questions can be attributed to (pieces of the cake)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is order?

A

The number of tiers that are needed to explain how the different factors are interrelated (layers of the cake)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the 4 factors of external validity

A
  1. Criterion validity
  2. Convergent and divergent validity
  3. Predictive validity
  4. Incremental validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is external validity?

A

The manner to which test scores are related to other constructs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is criterion validity?

A

The extent to which test scores on questionnaire are related to some other outcome or condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is convergent validity?

A

The degree to which it a measure is correlated with other measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is divergent validity?

A

The degree to which a measure does not correlate with other measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Explain the relationship chart of convergent and divergent validity?

A

Should converge: r>0.70 - good convergent validity, r<0.30 - poor convergent validity
Should diverge: r>0.70 - poor divergent validity, r<0.30 - good divergent validity
Anything in between is mild, and depends the theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does a multi-trait multi-method matrix show?

A

It shows the correlates of different traits and how well they converge to measure the same construct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How do you read the multi-trait multi-matrix table?

A

The traits are listed down the side and along the top, grouped by test (method), and shows the correlation coefficient in the cross section of each individual trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the factors of predictive validity? Define them

A

Concurrent (predicts a criterion measured at the same time) and prospective (predicts a criterion observed in the future) validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is incremental validity?

A

The degree to which a new (additional) measure adds the prediction of a criterion - beyond what can be predicted by some other measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are closed format tests?

A

Tests that have preset answers that cannot be changed or elaborated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does it mean to have a dichotomous response?

A

The answer can only be yes or no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a likert scale response style?

A

A range of replies (typically from strongly agree to strongly disagree) in which a person rates how much they agree with a statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does it mean if a test response is rank-ordered?

A

The subject must rank each statement (example: most important - least)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are open format tests?

A

The questions do not have predetermined responses, allowing for elaboration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are open ended questions?

A

Questions that allow the participants to come up with their own responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is a visual-analogue response style?

A

When the respondents rate their level of a construct on a continuous scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are anchors? - give an example

A

They are statements that help specify what each number refers to in the real world
1. Rarely or never -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is standard deviation?

A

The variability within a group - differences in individual scores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is standard error?

A

Variability across distributions - differences between groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is estimated true score?

A

How ability and probability of correctness correlate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the mean - and the equation for it?

A

Mean: the average
Mean = the sum of the population scores / the number of scores
μ = ΣN/N

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the equation for standard deviation?

A

Stand. Dev = the square root of the sum of scores - mean squared / number of scores
σ = √ (x-μ)^2 / N

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is variance - and the equation for it

A

The differences in scores
Variance - sum of (scores-mean) squared / total number of scores
σ2 = Σ(x-μ)^2 / N OR σ2 = σ^2

77
Q

What is the line of best fit?

A

A line through a scatter plot that minimizes discrepancy between observed and predicted scores
Measures the degree of mis-fit between scores

78
Q

What is a predicted score? How do you calculate it?

A

An estimated score for future tests
Regression = y intercept + slope * X
Y= aX+b OR Y= b0 + b1*X

79
Q

What is effect size? How do you calculate it

A

The magnitude of differences between groups
Effect size - mean of group 1 - mean of group 2 / standard deviation
D = (x̄1 - x̄2) / s

80
Q

What is sensitivity? How do you calculate it?

A

Of the people who actually have the condition, how many were designated to have it
Sensitivity - A / (A+C)

81
Q

What is specificity? How do you calculate it?

A

Of the people who don’t actually have the condition, how many were designated not to have it
Specificity = D / (B+D)

82
Q

What is positive predictive value? How do you calculate it?

A

Of the positive results, how many actually have the condition
PPV = A / (A+B)

83
Q

What is negative predictive value? How do you calculate it?

A

Of the negative results, how many really don’t have the condition
NPV = D / (C+D)

84
Q

What is base rate?

A

The guaranteed rate of prevalence in a population

85
Q

What is a self report test?

A

A test completed by someone who reports their own experiences

86
Q

What kind of test is the BDI? Key features

A

The beck depression index is a self report test that measures depression
A unidimensional test, the use of cutoff scores indicates a discrete condition, any combination of items can be used to designate the presence of depression

87
Q

What is an informant based test?

