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1
Q

What is the HERF/HERP/HERO for the r?

A

95/169/302/348

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2
Q

What is the scanner pitch and roll limitation?

A

+/- 15 pitch
+/- 25 roll

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3
Q

What is the scanner manual tilt limitation?

A

+10/-20
+10/-15 in periscope

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4
Q

What 3 things need to happen before a high voltage check?

A

Engines on
Flaps between 1 - 25
Parking brake off

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5
Q

What is the frequency of the radar?

A

9.35 - 10.15

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6
Q

What is the peak power of the r?

A

50kW

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7
Q

What is the power of the REP pulse?

A

1W

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8
Q

What is the max number of TWS tracks?

A

512 in FR85

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9
Q

What does ATI stand for?

A

Automatic Track Initiation

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10
Q

What was R designed for?

A

Open blue water
Low manoeuvring targets

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11
Q

Why does the speed of a TWS contact seem fast at first?

A

The prediction algorithm updates in a very short period of time, so thinks the contact is moving quickly.

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12
Q

Which mode does R gain new contacts?

A

Search

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13
Q

What is the roll limitation of R?

A

18.75

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14
Q

What is the cut off distance from land for new contacts in R?

A

2.5nm

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15
Q

How many contacts can R handle?

A

2000

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16
Q

What system handles TWS?

A

TOMS

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17
Q

What system handles R?

A

RDC

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18
Q

What criteria must be met for R to create a contact?

A

5 detections in 7 opportunities

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19
Q

After how many detections is C/S generated in R?

A

150

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20
Q

In R what symbol appears when a contact is good for ISAR?

A

a green circle

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21
Q

What are the 5 promo levels of R?

A

promo 0 - tentative (internal)
promo 1 - provisional (internal)
promo 2 - established (<150, blue circle)
promo 3 - coasting (DR)
promo 4 - persistent (>150)

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22
Q

What is the default coast time for R

A

180s

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23
Q

What are the height limits for SAR?

A

4000 - 41000ft

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24
Q

What is the best grazing angle for SAR?

A

4-9 (7.5)
1nm = 1000ft
Then for every 10,000ft take 1000ft off
e.g. 10nm is 9000ft

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25
Q

What is the GS limit for SAR?

A

<450kts

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26
Q

What is the name of the ESM system?

A

AN-ALQ-240-ESM

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27
Q

What is the coverage of the ESM?

A

0.5 - 2
2 - 18
18 - 40

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28
Q

Which band doesn’t provide geolocation?

A

HB

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29
Q

How does geolocation happen?

A

Interferometry and amplitude comparison

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30
Q

Why does 860 not have a grill?

A

It is a closed-loop cooling system

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31
Q

What components are in the 870?

A

Top Left: EWSP, ACE
Top Right: RDC
Middle Left: Forward AIU
Middle Right: IFFI
Bottom Left: REP
Bottom Right: Tx/Rx

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32
Q

What components are in the 860?

A

Top Left: RF/IF Converter, ESM DRP
Bottom Left: ESM power, ELINT DRP
Top Right: Acoustics Rx
Bottom Right: Acoustics processor

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33
Q

What components does the IBU work with?

A

DME
IFFI
V/UHF1
Radar
TACAN
IFFT
L16
TCAS

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34
Q

What components does the FACS consist of?

A

2 cold plates
Reservoir, Pump and Controller module (RPC)
Heat sink
Fluid lines

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35
Q

What powers and controls the FACS?

A

SPDS

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36
Q

What are the “problem” signals from the FACS?

A

Degraded - low coolant level or single pump failure
Malfunction - no flow, and after 10s SPDS removes power from the RPC

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37
Q

What is Mode 1 for IFFI?

A

military only, 2 digit code identifying a mission

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38
Q

What is Mode 2 for IFFI?

A

military only, 4 digit code identifying a unit

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39
Q

What is Mode 3/A for IFFI?

A

military and civilian, 4 digit code for the a/c

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40
Q

What is Mode C for IFFI?

A

military and civilian, gives altitude

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41
Q

What is Mode 4 for IFFI?

A

military only, encrypted, no longer used

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42
Q

What is Mode 5 for IFFI?

A

military only, encrypted version of Mode S and GPS position.

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43
Q

What is Mode S for IFFI?

A

Not part of IFFI system, it’s the signal that TCAS uses.
a/c to a/c interrogation

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44
Q

What are the frequencies of IFFI?

A

1030
1090

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45
Q

How many IFFI elements are there?

A

10

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46
Q

What are the max number of IFFI modes in each r mode?

A

2 in Srch
4 in Nav,Wxr,IFFI
1 in Pers (low probability of detection)
1 in ISAR (maybe)
0 in SAR

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47
Q

What is the priority order of IFFI modes?

