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C963 American Politics > Study C963 Politics > Flashcards

Study C963 Politics Flashcards

1
Q

Who was responsible for drafting the Bill of Rights and submitting it to Congress?

A

James Madison

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2
Q

Why did the colonists oppose being taxed by Great Britain?

A

They did not have elected representatives in the House of Commons.

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3
Q

What was a major difference between the Articles of Confederation and the Constitution?

A

The Articles of Confederation did not provide for a national judiciary.

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4
Q

Why did the framers design the government under the Articles of Confederation with a Congress?

A

They wanted a government based on the representation of the population.

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5
Q

What did the Great Compromise between the Virginia Plan and the New Jersey Plan that was finalized in the Constitution establish?

A

A two-chamber Congress

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6
Q

What were the results of the three-fifths compromise?

A

It allowed slave states to count three-fifths of their enslaved population for the purpose of representation.

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7
Q

What was a Federalist argument in support of the ratification of the Constitution?

A

A strong national government is better for national defense and economic growth.

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8
Q

Which concept was James Madison referencing when he stated, “Ambition must be made to counteract ambition” in Federalist, no. 51?

A

Separation of powers and checks and balances

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9
Q

What is a judicial check on the executive branch?

A

The Supreme Court can declare actions by the executive branch unconstitutional.

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10
Q

What is the goal of new federalism?

A

Decentralize policy to enhance administrative efficiency and reduce overall public spending

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11
Q

Which congressional action would be the result of the implied powers of Congress?

A

Congress passes a law raising the minimum wage to $10.00 per hour.

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12
Q

What best explains why individual members of the Senate have more power than individual members of the House of Representatives?

A

The smaller total number of Senate members compared to the number of representatives

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13
Q

What describes the equal proportions method of congressional apportionment?

A

Congressional districts are drawn in order to maintain similar numbers of voters in each district.

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14
Q

What describes the process of bills becoming laws in Congress?

A

Bills change significantly through House and Senate revisions.

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15
Q

Which power does the president have under the Constitution?

A

Appointing judges

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16
Q

What is a protection against an elected president abusing powers for personal gain?

A

The power of Congress to impeach the president

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17
Q

Which constitutional amendment established term limits for the president?

A

The Twenty-Second Amendment

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18
Q

What is the purpose of executive agreements?

A

To establish agreements with foreign countries without congressional approval

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19
Q

What describes the importance of the Supreme Court decision in Marbury v. Madison?

A

It established the principle of judicial review.

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20
Q

How many federal appellate courts exist in the United States?

A

13

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21
Q

congress shall make no law respecting an established religion

A

1st amendment

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22
Q

the right of people to be secure in their homes, against unreasonable search and seizure

A

4th amendment

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23
Q

checks on executive branch - Congress

A

congress can overturn a veto by the president - only congress can declare war house can impeach president

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24
Q

checks on executive branch - juridical

A

overturn actions of president with review

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25
Q

What describes Clause 3 of Article IV, Section 2 in the Constitution?

A

Slave owners could reclaim their slaves in states where they had fled.

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26
Q

Which major compromise was made at the Constitutional Convention?

A

The proportional representation of enslaved persons

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27
Q

What is an argument outlined in Federalist, no. 10?

A

The diverse interests of the people would prevent the development of powerful interests.

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28
Q

What describes the opposing views in the debates between the Federalists and Anti-Federalists?

A

Federalists favored a strong central government while the Anti-Federalist favored strong state governments.

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29
Q

What branch of government was considered by the farmers the cornerstone of America

A

legislative branch/congress - makes the laws

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30
Q

Thought of as most powerful

A

Executive branch/president - enforces the laws

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31
Q

Baker vs Carr

A

one person, one vote - redistricting

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32
Q

What amendment pairs presidential candidate with running mate on a ticket

A

12th

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33
Q

How many sitting justices are there on the Supreme Court?

A

9

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34
Q

What is a power reserved for the states?

A

Conducting elections

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35
Q

Which constitutional amendment allows states to reserve powers?

A

10

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36
Q

What did the Supreme Court’s ruling in Gibbons v. Ogden establish?

A

A loose constructionist interpretation of the commerce clause

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37
Q

What is a primary effect of the census on the functioning of Congress?

A

It is used to determine the number of House representatives for each state.

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38
Q

What is an example of checks and balances between the executive and legislative branches of government?

A

The Senate must confirm the president’s Supreme Court nominees.

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39
Q

Which type of power is a state’s power to tax?