A

A test completed on behalf of someone else

88
Q

What are projective tests?

A

Tests that measure SUBCONSCIOUS impulses, emotions, difficulties, etc

89
Q

What are objective tests? Why were they created?

A

Tests that use standardized measures that allow little to no interpretation
Created to account for the limits of projective tests

90
Q

What is the RORS?

A

Projective testin which the patient interprets inkblots

91
Q

What is an aptitude test?

A

A test designed to measure individual aptitudes, attitudes, preferences, etc

92
Q

What is the MBTI? Key features?

A

The Meyers Briggs is a self report measure of psychological preferences in how people see the world and make decisions
Measures innate aptitudes that are either mental or physical

93
Q

What are structured tests?

A

Tests in which the questions and structure are predetermined, no changes or follow up can be made

94
Q

What are semi structured tests?

A

Tests in which the procedure and questions are predetermined but the doctor is able to add in and take out questions up to their discretion

95
Q

What is the SCID? Key features?

A

The structured clinical interview for DSM is a semi structured test that helps clinicians assess the presence or absence of psychiatric symptoms to render formal diagnoses
It is semi structured, allowing for follow up and the adding/removing of questions

96
Q

What is information variance

A

The way in which questions are asked and how tests are presented changes the amount of information that comes out of a test

97
Q

What is criterion variance?

A

How a doctor interprets the information to make conclusions that can result in changes between scores

98
Q

What are personality tests?

A

Tests designed to asses personality characteristics

99
Q

What is the NEO PI-R? Key features?

A

A test that measures the degree of OCEAN
- openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism
Uses a likert scale for questions, multidimensional- assesses each personality characteristic based on multiple smaller factors

100
Q

What is OCEAN in the NEO PI-R?

A

Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism

101
Q

What is the MMPI? Key features?

A

Minnesota Multiphastic Personality Index. Dsigned to address existing concerns on existing self-report measures, that assesses psychopathology and personality in a clinical setting, prioritizing criterion validity over face validity

102
Q

What is the act frequency approach?

A

A measure of how behaviour and personality traits correlate

103
Q

What is the BAI? Key features?

A

The Behavioural Acts Inventory. Designed to measure actions and behaviours to identify the correlates with personality

104
Q

What are normative tests?

A

Tests designed to measure quantitative personality characteristics, comparing them to patterns of normality

105
Q

What are the WAIS and WISC

A

Intelligence tests for adults (WAIS) and children (WISC) which evaluates intelligence and cognitive ability

106
Q

What are achievement tests?

A

Tests that measure developed skills or knowledge

107
Q

What is the GRE? Key features?

A

Graduate Record Examination that measures the acquired knowledge of students
Evaluates verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, analytical writing, critical thinking, and knowledge

108
Q

What makes a test reliable?

A

When it produces the same score continuously over time

109
Q

What does reliability measure?

A

How close our observed score approaches the true score

110
Q

What is the expected score?

A

An estimate of true score

111
Q

How do you calculate true score?

A

(E)rror*(x)observed=estimate of True

112
Q

What is the ‘fast move’ of classical test theory?

A

If error is uncorrelated with test scores, then error from two different tests is also uncorrelated, meaning errors from one test will be uncorrelated with the True Score of another test

113
Q

What are the 5 types of reliability?

A

Test-retest, Inter-rater, Parallel forms, Split half, Internal consistency

114
Q

What is test-retest reliability?

A

The ability for a test to produce consistent scores from one time to another

115
Q

What is inter-observer reliability?

A

The degree to which different observers give consistent estimates of the same construct

116
Q

What is parallel forms reliability?

A

The consistency of two separate but similar tests

117
Q

What is split half reliability?

A

The consistency between two halves of the same test

118
Q

What is internal consistency (reliability)?

A

The consistency of the results across items of a test

119
Q

How do you estimate reliability?

A

By comparing two different groups of items

120
Q

What are the ways you can estimate reliability? Explain

A

Within a single test - one part vs another part
Across multiple test - test 1 vs test 2

121
Q

What is used to measure internal consistency?

