study Flashcards
1
Q
What is the function of an operating system?
A
It acts as an intermediary between computer users and computer resources.
2
Q
A __________________ is an operating system in which one or more processes must be able to access the CPU.
A
real-time system
3
Q
Which part of a hard disk drive is responsible for storing actual data?
A
platters
4
Q
What is an advantage of solid-state drives (SSD) when compared to hard disk drives (HDD)?
A
faster data transfer
5
Q
How do computers avoid burdening the main central processing unit (CPU) with programmed I/O (PIO)?
A
By offloading to a direct-memory-access (DMA) controller
6
Q
What is the primary function of the file system interface?
A
To provide a way for the system to access and use files
7
Q
Which motherboard component is used for support of slower onboard peripherals?
A
southbridge
8
Q
Which chipset is a set of circuitry that provides support to the slower onboard peripherals?
A
southbridge
9
Q
Which cache memory is the smallest but fastest?
A
L1
10
Q
Which memory type is stored on a drive and is referred to as a paging file?
A
virtual RAM
11
Q
Which memory type is characterized by its independence from the CPU’s external clock?
A
asynchronous DRAM
12
Q
Which memory type shares a common clock signal with the computer’s system-bus clock?
A
synchronous DRAM
13
Q
What is used by the operating system to hold its system code and other programs?
A
RAM random access memory
14
Q
What is a fundamental building block of an operating system that keeps track of each process in memory, including whether to run it or wait for some event?
A
process control management
15
Q
Which operating system uses the Bourne-Again shell (bash) scripting tool?
A
Linux
16
Q
What is an example of a system call used by the POSIX API for POSIX-based systems running UNIX, Linux, and macOS?
A
Read()
17
Q
Which cloud feature allows different types of clients and devices to access the resources?
A
broad network access
18
Q
Which virtual machine tool involves testing out an application where files are not saved to the drive or memory and never affect the physical machine?
A
virtual sandbox
19
Q
What is another term for a type 1 hypervisor?
A
bare metal hypervisor
20
Q
Which type of network topology is cheap and easy to install but difficult to reconfigure?
A
bus
21
Q
Which type of network hardware works at layer 2 and provides centralized connectivity?
A
switches
22
Q
Which type of twisted pair cable can transmit data at speeds up to 10 Mbps?
A
Category 3
23
Q
Which type of virus intends to make itself difficult to detect or analyze?
A
armored virus
24
Q
Which type of virus exploits those applications that make use of a mini-basic programming language?
A
macro virus
25
Which automatic configuration process occurs when a Windows-based dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) client is unable to reach a DHCP server?
automatic private IP addressing (APIPA)
26
Which Windows tool is referred to as a centralized authentication server?
domain controller
27
Which device offers passive protection against attacks on network- and cloud-based resources?
IDS intrusion detection system
28
Which type of programming language is compiled?
Java and C/C++
29
Which component implements decision-making in the programming logic in an application?
branching
30
Which scripting or programming tool makes use of cmdlet (Command let) that performs a specific function?
PowerShell
31
The marketing department needs a central storage solution that automatically scales with their increasing storage needs.
Which storage solution would meet their requirement?
network attached storage (NAS)
32
A computer support technician is deploying a workstation that will be used for editing spreadsheets and web browsing.
Which network role should the computer be configured for?
Peer
33
A development team adopts Kafka for streaming purposes.
Which protocol should be in place to support this application?
transmission control protocol TCP
34
Which layer does a type 2 hypervisor operate on in a virtual environment?
host operating system
35
Which cloud computing characteristic provides a company with the ability to automatically scale down processing resources as needed?
elasticity
36
Which type of isolation do all virtualized containers employ?
process
37
What is a characteristic of virtualized containers?
containers share the same host operating system
38
Which solution solves a user’s need for dual booting different operating systems to test software?
configure a virtual machine for the user
39
Which set of components make up the central processing unit (CPU)?
The computer unit is made up of the arithmetic logic unit (ALU), the control unit (CU), and memory. However, the ALU and the CU form the CPU.
40
Which attribute of DRAM must a technician or developer consider ahead of time?
refresh signal
DRAM is less complex than other RAM but causes latency due to the constant need to be refreshed.
41
What is the purpose of a computer operating system?
it functions as a resource manager
42
What is a feature of cloud-based operating systems?
they are primarily stateless
Cloud-based operating systems are the latest and solely stateless operating systems.
43
Why do applications designed to work on one operating system not work on a different operating system?
unique system calls
44
Which requirement should be understood when configuring a RAID 5 system for a client?
a minimum of three drives are required
RAID 5 does not offer "mirroring"; therefore, more drives are required to recompute parity in the event of drive failure.
