Study Cards Flashcards

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1
Q

How can a military airport be identified at night?

A

Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.

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2
Q

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

A

Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

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3
Q

An aircraft leaving ground effect during takeoff will

A

experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance.

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4
Q

If faced with an emergency where Air Traffic Control (ATC) assistance is desired and not already in contact, which frequency can be used to establish communications?

A

121.5 MHz.

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5
Q

Induced drag increases when airspeed is:

A

Decreased.

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6
Q

While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should

A

exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.

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7
Q

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any

A

local law enforcement officer.

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8
Q

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the

A

lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

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9
Q

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

A

The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.

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10
Q

Aviation Routine Weather reports (METARs) contain:

A

Wind, visibility, precipitation, cloud coverage, temperature, and altimeter setting.

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11
Q

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

A

remain the same regardless of gross weight.

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12
Q

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the

A

air temperature.

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13
Q

At the beginning of a turn from a northerly heading:

A

The compass will show a turn in the opposite direction.

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14
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?

A

Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.

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15
Q

Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?

A

SIGMET.

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16
Q

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

A

Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.

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17
Q

On landing, your tire blows and the wheel is dented. What action is required to comply with NTSB Part 830?

A

No notification or report is required.

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18
Q

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft’s operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

A

with passengers aboard.

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19
Q

The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as

A

high as 70 °F and the relative humidity is high.

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20
Q

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

A

The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.

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21
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

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22
Q

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

A

.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

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23
Q

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

A

When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

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24
Q

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?

A

After one-half the battery’s useful life.

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25
Q

Position (navigation) lights on an aircraft are:

A

Red for the left wingtip, green for the right wing tip, and white for the tail.

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26
Q

To operate during the day in Class G airspace you need:

A

1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

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27
Q

When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should

A

add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.

28
Q

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?

A

When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.

29
Q

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

A

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

30
Q

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?

A

Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface.

31
Q

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A

All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

32
Q

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

A

If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.

33
Q

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

A

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.

34
Q

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?

A

When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.

35
Q

What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

A

Continual flight into instrument conditions.

36
Q

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

37
Q

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

A

August 31, 5 years later.

38
Q

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

A

fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

39
Q

An operable 4096-code transponder, Mode C encoding altimeter, and ADS-B-Out are required in

A

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.

40
Q

How can you determine the stability of an air mass?

A

Observe the cloud formations and type of precipitation.

41
Q

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

A

developing lift.

42
Q

Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot

A

be at the controls in the cockpit.

43
Q

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?

A

Poor surface visibility.

44
Q

Which is true with respect to a high - or low-pressure system?

A

A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.

45
Q

What is the minimum pilot certificate for flying in Class D airspace?

A

No minimum pilot certificate is specified for operations in Class D airspace.

46
Q

The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally:

A

20 NM.

47
Q

Uncontrolled airspace is Class G airspace. To operate in Class G airspace, the day visibility requirement for flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL is:

A

1 mile.

48
Q

What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

A

Continual flight into instrument conditions.

49
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?

A

70.

50
Q

AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than Sigmets and are intended for dissemination to

A

all pilots.

51
Q

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 knots.

52
Q

The ‘yellow demarcation bar’ marking indicates

A

runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.

53
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

A

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and ADS-B Out.

54
Q

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

A

1 mile.

55
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

A

60.

56
Q

The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is

A

‘FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.’

57
Q

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A

3 statute miles.

58
Q

What is a characteristic of stable air?

A

Stratiform clouds.

59
Q

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

A

ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

60
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?

A

Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.

61
Q

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

A

Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.

62
Q

There is no acceleration/deceleration error on a heading of:

A

North or south.

63
Q

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?

A

An abbreviated briefing.

64
Q

Which gyroscopic instrument is the foundation for all instrument flight?

A

Attitude indicator.

65
Q

For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on

A

5 years later

66
Q

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

A

a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.