A

Cronbach’s alpha (a) and Cohen’s Kappa (k)

122
Q

How do you calculate Cohen’s kappa (k)?

A

(Observed agreement - chance agreement)/(1-chance agreement)

123
Q

How do you calculate chance agreement?

A

[probability of ‘yes’ from DR.a/probability of ‘yes’ from DR.b] X [probability of ‘no’ from DR.a / probability of ‘no’ from DR.b]

124
Q

How do you calculate observed agreement?

A

(‘Yes’ from both + ‘No’ from both) / N

125
Q

What is item analysis?

A

The analysis of how each individual item on a test performs

126
Q

What assumptions are made when calculating true score?

A

That T = the average score on a test if taken repeatedly, that error is random and independent

127
Q

What score would be ‘excellent’ for reliability?

A

a > 0.9

128
Q

What score would be ‘good’ for reliability?

A

0.9 > a > 0.8

129
Q

What score would be ‘acceptable’ for reliability?

A

0.8 > a > 0.7

130
Q

What score would be ‘questionable’ for reliability?

A

0.7 > a > 0.6

131
Q

What score would be ‘poor’ for reliability?

A

0.6 > a > 0.5

132
Q

What score would be ‘unacceptable’ for reliability?

A

0.5 > a

133
Q

What is item analysis?

A

The analysis of how each individual item performs and the correlation of individual items with the total score

134
Q

What is item analysis used for?

A

To determine which items are the best measurement of a construct

135
Q

What is item total correlation?

A

An assessment of total score - the cumulative degree of agreement for a construct

136
Q

How do we calculate item total correlation?

A

Each individual score is averaged (across a ‘group’) for an item total. Each average item total is added and averaged for a total score. This average item agreement is plotted with the total score to find r (total, item)

137
Q

What is distinctiveness in item analysis?

A

When a items are more highly correlated with one factor than the others

138
Q

What is the item response model?

A

The probability of choosing an option correlated with the level of a construct required to choose a given option

139
Q

How can the item response model be explained?

A

The amount of knowledge you need to get an answer right.

140
Q

What are the features of item response curves?

A

Discriminability, difficulty, precision

141
Q

What is discriminability in item response?

A

The slope. The point at which changes are easily observed

142
Q

When is discriminability better and worse?

A

Better: steep slopes
Worse: flattened regions

143
Q

What is difficulty in item response?

A

How much of the construct is needed before you choose that option (answer the question correctly)

144
Q

How do you observed the difficulty?

A

Using the 0.5 threshold. The point on the x-axis at which the curve is at 0.5

145
Q

What is more difficult and less difficult in item response?

A

More: when the slope is very shallow for a while, or it begins further down the x-axis
Less: when the slope begins early on the d-axis and/or is very steep right away

146
Q

What is precision in item response?

A

An estimate of your level of ability

147
Q

How do you determine precision in item response?

A

Using the area under the curve. The space between -2 to 2 (95%)

148
Q

What does the 95% precision tell us?

A

Based on the option picked, we can infer with 95% certainty that their severity level falls within the 95% of the area under the curve

149
Q

In what ways can you describe a curve in item analysis?

A

Is it flat? Sharp?
Where is the peak (most common area)
Does one curve override another?
Is a curve high for too long?

150
Q

What is principle components analysis (PCA)?

A

The examination of the degree to which individual items are related to one or more underlying dimensions of variation (factors)

151
Q

What are the goals of PCA?

A

Variable reduction
Structural analysis

152
Q

Why do we use PCA?

A

To reduce the redundancy in tests and see if the same construct can be better explained by a short form test

153
Q

What is a factor pattern matrix?

A

A visual representation of the relation of items to the factor(s) on a test

154
Q

What is the example of a factor pattern matrix that we have seen in class?

A

The red and blue squares of the NEO PI-R

155
Q

Using a factor pattern matrix, how do we know if the items are good indicators of the factor(s)?

A

Strong blue squares
Using eigenvalues

156
Q

What are Eigenvalues?

A

Numbers that show the proportion of variance that each factor contributes

157
Q

What is a good eigenvalue?

A

Any above 1

158
Q

When creating a short form, how do we know what eigenvalues to get rid of?