45
What is one reason why programmed I/O does not work well when the I/O device is a hard disk or a graphics display?
A complete instruction fetch–execute cycle must be performed to transfer each I/O data word.
This interrupt-driven data transfer causes the programmed I/O to be slow.
46
Which type of storage devices are characterized by the fastest access times and data transfer rates?
SSD
As suggested by its name, a solid-state drive has no internal moving parts. Additionally, it utilizes flash memory technology, as seen in small flash drives. Because they have no moving parts, they render the fastest data access and transfer rates.
47
What is the next step to be performed to address storage drive issues after identifying recent changes and breaking down large problems?
Perform a system backup.
48
A client is utilizing servers, data storage, data backup, and software development platforms over an internet connection.
cloud computing
49
Which type of memory packaging can support quad, triple, and dual channels?
DDR3 DIMMs can use quad, triple, or dual channels.
50
A client recently experienced a hard drive failure and lost stored data. The client does not want to rely on a backup but does want to secure their data.
Which RAID configuration does this client need?
RAID 1
51
Which component is responsible for creating and running a virtual machine instance on a host?
The hypervisor, also known as the virtual machine manager, is responsible for creating and managing a virtual machine.
52
A client recently experienced a hard drive failure and lost stored data. The client does not want to rely on a backup but does want to secure their data.
Which RAID configuration does this client need?
RAID 1
53
Which component is responsible for creating and running a virtual machine instance on a host?
Hypervisor also known as a virtual machine manager, is responsible for creating and managing a virtual machine
54
What facilitates a guest system's ability to run applications designed for a different operating system?
Emulator, By definition, an emulator is a utility program that allows applications designed for one hardware environment to run in a different hardware environment.
55
Which ability describes a security feature in virtualization?
Isolating the operating system when running multiple concurrent VMs
56
What is a temporary holding area for data and programs?
RAM
57
What is a key similarity between RAM and memory cards?
Solid state, Memory cards are built and are not volatile like RAM, but neither has spinning disks or streaming tape.
58
What is a key reason to implement a RAID 0 disk configuration?
To improve overall disk performance, this configuration writes data across two or more physical disks evenly so that no disk receives all the activity, resulting in improved performance
59
Which processors process in both 32 and 64 bits?
x86-64
60
Which size data path do today's DIMMS use?
64 bit
61
Which type of processor memory is located on the processor itself?
Level 1 cache
62
What can a dual in-line memory module (DIMM) use to contain data as well as amplify a signal before writing the data to a module?
registers, Registers and buffers hold data and amplify a signal before the data is written to the module.
63
Which type of DRAM do modern laptops all use?
SO-DIMM architecture is designed for laptops and other computers requiring smaller module form factors.
64
Which feature of a solid-state drive's flash memory ensures that the logical block addressing does not always address the same physical block’s drive?
wear leveling
65
A client has recently purchased a CPU that references the amount of L1 cache in the list of features.
What is this referring to?
The amount of memory residing directly on the processor die
66
Which network device is considered passive in terms of how it connects to other devices?
A hub amplifies network signals and connects network components or nodes.
67
Which type of network connects devices within the ranges of 30 feet or less?
PAN
68
Which networking device can be programmed to make decisions to send packets from an input port to an output port based on IP addresses?
router
69
Which TCP/IP suite layer handles the transport control protocol (TCP)?
The transport layer provides a reliable process-to-process message delivery, including TCP and UDP.
70
Which protocol is responsible for internet protocol (IP) address to physical address translation in the TCP/IP suite?
Address resolution protocol (ARP) The ARP connects the IP addresses to the media access control (MAC) address within a LAN.
71
Which network security measure deals with encrypting the data as it traverses the network?
confidentiality
72
Which network device offers the capability of centralizing the control of resources and compartmentalizing files for improved reliability?
server
73
What do networks use to communicate with resources and manage the flow of data across the network?
Network operating system (NOS)
The NOS runs on the server and allows network resources to communicate and send data across the network.
74
What is the main protocol at the internet layer of the TCP/IP layer and also considered the workhorse of the TCP/IP?
The IP operates at the internet layer of the TCP/IP suite, and it manages logical network addresses.
75
Which port number does the secure shell (SSH) protocol use?
22
76
The file transfer protocol (FTP) uses port numbers
20 and 21.
77
The telnet protocol uses port number
23
78
The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) uses port number
25
79
Which connection-oriented protocol can be used to set up a secure session for remote logins?
secure shell The SSH protocol is used to provide secure sessions for remotely executing programs and transferring files.
80
What is an example of an IPv4 class B address?
172.16.1.200 This is an example of a class B address with the first 2 bits set at 10.
81
Which technique can be used by DNS to battle email spam?
