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CDFM-A > Study > Flashcards

Study Flashcards

1
Q

What document proposes financial adjustments to address any issues or problems identified during the associated budget hearing?

A

Resource management document RMD

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2
Q

What is a comprehensive review of all elements of defense policy and strategy needed to support the national security strategy

A

Quadrennial defense review QDR

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3
Q

The Q DR final report is provided to Congress when

A

In the second year of the administration

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4
Q

What system is supported by robust analytic processes to identify capability gaps and potential solutions

A

Joint capabilities integration and development system JC I DS

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5
Q

What does JC IDS define

A

Inter-operable, joint capabilities that will best meet future needs

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6
Q

Who reviews and validate all joint capabilities integration and development system documents and when is this done

A

The joint requirements oversight council JR OC; review is done prior to milestone a

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7
Q

Who chairs the JROC

A

The vice chairman of the joint Chiefs of staff

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8
Q

Which stages of the defense acquisition system our pre-systems phases

A

Material solution analysis and technology development

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9
Q

Who is the MDA for ACAT I-D

A

USD AT&L

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10
Q

Who is the MDA FOR ACAT I-C

A

USA AT&L

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11
Q

Who is the MDA for ACAT IA-M

A

USD CIO

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12
Q

Who is the MDA FOR ACAT IA-C

A

USA CIO

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13
Q

What is the evolutionary acquisition approach

A

The product changes or improvements throughout the acquisition process

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14
Q

What is single step acquisition approach

A

The product remains the same throughout the acquisition process

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15
Q

True or false: the Department of Defense may not obligate funds for a major Defense acquisition program after the program enters system development and demonstration without a milestone decision authority approved baseline unless the under secretary of defense for acquisition, technology, and logistics specifically approved obligation.

A

True

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16
Q

The program manager may treat the difference between an objective and it’s associated threshold as a what, subject to an agreement by the user

A

Trade space

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17
Q

What is the over arching process that a program team applies to transition from a stated capability need to and operationally effective and suitable system

A

Systems engineering

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18
Q

What is the integrating mechanism across to technical efforts related to the development, manufacturing, verification, deployment, operations, support, disposal of, and user training for systems and their lifecycle processes

A

Systems engineering

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19
Q

Who prepares a systems engineering plan (SEP) and for which milestone review is it prepared

A

Program manager; for each milestone review beginning with milestone a

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20
Q

True or false, the concepts of I PPD and integrated product teams IPT shall be applied throughout the acquisition process to the maximum extent practice ago

A

True

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21
Q

One of the key I PPD tenets is what

A

Multidisciplinary team work through integrated product teams

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22
Q

All acquisition category ID and IAM Programs will have what to provide assistance, oversight, and review as the program proceeds through its acquisition lifecycle

A

OIPT - over arching integrated project team

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23
Q

What does the integrating integrated product team I IPT do

A

Coordinates the activities of the W IPT and reviews issues they do not address

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24
Q

What is the purpose of the working level integrated project team W I PT

A

W I PT should meet as required to help the program manager plan program structure and documentation, and resolve issues

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25
Q

With activities provided the basis for evaluating and selecting alternatives when decisions need to be made

A

Decision analysis

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26
Q

True or false: decision analysis involves selecting the criteria for the decision and the methods to be used in conducting the analysis

A

True

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27
Q

Who institutes requirements management

A

The program manager

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28
Q

What are the three reasons for instituting requirements management

A

Maintain the traceability of all requirements from capabilities means; Document all changes to those requirements; and record the rationale for those changes

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29
Q

Which efforts result in a complete audit trail of decisions and design modifications

A

Configuration management

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30
Q

Which process confirms that the system element meets the design-to or build-to specifications; did you build it right?