A

A concurrent power

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40
Q

What is an example of a state exercising a concurrent power?

A

Issuing bonds to fund an infrastructure project

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41
Q

What is the general purpose of the president making recess appointments?

A

To fill cabinet vacancies while bypassing Senate approval

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42
Q

What is an example of a state exercising its reserve power?

A

Establishing laws to regulate businesses in the state

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43
Q

McCulloch v. Maryland

A

It established a loose constructionist view of the necessary and proper clause.

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44
Q

How do most states award votes in the Electoral College?

A

The candidate who wins the popular vote in the state gets all the electoral votes for the state.

45
Q

Which amendment provided for the separate election of the president and vice president?

A

14

46
Q

What is true about campaign ads in primary elections?

A

They often try to raise the name recognition of a candidate.

47
Q

How are elections for the U.S. Senate conducted?

A

One-third of the Senate seats are up for election every two years.

48
Q

Which election cycle event allows local party members to select their delegates for a presidential election?

A

A caucus

49
Q

What was the purpose of creating the Federal Election Commission in the 1970s?

A

To ensure transparency in campaign financing

50
Q

Which type of policy would typically be promoted by public interest groups?

A

Government funding for public school education

51
Q

What is generally true of interest groups but not true of political parties?

A

They tend to be focused on a single issue.

52
Q

Why is it difficult to measure the influence of interest groups?

A

Interest groups tend to support lawmakers who would have likely supported the group’s issues anyway.

53
Q

Which Supreme Court decision allowed Super PACs to accept and spend unlimited amounts of money for or against political candidates?

A

Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission

54
Q

In which case did the Supreme Court establish that spending on political campaigns constituted political speech that is protected by the First Amendment?

A

Buckley v. Valeo

55
Q

What is closely associated with a citizen being less likely to vote?

A

Having a lower income job

56
Q

What was required by states under the 1993 National Voter Registration Act?

A

It required states to allow citizens to register to vote when they sign up for driver’s licenses.

57
Q

What was the impact of the 1993 National Voter Registration Act, also known as the Motor Voter Act?

A

Voter registration increased, but voter turnout was largely unchanged.

58
Q

A voter casts a ballot for a candidate based solely on the candidate’s previous vote on a tax cut.

Which type of voting decision is demonstrated in this situation?

A

Retrospective

59
Q

Why is voter turnout in caucuses generally lower than voter turnout in primaries according to opponents of caucuses?

A

Caucuses take more time for the voter than primaries.

60
Q

Which election-cycle event allows registered party members to participate in the selection of a congressional nominee?

A

The closed primary

61
Q

Which election cycle event do delegates assemble at to select a presidential candidate?

A

A nominating convention

62
Q

What established the requirement that candidates disclose the source of campaign contributions?

A

Federal Election Campaign Act

63
Q

What is an effect of gerrymandering districts?

A

Safe seats are created due to unnatural boundaries.

64
Q

What is an advantage incumbents have when competing for votes against political opponents?

A

They have greater name recognition among voters.

65
Q

Which policy would be most likely to be supported by a public interest group?

A

Increased spending on infrastructure projects.

66
Q

Which type of interest group would lobby for increased accountability of congressional members?

A

A public interest group

67
Q

What are lobbyists attempting to influence when they submit amicus briefs?

A

Supreme Court decisions

68
Q

What is one of the guidelines for the use of capital punishment as established by the Supreme Court in Furman v. Georgia?

A

A jury must be used to make factual determinations to base a death penalty on.

69
Q

What describes the Supreme Court’s ruling in Miranda v. Arizona?

A

It required law enforcement officials to inform people suspected of crimes of their constitutional rights.

70
Q

What describes the Supreme Court’s ruling in Mapp v. Ohio?

A

Evidence obtained without a warrant that does not fall under the exception rule is not admissible.

71
Q

What is a reason people can be convicted of a crime without jury trial under the Sixth Amendment?

A

They accept a plea bargain

72
Q

Which amendment concerns the rights of individuals engaged in civil disputes?

A

The Seventh Amendment

73
Q

What was the impact of the Supreme Court’s decision in Plessy v. Ferguson?

A

It allowed racial segregation by establishing the “separate but equal” doctrine.

74
Q

In which types of cases would the Supreme Court use the standard of strict scrutiny?

A

Cases that restrict fundamental rights of protected classes

75
Q

Why was the separate-but-equal provision in Plessy v. Ferguson ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in the Brown v. Board decision?

A

It violated the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.

