Study Cards Flashcards
How can a military airport be identified at night?
Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
An aircraft leaving ground effect during takeoff will
experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance.
If faced with an emergency where Air Traffic Control (ATC) assistance is desired and not already in contact, which frequency can be used to establish communications?
121.5 MHz.
Induced drag increases when airspeed is:
Decreased.
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should
exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any
local law enforcement officer.
For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the
lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
Aviation Routine Weather reports (METARs) contain:
Wind, visibility, precipitation, cloud coverage, temperature, and altimeter setting.
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
remain the same regardless of gross weight.
The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the
air temperature.
At the beginning of a turn from a northerly heading:
The compass will show a turn in the opposite direction.
Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?
Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?
SIGMET.
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
On landing, your tire blows and the wheel is dented. What action is required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
No notification or report is required.
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft’s operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated
with passengers aboard.
The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as
high as 70 °F and the relative humidity is high.
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
After one-half the battery’s useful life.
Position (navigation) lights on an aircraft are:
Red for the left wingtip, green for the right wing tip, and white for the tail.
To operate during the day in Class G airspace you need:
1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should
add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface.
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
Continual flight into instrument conditions.
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
August 31, 5 years later.
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
An operable 4096-code transponder, Mode C encoding altimeter, and ADS-B-Out are required in
Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
How can you determine the stability of an air mass?
Observe the cloud formations and type of precipitation.
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
developing lift.
Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot
be at the controls in the cockpit.
A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
Poor surface visibility.
Which is true with respect to a high - or low-pressure system?
A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.
What is the minimum pilot certificate for flying in Class D airspace?
No minimum pilot certificate is specified for operations in Class D airspace.
The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally:
20 NM.
Uncontrolled airspace is Class G airspace. To operate in Class G airspace, the day visibility requirement for flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL is:
1 mile.
What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
Continual flight into instrument conditions.
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
70.
AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than Sigmets and are intended for dissemination to
all pilots.
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
200 knots.
The ‘yellow demarcation bar’ marking indicates
runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and ADS-B Out.
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is
1 mile.
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
60.
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
‘FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.’
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
3 statute miles.
What is a characteristic of stable air?
Stratiform clouds.
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?
Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
There is no acceleration/deceleration error on a heading of:
North or south.
Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
An abbreviated briefing.
Which gyroscopic instrument is the foundation for all instrument flight?
Attitude indicator.
For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on
5 years later
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