A

The verification process

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31
Q

Which process answers the question is it the right solution to the problem

A

The validation process

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32
Q

This deals with planning, analyzing, organizing, and integrating the capabilities of a mix of existing and new systems to achieve a capability greater than the sum of the capabilities of the constituent parts

A

System of systems engineering

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33
Q

This is basically a grouping of systems having some common characteristics; it does not create capability be on the additive some of the individual capabilities of its members systems

A

A family of systems

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34
Q

This ends when the AOA has been completed, material solution options for the capability need identified in the approved ICD have been recommended by the lead DOD component conducting the AOA , And the phase specific entrance criteria for the initial review milestone have been satisfied

A

The material solution analysis phase

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35
Q

During technology development and succeeding acquisition phases the program manager shall give whom the maximum practical opportunity to participate

A

Small businesses

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36
Q

Engineering and manufacturing development begins at which milestone, which is normally the initiation of an acquisition program

A

Milestone B

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37
Q

Use of these items offers significant opportunities for reduced development time, faster insertion of new technology, and lower lifecycle cost

A

Commercial off-the-shelf items

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38
Q

This systems engineering tool is an essential element of the total systems engineering process

A

Modeling and simulation

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39
Q

For major defense acquisition programs and major automated information system programs, affordability assessments are required at which milestones

A

B and C

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40
Q

Who typically conducts the affordability assessments

A

Resource analyst in the DOD component headquarters or supporting organization

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41
Q

What is assessed by the milestone decision authority and each decision point

A

Full funding

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42
Q

True or false: all participants in the acquisition system are NOT Expected to recognize the reality of fiscal constraints, and to view cost as an independent variable

A

False

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43
Q

This is all the elements of lifecycle cost, as well as other infrastructure or business process costs not necessarily attributable to the program

A

Total ownership cost

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44
Q

These costs include research and development costs, investment costs, operating and support costs, and disposal costs over the entire lifecycle. These costs include not only the direct costs of the exposition program but also include indirect costs that would be logically attributed to the program

A

Lifecycle cost

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45
Q

Procurement average unit cost PAUC include procurement cost and what two other costs

A

Development cost and program acquisition cost

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46
Q

Average procurement unit cost APUC Include what three costs

A

Flyaway cost, support items, and initial Spares

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47
Q

Which cost is the largest lifecycle cost

A

Operations and support

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48
Q

This type of acquisition strategy defines develops produces and deploys an initial, militarily useful capability based on proven technology, demonstrated manufacturing capabilities, and time phased capabilities needs supported and defined in the ICD. It also plans for subsequent development, production and deployment of increments beyond that initial capability overtime

A

Evolutionary acquisition strategies

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49
Q

For ACAT I Or above acquisition programs this is required at major milestone decision points and at the full rate production decision

A

Analysis of alternatives AOA

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50
Q

This plan should establish a roadmap of how the analysis will proceed and who is responsible for what

A

Analysis of alternatives

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51
Q

Who is required to define its program in a comprehensive formal written document known as a cost analysis requirements description, or card

A

The program office

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52
Q

Which cost estimating technique would you see early on

A

Analogy and/or parametric

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53
Q

This assesses the aggregate. Ability and overall estimate due to the variability in each input probability distribution

A

Risk analysis

54
Q

An independent lifecycle cost must be prepared and provided to the milestone decision authority before the approval of the major defense acquisition program to proceed with which two acquisition phases

A

Engineering and manufacturing development; production and deployment

55
Q

Who is responsible for fulfilling the requirements for the independent cost estimate

A

The OSD office of cost assessment, or D – CA PE

56
Q

What is the tool that allows both government and contractor program managers to have visibility into technical, cost, and schedule planning, performance and progress on their contracts

A

Clinger Cohen act

57
Q

Earned value management compliance is required on cost or incentive contract value that or greater than what amount

A

$20 million

58
Q

What is the management tool that:
Relates the scope of the work associated budgets and schedule; measures the work progress in objective terms; States the value of the work completed in dollars, or other measurable units

A

Earned value management

59
Q

What is the formula for schedule variance

A

BCWP - BCWS

60
Q

What is the formula for cost variance

A

BCWP - ACWP

61
Q

What is management reserve

A

It is owned and controlled by the contractor; it is used for unknown unknowns; it is usually not enough

62
Q

The budget cost of work performed also called what

A

Earned value

63
Q

In earned value management budget terms contract over runs or under runs are determined by comparing the final cost of the contract with what

A

Contract budget base CBB

64
Q

This technique for earned value management tends to overstate performance in the first half of the period of performance and understate performance in the last half

A

Percent start/percent finish

65
Q

This earned value technique can be seen as all or none

A

0/100%

66
Q

A quality assurance function that inspects a statistical sample of finished products is an example of what Earned value technique

A

Apportioned effort technique

67
Q

The budgeted cost of work scheduled and also known as what

A

Performance measurement baseline

68
Q

This includes the undistributed budget, all summary level planning package budgets, and all control count budgets. It does not include management reserves