Domain keys identified mail (DKIM)
DKIM could be used in a DNS TXT record to thwart spammers from using a company's domain name to send unauthorized emails.
82
What is a risk-preventing feature that deals with the likelihood that the feature will change?
Volatility deals with the likelihood that the feature will change.
83
Which existing technologies can be used to prevent security breaches by segmenting network traffic over multiple tables simultaneously on a single router?
Virtual routing and forwarding (VRF)
VRFs provide the ability to have multiple instances of a routing table on a virtual router at the same time.
84
Which protocols can be disabled to increase network infrastructure security?
File transfer protocol (FTP)
FTP is an insecure protocol used to transfer files.
85
Which type of network attack is worsened by high-speed transfer and the ability to retrieve or upload large amounts of data in a faster way?
Swarm attack
This type of attack is on the rise because of the high speeds available with new 5G technologies.
86
Which feature of an integrated development environment (IDE) adds a pause to a program to stop the flow of execution where it is defined by the user?
breakpoints
87
Which non-functional requirement (NFR) type deals with restoring a system after a brief system failure?
Mantainability This type of NFR indicates the average time, ease, and rapidity with which a system can be restored after a failure.
88
Which type of non-functional requirement (NFR) stipulates that a program running on a Windows 10 operating system must be able to run on a Windows 11 operating system without any change in performance?
portability This type of NFR determines how a system can be launched within one environment or another.
89
Which hard disk drive interface is recommended for professional use?
SCSI technology is used by faster and more reliable drives such as SAS.
90
What is the recommended RAM requirement when creating and editing high-definition media (FHD)?
16 GB
91
Which type of technology would be used to create a wide area network (WAN)?
Leased Lines
92
What is required to run a hypervisor program on a computer system?
A high-end CPU with dual channels and multiple cores allows virtual machines to access resources faster.
93
Which connection type can a system analyst or administrator use for internet VPN technology when setting up a wide area network (WAN)?
Fiber optic is a popular choice with high speed and bandwidth.
94
Which kind of cloud service classification describes VMware and Microsoft Azure?
platform as a service PaaS is a platform service that includes IaaS along with an additional component of software development tools.
95
Which database is the best option for storing data in RAM when creating a back-end stack?
Redis is an open-source, fast, key-value database that stores data in RAM.
96
Which cloud computing characteristic allows a provider to allocate shared resources to multiple clients according to their usage demand?
resource pooling
97
Which cloud service provides a user with an integrated solution of a cloud-based application and cloud-based virtual storage accessible via a web browser?
SaaS Software as a service uses applications hosted on a service provider's cloud infrastructure. The client can access the applications from a web browser while the service provider manages and supports data storage and network infrastructure services.
98
Which cloud service meets the need for consolidating business services into a single site with centralized management with secure and isolated resources?
Private cloud services are constructed to offer security since it is isolated from other cloud users of the same provider.
99
Which kind of client-side virtualization is used to create an isolated environment to test an application while ensuring no negative impact on your live system?
virtual sandbox
100
Which technology describes the software responsible for creating and running a virtual machine on a host system?
hypervisor
A hypervisor creates and manages virtual machines (VMs) via an abstraction layer. There are several types, such as type 0, type 1, and type 2.
101
A client on a budget wants to purchase a new hard drive with fast access times and needs at least 4 TB for storage.
Which type of hard drive would be ideal?
In this scenario, a 5400 RPM hard disk drive is the most cost-effective option, as it addresses speed and can accommodate the storage requirement and costs.
102
A corporate client has several remote sites where it develops and manages several secure yet high-profile products. Its time-to-market strategies and business processes are key drivers to its success but change often.
Which service level best fits this situation?
Anything/everything as a service serves the client best. XaaS offers any combination of cloud services (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS, HaaS, CaaS, and NaaS) and can be customized to meet all client requirements.
103
Which type of RAM is commonly installed on motherboards and loses data rapidly, requiring a constant refresh?
DRAM This type of RAM is the most commonly installed random-access memory and can be used for high-end applications, but it loses data and needs constant refreshing.
104
Which DIMM technology can be used in a quad-channel configuration?
DDR5 is the latest module and is configured for dual and quad capabilities.
105
A client is looking for a cloud service model that allows them to use computing resources, to test applications, and to release the computing resources afterward.
Which model best fits this client's needs?
PaaS allows for building and testing an application over the internet and releasing the computing resources upon completion.
106
As part of a cost-effective solution, a client is looking to slowly transition from its in-house data center, including the IT staff.
Which service is a feasible option?
Hybrid cloud services combine public and private clouds. Because the client seeks to transition gradually, this is the best option.
107
Which service or role is an example of a use case for containers?
micro services