A

The ones under 1 or where the curve goes flat, the smallest correlation, if an item correlates to multiple factors,

159
Q

How do we observe incremental validity?

A

By comparing two measures - an existing and a new -to a gold standard

160
Q

How can incremental validity be represented?

A

Graphically, through models

161
Q

What are the sections of a graphical representation of incremental validity?

A

Just the gold standard, measure 1, or measure 2
The single overlap: GS-M1, GS-M2, M1-M2
The total overlap

162
Q

What is model testing in terms of incremental validity?

A

The ability to create a predicted score on the gold standard, based on observations on the other two+ measures

163
Q

Based on model testing, how do we know if a test has incremental validity?

A

If adding this scale to the calculation of predicted score on the GS closes the gap between the predicted and observed score, there is incremental validity

164
Q

What is the theory about adding measures when model testing for incremental validity?

A

The more tests you add, the closer you SHOULD be to the observed score on the GS

165
Q

How do you calculate predicted score when model testing for incremental validity?

A

SSE= ΣN(y-ŷ)^2
Sum of squares of error = sum of (observed -predicted scores) squared

166
Q

What are the two prediction models when model testing for incremental validity? Explain

A
  1. Benchmark - the existing tests vs the GS
  2. (Existing test + new test) vs GS- does adding your test contribute anything
167
Q

How can model testing be represented by the line of best fit?

A

Data points are the observed scores on the GS
Each measure has its line of best fit
The space between a point and the line shows the discrepancy between observed and predicted scores

168
Q

How can you make your measure look better in model testing? Why?

A

Compare it to a poor benchmark
If the benchmark does a poor job when compared to the GS, it will make your scale look better

169
Q

What are the outcomes of model testing?

A
  1. Both measures have incremental utility, one is not better than the other - retain both
  2. One measure has more incremental utility than the other - keep the better measure
  3. The measures do not contribute uniquely - choose one
  4. The measures have completely unique proportions of variation - retain both
170
Q

How would you write a comparison of two tests?
USE- GS:HRSD, M1: CESD, M2:BDI

A

The CESD accounts for variance in the HRSD above and beyond the variance accounted for by the BDI

171
Q

What is confirmatory factor analysis?

A

The examining of the structure of questionnaires and decision of what model best fits the data

172
Q

What is used for confirmatory factor analysis?

A

Structural equation models

173
Q

What is a structural equation model?

A

The imposition of a model on the data to evaluate fit

174
Q

What is a latent variable?

A

The factors of a construct that cannot be directly observed, they are inferred using related questions

175
Q

What are the observed indicators?

A

The questions

176
Q

What are factor loadings in structural equation models?

A

Values that show how the latent variables relate to each other, and how the questions relate to the variables

177
Q

In a visual SEM, what are the different parts?

A

Latent variables - circles - factors
Factor loadings - top r score - correlations
Error - bottom r scores

178
Q

What is the saturated model of SEM?

A

Explanatory model in which EVERYTHING is related
The benchmark

179
Q

What is the independence model in SEM?

A

A model in which none of the variables are correlated

180
Q

For the saturated and independence models of SEM, r=what?

A

Saturated: r = 1
Null: r = 0
Other: 1>r>0

181
Q

How does dimensionality factor into SEM?

A

Models can be uni-factoral and multi-factorial

182
Q

What is a uni-factorial model in SEM?

A

Only one latent variable (circle)

183
Q

What is a multi-factorial model in SEM?

A

Multiple latent variables (circles)

184
Q

What is a nested model in SEM?

A

A model within another

185
Q

How do you calculate the fit of a model in SEM?

A

By comparing the discrepancy between predicted and observed values to find which pattern of correlations is actually close to what has been observed

186
Q

What are the 3 big psychometric wrongdoings?

A
  1. Creating a test that does not account for the behaviours of the target population
  2. Not having enough items
  3. Not using a test how it was intended
187
Q

What is an example of no accounting for the behaviour of the target population?

A

Teenscreen - used to screen teens for those at risk of suicide, but the at risk ones typically don’t show up

188
Q

Why are 1 item tests not a good measure?

A

Responses might be wrong, there is nothing else to verify

189
Q

What is an example of not using a test how it was intended?

A

Using the WISC to identify children that are gifted