A

Performance measurement baseline PMB

69
Q

The final step of the PMB development process is what

A

Classify the work; allocate the budget; time phase control account work package budgets

70
Q

This is the general term used for describing a major realignment of the performance measurement baseline to improve the correlation between the workplan and a baseline budget scope and schedule

A

Re-baselining

71
Q

This is a realignment of schedule or reallocation a budget for remaining effort with an existing constraints of the contract

A

Replanning

72
Q

This is a comprehensive realignment nof the remaining performance measurement baseline that results in a total budget and/ or total schedule that exceeds the contractual requirements

A

Reprogramming

73
Q

What is the formula for cost performance index CPI

A

BCWP/ACWP

The ratio less than one indicates that the value of the work that has been accomplished is less than the amount of money spent

74
Q

What is the formula for schedule performance index

A

BCWP/BCWS

A ratio less than one indicates that work is been completed slower than planned

75
Q

What is the formula for estimate at completion

A

EAC = ACWP + [(BAC-BCWP)/(performance factor)]

Performance factor will be either cost performance index or schedule performance index

76
Q

Who is responsible for providing the needed product support capability to maintain the readiness sustainment and operation of the system

A

The program manager

77
Q

The lifecycle sustainment plan shall be prepared for which my milestone

A

Milestone b

78
Q

This is a process for establishing and maintaining the consistency of the products physical and functional attributes with the design and operational information throughout its life

A

Configuration management

79
Q

True or false: reliability, reduced logistics footprint, and reduced system lifecycle cost almost effectively achieved through exclusion from the very beginning of the program – starting with the definition of needed capabilities

A

False should be inclusion

80
Q

A key lifecycle sustainment and emphasis during EMD is to ensure it operational supportability with particular attention to minimizing what

A

The logistics footprint

81
Q

Who conducts post deployment reviews, periodic assessments of system support strategies these of the actual versus expected levels of performance and support

A

The DOD components

82
Q

The essence of performance-based logistics is buying what, not the individual parts and repair actions

A

Performance outcomes

83
Q

True or false: one of the most significant aspects of PBL is the concept of ingratiated agreement between the major stakeholders, e.g. the program manager, the force provider and the support provider

A

True

84
Q

Program manager enters into performance-based agreements with whom

A

With users, which specify the level of operational support and performance; also with organic sources and contracts with commercial sources

85
Q

This encompasses the human systems elements of the systems engineering process. Program managers should use the elements of this to design and develop systems that effectively and affordably integrate with human capabilities and limitations

A

Human systems integration

86
Q

This identifies the cognitive, physical, and sensory abilities of the operators, maintainers, and support personnel that are expected to be in place of the time the systems fielded

A

Target audience description TAD

87
Q

The sponsor and program manager should give careful consideration and priority to the use of this type of training. It is often the best way to provide timely and effective training

A

Embedded training

88
Q

This is the realization of a robust globally network environment, interconnecting infrastructure systems processes and people, within which data is shared seamlessly and in a timely manner among users applications and platforms

A

Net-centricity

89
Q

This approach uses the global information grid and envisions moving to trusted network centric operations through the acquisition of systems and families of systems that are secure a reliable and interoperable

A

Net centricity

90
Q

This is the ability of systems and infrastructure components, external to a specific IT or national security system, to aid protect complement or sustain the design development testing training or operations of it to achieve its required operational and functional capability

A

Supportability

91
Q

Who reviews all ISP documents for acquisition category I AND I-A programs

A

The office of the assistant secretary of defense networks and information integration, now called CIO

92
Q

Fundamental questions of if and how the system or equipment being developed will depend on and interact with what

A

Electromagnetic spectrum

93
Q

For defense business system acquisition programs that have modernization funding exceeding this amount, the MDA Shauna grant any most of them or full rate reduction in the authority to obligate funding shall not be granted until the certification required has been approved by the defense business system management committee

A

$1 million

94
Q

This requires to maximum practical extent use of commercial off-the-shelf items

A

The Clinger Cohan act

95
Q

This is designed to improve the way the government requires and managers information technology it formed the need to create the CIO function and institutionalizes a number of best management practices

A

The Clinger Cohan act

96
Q

These three things require the use of CO TS information technology solutions to the maximum practical extent