76
Q

Which right is protected under the free exercise clause of the Constitution?

A

Freedom of religion

77
Q

What describes the Supreme Court’s decision in Cohen v. California?

A

Symbolic speech to express political opinions is constitutionally protected.

78
Q

What describes the Supreme Court’s ruling in Texas v. Johnson?

A

Flag burning is constitutionally protected political speech.

79
Q

In which case did the Supreme Court rule that a person must be opposed to all wars and not just a particular war to claim conscientious objector status?

A

Gillette v. United States

80
Q

Which issue did the landmark Obergefell v. Hodges Supreme Court case concern?

A

Same-sex marriage

81
Q

In which case did the Supreme Court rule there is a constitutional right to privacy that protects a woman’s right to terminate a pregnancy?

A

Roe v. Wade

82
Q

Which amendment to the Constitution gave women the right to vote?

A

19

83
Q

What describes the civil liberties derived from the Bill of Rights?

A

They are things the government is not allowed to do.

84
Q

What is the difference between civil liberties and civil rights?

A

Civil liberties are protections from the government, while civil rights are protections by the government.

85
Q

In which types of cases would the Supreme Court use the rational basis test?

A

Cases involving discrimination that do not involve protected classes

86
Q

Which Supreme Court case set the precedent that poor defendants must be provided legal counsel in felony cases?

A

Gideon v. Wainwright

87
Q

Which constitutional amendment protects people from illegal searches and seizures of property?

A

4

88
Q

In which case did the Supreme Court rule that evidence obtained without a warrant and that does not fall under any exclusionary rule is inadmissible in court?

A

Mapp v. Ohio

89
Q

What describes the Supreme Court’s decision in West Virginia State Board of Education v. Barnette?

A

A school cannot force students to salute the flag if doing so violates their religious beliefs.

90
Q

What was the Supreme Court’s rationale for ruling a Pennsylvania program that helped fund the salaries of parochial school teachers unconstitutional in Lemon v. Kurtzman?

A

It violated the establishment clause because it would have created excessive government entanglement with religion.

91
Q

In which case did the Supreme Court rule that Congress could regulate firearms that are not regularly used by the military because of an interpretation of the Second Amendment clause regarding a “well-regulated militia”?

A

United States v. Miller

92
Q

Which of the following Supreme Court cases held that married couples have the right to use birth control?

A

Griswold v. Connecticut

93
Q

Which criminal justice issue is addressed by the courts under the Eighth Amendment?

A

Conditions related to capital punishment

94
Q

Which question is not part of the Miller standard for obscenity that was developed by the Supreme Court in Miller v. California?

A

Does the work depict male or female nudity?

95
Q

What is not a requirement of theSupreme Court’s Lemon test for deciding whether a law or other government action that might promote a particular religious practice should be allowed to stand?

A

The action or law must not affect a large number of people.

96
Q

What describes the Supreme Court’s ruling in Obergefell v. Hodges?

A

It recognized that same-sex married couples had the same rights as other married couples.

97
Q

What did segregated educational institutions violate according to the Supreme Court ruling in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka?

A

The equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment

98
Q

What is an appropriate characterization of media agenda setting?

A

It determines which events deserve public attention.

99
Q

What established the requirement that the executive branch provide information to private citizens and news outlets?

A

The Freedom of Information Act

100
Q

What describes the principle of prior restraint?

A

The government can prevent some information from being published if it affects national security.

101
Q

Which influence would having parents that are committed and vocal Democrats have on people’s political socialization?

A

They would likely become strong Democrats.

102
Q

How do presidents use mandates after election?

A

They use their public support to implement campaign promises.

103
Q

What is a criticism of the bandwagon effect on American politics?

A

News media agencies provide more coverage to candidates that are leading in the polls.

104
Q

What describes the minimal effects theory developed during the 1930s?

A

News shared by friends is filtered through their perspective and has a minimal effect on voters.

105
Q

Which situation is an example of the government exercising prior restraint?

A

Forcing a newspaper to remove the names of covert agents in a story about the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) before it is printed

106
Q

Which statement is true about the general political beliefs of major American demographic groups?

A

Men tend to be more politically conservative than women.

107
Q

Which role do schools generally play in the political socialization of young people?

A

They provide information on U.S. history and civics

108
Q

Which form of influence can the media use to cause active political debate on an issue?

A

Agenda setting

109
Q

Which political belief is associated with modern conservatism?

A

The government should do little to intervene in the national economy.

C963 American Politics (1 decks)

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