A

5/4/3A/2/1/C

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48
Q

What is the HERF/HERP/HERO of IFFI?

A

1.2/4.5/20/79

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49
Q

What are the 5 conditions of flight?

A

1 - Low level
2 - High alt
3 - Op checks
4 - A/C inspection
5 - T/O and landing

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50
Q

How many Quick dons are there?

A

21

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51
Q

How many portable O2 bottles are there?

A

5

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52
Q

How many fire extinguishers are there?

A

6

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53
Q

How long does the portable O2 last?

A

35 mins @ 10K
25 mins @ sea level

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54
Q

Where is the O2 for the FD?

A

Single bottle in electrical equipment bay

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55
Q

Where is the O2 for the crew?

A

3 bottles behind the forward fire extinguisher and portable O2 bottle

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56
Q

How long does the crew O2 last?

A

2:15 @ 10K
1:30 @ sea level

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57
Q

How long does the FD O2 last?

A

2hrs @ 10K
1:20 @ sea level

58
Q

How many locking pins are there?

A

3 in the front wheel well: 1 for nose wheel turning, 1 for nose wheel retraction, 1 for the flares

1 in each rear wheel well for the gears, 1 in each rear wheel well for the thrust reversers

1 in the weapons bay

1 for the rear door

9 total (8 plus rear door)

59
Q

What is in 810?

A

Top Left: ICS 1 & 2
Bottom Left: V/UHF AIUs 1, 2 & 3
Top Right: L11 box, V/UHF 1, 2 & 3 Tx/Rx and SatCom 1 & 2 Tx/Rx
Bottom Right: BI, SatCom 1 & 2 AIUs

60
Q

Why is there a CB for V/UHF1?

A

If power is cut to 810/V/UHF radios it switches to battery to enable comms. CB is pulled if V/UHF1 is the problem.

61
Q

What is in 820?

A

Top Left: SMC
Bottom Left: EO/IR and 2 L16 boxes
Top Right: IBU
Bottom Right: HF Power Amplifier & HF Rx/Exciter

62
Q

What is in 830 for dry guys?

A

Top Left: TACLANE

63
Q

What is the ceiling light for in the forward cabin?

A

Illuminates if ground power is attached

64
Q

What does the C/P stand for for O2?

A

Cabin/Passengers

65
Q

Where are the APU fire handles?

A

Cockpit and Stbd wheel well

66
Q

Which way do you throw a lift raft into the water?

A

Whichever is suitable at the time

67
Q

Which pane of glass is the pressure one for the obs stations?

A

Inner one

68
Q

Where do E113/4 get their power from?

A

SPDS

69
Q

Where is the rope connected to for the rear door?

A

Eyelet in the door frame

70
Q

Where is the rope connected to for the over-wing exits?

A

Eyelet in the door frame

71
Q

What is the MOA in VMC day?

A

300ft BARO
250ft <3nm >0.5nm from land
200ft >3nm from land

72
Q

What is the MOA in IMC day or anytime at night?

A

> 5nm from land
500ft BARO
300ft

73
Q

What is the standard avoidance on rigs?

A

1.5nm or 2000’

74
Q

What is the standard avoidance on warships?

A

2nm or 2000’
OR
HIRTA limit

75
Q

What is the standard avoidance on civilian shipping?

A

> 500ft or 0.5nm MSD

76
Q

What is the altitude required for a 32nm radar horizon?

A

700’

77
Q

What is the altitude required for a 64nm radar horizon?

A

2700’

78
Q

What is the altitude required for a 128nm radar horizon?

A

10800’

79
Q

What is the altitude required for a 200nm radar horizon?

A

26500’

80
Q

What is the altitude required for a 50nm radar horizon?

A

1650’

81
Q

What is the altitude required for a 100nm radar horizon?

A

6500’

82
Q

What is the standard HIRTA avoid?

A

2.6nm 10K’

83
Q

Describe the signal flow for the radar?

A

MCW
RDC - ACE
REP - ANT
Tx

84
Q

What is the main SAM of the Kuznetsov?

A

SA-N-9

85
Q

What is the main SAM of the Kirov?

A

SA-N-20

86
Q

What is the main SAM of the Slava?

A

SA-N-6

87
Q

What is the main SAM of the Udaloy I?

A

SA-N-9

88
Q

What is the main SAM of the Udaloy II?

A

SA-N-9

89
Q

What is the main SAM of the Sovremenny?

A

SA-N-7

90
Q

What is the main SAM of the Gorshkov?

A

SA-N-28

91
Q

Which radar feeds SA-N-9?

A

Cross Swords

92
Q

Which radar feeds SA-N-20?

A

Tomb Stone

93
Q

Which radar feeds SA-N-6?

A

Top Dome

94
Q

Which radar feeds SA-N-7?