A

Klinger Cohan act; DOD instruction 5000.02; management initiative decision 905

97
Q

True or false: commercial off-the-shelf is defined as commercial items that allow any government modifications or maintenance over the lifecycle of the product

A

False

98
Q

What is research and technology classified information and research and technology controlled unclassified information I defined by RDTE site directors to receive specialized counterintelligence insecurity support

A

Designated science and technology information DA&TI

99
Q

True or false: CPI may be classified information or CUI About technologies, processes, applications, or end items that if disclosed or compromised, would NOT degrade system combat effectiveness

A

False it would degrade

100
Q

True or false: foreign participation in system development is possible

A

True

101
Q

Who establishes and approves the program protection plan PPP for an acquisition program, and when does he do so

A

The program manager; as soon as practicable after validation of the initial capabilities document and the determination that CPI exists

102
Q

This is used to identify and learn about deficiencies so that they can be resolved prior to production and deployment

A

Test and evaluation

103
Q

True or false: developmental test and evaluation should increase to robust system level and system of systems level testing and evaluation, to ensure that the system has matured to a point where it can meet IOT & EE and operational employment requirements

A

True

104
Q

This reduces technical risk and increases the probability of a successful 0T & E

A

Robust DT &zero

105
Q

This is conducted to determine system operational effectiveness, suitability, and survivability

A

Operational test and evaluation

106
Q

This should be addressed even in cases where the platform cannot survive

A

The ability of personnel to survive

107
Q

When should the test and evaluation strategy be submitted

A

45 days prior to milestone a so that and OSD approved document is available to support the decision

108
Q

This provides a roadmap for integrated simulation, test, and evaluation plans, schedules, and resource requirements necessary to accomplish the program objectives

A

Test and evaluation master plan TEMP

109
Q

When must the TEMP be submitted

A

Not later than 45 days prior to the milestone b

110
Q

Which type of documents are viewed through out the acquisition process

A

Technology

111
Q

What are the three milestones

A

Milestone a enters technology development; milestone b enters engineering and manufacturing development; milestone c enters production and deployment

112
Q

What are the sub review decision points

A

Material development decision; post PDR assessment; post CDR assessment; FRP decision review

113
Q

Who chairs the Defense acquisition board

A

USD AT&L

114
Q

What group provides the forum for approving acquisition category IAM milestones

A

Information-technology acquisition board reviews

115
Q

For acquisition category ID and IAM programs what are the two levels of IPT

A

Over arching integrated project team; working level integrated product team

116
Q

Who will lead the OI PT for acquisition category ID programs

A

The director, defense systems or deputy to the ASD(NII)

117
Q

Who is responsible for preparing the independent cost estimate

A

The deputy director for cost assessment and program evaluation D- CAPE, aka CAIG

118
Q

What is the program deviation report measured against

A

The APB

119
Q

This report reports the status of total program cost, schedule, and performance, as well as program unit cost and unit cost breach information

A

Selected acquisition report SAR

120
Q

This report includes the program acquisition unit cost PAUC And the average procurement unit cost APUC

A

Unit cost report UCR

121
Q

This is when the current estimate exceeds the program acquisition unit cost objective or the average procurement unit cost objective of the currently approved APB both in base year dollars by 15% or more

A

Significant breach

122
Q

The potential for this corporation should be addressed and considered during the development of the initial acquisition strategy and also in every phase of the acquisition process

A

international cooperation

123
Q

This contractor report focuses on the collection of actual costs

A

Contractor cost data report

124
Q

This contractor report supplements actual costs with software metrics that provide a better understanding and improved estimating software intensive programs

A

Software resources data report

125
Q

What is the dollar threshold for which program managers should obtain a CPR contract performance report

A

$20 million

126
Q

This type of contract should not apply the CFSR contract funds status report unless unusual circumstances dictate a specific funding visibility

A

Firm fixed price

127
Q

What organizations quality assurance personnel conduct government contract quality assurance as a Denna find a contract administration delegations

A

Defense contract management agency DC MA

128
Q

Which is the fifth element of special management activities for acquisition of services

A

Clinger Cohen act compliance

129
Q

The director DP AP will organize review teams and facilitate preaward and post award Peer reviews for all service contracts with an estimated value of what

A

$1 billion or more including options

130
Q

What are the 2Peer reviews that the DP AP will organize for service contracts with an estimated value of $1 billion or more

A

Preaward and post award

CDFM-A (1 decks)

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