A

Front Dome

95
Q

Which radar feeds SA-N-28?

A

Poliment

96
Q

What criteria must be met for the overwing exits to lock?

A

Entry/service doors are shut OR
Either engine is running OR
Aircraft logic indicates the a/c is in the air OR
Both thrust levers are advanced

97
Q

What 2 radios does L11 use?

A

HF and UHF

98
Q

Where is the CB for V/UHF1

A

FD, port side over the pilot’s left shoulder.
P18-2:D12

99
Q

What radar is on the Kilo?

A

ST/ST3

100
Q

What is the wind limit for operating the front door?

A

40 kts

101
Q

What is the wind limit after which the front door must be closed?

A

65 kts

102
Q

If ECS is placed in smoke mode, how long is the radar fan shut down for?

A

5 mins

103
Q

By how far should thunderstorm cells be avoided?

A

20nm

104
Q

How long should you leave between shutting down radar and shutting down the radar fan?

A

10 mins

105
Q

When does Crew Duty Time (CDT) start?

A

When the first person shows up for work

106
Q

Who is usually the first person to report to work for a flight?

A

The TACCO to get crypto

107
Q

When does CDT end?

A

30 mins after chocks-in time, or when you leave the debrief

108
Q

How long is CDT?

A

16 hours if starting between 0500-1500.
14 hours if starting between 1500-0500.

109
Q

What happens to CDT hours if there is unplanned flying?

A

It reduces by 2 hours

110
Q

Who can extend CDT and by how much?

A

A/C can extend by 1 hour.
OC CXX can extend by 2 hours.
DDH can extend by 3 hours.
ODH can extend by >3 hours.

111
Q

How long is CRP?

A

12 hours with at least 8 hours for uninterrupted sleep.

112
Q

How long does an LCR Cat check last?

A

6 months

113
Q

How long does a CR Cat check last?

A

12 months

114
Q

How long does an Instructor Cat check last?

A

12 months

115
Q

What aircraft system is located behind the E870?

A

FACS

116
Q

A failure of which systems will set off the FACS alarm?

A

ECS Draw Thru or ESM Supplemental

117
Q

What frequencies does the EPLB transmit on?

A

121.5, 243, 406

118
Q

Which of the 3 frequencies the EPLB transmits on is the most important and why?

A

406 as it is a dedicated emergency signal that can reach the satellites

119
Q

What must you do after pulling the tabs to inflate the LSJ?

A

Pull the tab to activate the EPLB

120
Q

How much water is stored in your LSJ?

A

5 sachets of 50ml

121
Q

What else does the EPLB send out along with the emergency broadcast signals?

A

GPS signal

122
Q

How many first aid kits are there on the jet?

A

2 for general use
1 for emergency use

123
Q

What are the 2 main boxes that are used for ISAR and SAR processing?

A

REP and RDC

124
Q

What is in the left side of the LSJ?

A

EPLB

125
Q

What is in the right side of the LSJ?

A

16mm flares
First aid kit
Heliograph
Razor blade
Ground Air codes
Foil Blanket
LMD (Light marker distress)
2 AA batteries

126
Q

What colour of flares are there, what symbols do they have and which ones do we carry?

A

Red = Cross (carried)
Green = Triangle
White = Line

127
Q

How long is your no-fly time after a general anesthetic?

A

7 days

128
Q

How long is your no-fly time after a local anesthetic?

A

12 hours

129
Q

How long is your no-fly time after giving blood?

A

36 hours

130
Q

Which is the only sport that requires a no-fly time after taking part?
And how long is it?

A

Boxing - 48 hours, and you need to be checked

131
Q

Which systems make up ESM Supplemental

A

FACS, ESM chiller, aft AIU, 2 tail-cone fans

132
Q

What is the main SAM of the Steregushchy?

A

SA-N-28

133
Q

How long is your no-fly time after acupuncture?

A

12 hours

134
Q

How long is your no-fly time after SCUBA diving?

A

12 hours, or 24 hours if you’ve gone deeper than 10m

135
Q

How long can the P8 fly in light/moderate icing conditions?

A

45 mins if there is a rubber nose boot.
30 mins if not

136
Q

How long can the P8 fly in severe icing conditions?

A

It cannot fly in severe icing conditions

137
Q

What is the overload capacity of the MS10?

A

15

138
Q

In ISAR what degree off the bow-stern line will give 50% of a ship’s length?

A

60

139
Q

How does the size of the radar keyhole relate to height?

A

Roughly 1nm radius per 1000ft

140
Q

How many Est. Posit. tracks can you have at once?

A

8

141
Q

In the event of an All Modes Fail on radar, what is the correct response?

A

Wait for 2 mins to allow reestablishment of connection.
If that doesn’t work, cycle power at SPDS.

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