Study 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the veterinary code of ethics?
A
*Provide excellent care to animals with compassion and competence
*Commit to lifelong learning through CE
*Educate the public about disease control and zoonotic diseases & assist in the control of diseasees
*Keep client information confidential unless disclosure required by law
*Act responsibly and uphold the laws and regulations that apply to the position
*Be held accountable for their actions
2
Q
Equine Terminology
1. Intact Adult Male
2. Adult Female
3. Castrated Male
4. Juvenile Female
5. Juvenile Male
6. Juvenile Before Weaning
7. Group Name
A
- Stallion
- Mare
- Gelding
- Filly
- Colt
- Foal
- Herd
3
Q
Bovine Terminology
1. Group
2. Intact Adult Male
3. Adult Female
4. Castrated Adult Male
5. Juvenile Female
6. Juvenile Before Weaned
A
- Herd
- Bull
- Cow
- Steer
- Heifer
- Calf
4
Q
Caprine Terminology
1. Group
2. Intact Adult Male
3. Adult Female
4. Castrated Male
5. Juvenile
A
- Herd/Flock
- Buck/Billy
- Doe/Nanny
- Wether
- Kid
5
Q
Ovine Terminology
1. Group
2. Intact Adult Male
3. Adult Female
4. Castrated Male
5. Juvenile
A
- Flock
- Ram
- Ewe
- Wether
- Lamb
6
Q
Porcine Terminology
1. Group
2. Intact Adult Male
3. Adult Female
4. Castrated Male
5. Juvenile Female
6. Juvenile Before Weaned
A
- Passel/Sounder
- Boar
- Sow
- Barrow
- Gilt
- Piglet
7
Q
Terminology for Male and Female Donkeys
A
Jack and Jenny
8
Q
What is a mule?
A
Offspring of a horse and donkey
9
Q
Define Breed
A
Subgroup within a species with similar phenotypic characteristics
10
Q
Define Species
A
most familiar taxonomic unit used for identifying types of animals
11
Q
Define
1. Dam
2. Sire
3. Intact
A
- Female Parent
- Male Parent
- Not castrated
12
Q
Poultry Terminology
1. Chicken less than 10 weeks
2. Chicken 8-12 weeks
3. Chicken for Egg Production
4. Adult Female Chicken
5. Adult Male Chicken
A
- Broilers/Fryers
- Roasters
- Layers
- Hen
- Rooster
13
Q
Names
1. Male Duck
2. Male Goose
3. Adult Female Turkey
4. Young Turkey
5. Adult Male Turkey
A
- Drake
- Gander
- Hen
- Poult
- Tom
14
Q
What is a stew bird?
A
Older poultry used for meat for stews and soups.
15
Q
What are the types of aggression?
A
- Fearful
- Territorial
- Predatory
- Food or Possessive
16
Q
What is fearful aggression?
A
Displayed when an animal feels threatened
17
Q
What is territorial aggression?
A
Occurs when the animal becomes aggressive toward someone or another animal coming onto its property but does not seem bothered by the same interaction outside of its territory
18
Q
What is predatory aggression?
A
An attack with the intent to kill prey with no warning
19
Q
What is food or possessive aggression?
A
Displayed when the animal becomes aggressive when someone or another pet approaches when it is eating or has a toy
20
Q
What is signalment?
A
Age, breed, sex, and reproductive status
21
Q
Body Score
1 (1-5)
1-2 (1-9)
A
Emaciated or Very Thin
Ribs and pelvic bone easily distinguishable. Very little body fat or muscle mass.
22
Q
Body Score
2 (1-5)
3-4 (1-9)
A
Thin or Underweight
Ribs can be felt easily. No obvious waistline or abdominal tuck
23
Q
Body Score
3 (1-5)
5 (1-9)
A
Ideal Weight
Ribs can be felt
24
Q
Body Score
4 (1-5)
6-7 (1-9)
A
Overweight or Heavy
Ribs are palpable with difficutly. Waist is absent or barely visible
25
Body Score
5 (1-5)
8-9 (1-9)
Obese or Severely Obese
Large fat deposits over chest and back. Abdomen appears distended
26
Average Temperature
1. Dog
2. Cat
3. Calf
4. Cow
5. Foal
6. Horse
1. 100-102.5
2. 100-102.5
3. 101.5-103
4. 100.4-103.1
5. 99.5-102.2
6. 99.5-101.3
27
Average Pulse
1. Dog
2. Cat
3. Calf
4. Cow
5. Foal
6. Horse
1. 60-120
2. 150-200
3. 100-140
4. 50-60
5. 45-60
6. 38-45
28
Average Respirations
1. Dog
2. Cat
3. Calf
4. Cow
5. Foal
6. Horse
1. 15-25
2. 20-30
3. 30-60
4. 20-25
5. 60-80
6. 8-12
29
What is mentation?
Mental activity or level of consciousness of the pt.
30
What is dull mentation?
Interactive but seems depressed
31
What is obtunded mentation?
Reacting to stimuli but uninterested/depressed
32
What is stuporous mentation?
Disconnected and only respond to painful stimulation
33
What is unresponsive mentation?
Disconnected and no response to stimulus
34
Define auscultation
listening to the sound of the internal organs with a stethoscope
35
Describe pulmonary sounds
1. Wheezing
2. Crackling
3. Stridor
4. Rhonchi
5. Rales
36
Describe stridor
sever, struggling, high pitched, gasping for air, arising from an obstructed or highly constricted airway
37
Describe rhonchi
wet, mucus laden wheezing or snoring sounds
38
Describe rales
crackling or bubbling sound emanating from the chest region
39
Define hyperventilation
deep, quick paced breathing
40
Define hypoventilation
shallow breathing
41
Define dyspnea
difficult or labored breathing
42
Clinical Signs of Dehydration
Decreased weight
Decreased skin turgor
Moistness of MM
Heart Rate
CRT
43
Degrees of Dehydration (Mild, Moderate, Severe)
Mild 6-8%
Moderate 10-12%
Severe 12-15%
44
Signs of Mild to Moderate Dehydration
1. Less than 5%
2. 5-6 %
3. 8%
1. No obvious signs or symptoms
2. Mild decrease of skin turgor
3. Moderate decrease of skin turgor, minor rise in CRT, some dryness in mm
45
Signs of Severe Dehydration 10-12%
1. Moderate to severe loss of skin turgor
2. Hollow eyes
3. Marked Increase CRT
4. Rapid HR & RR
5. Cold Limbs
6. Signs of Shock
46
Signs of Severe Dehydration 12-15%
Extremely metabolically depressed and shock
47
Clinical Signs of Nasal Discharge
1. Serous
2. Mucoid
3. Mucopurulent
4. Hemorrhagic
1. Clear liquid
2. opaque and sticky
3. Green-Yellow and mucoid
4. bloody
48
Clinical Signs of Respiratory Disease
1. Nasal Discharge
2. Sneezing
3. Facial Swelling
4. Dyspnea
5. Anorexia
49
Common Respiratory Disease Conditions
1. Rhinits/Sinusitis
2. Bronchitis
3. Pneumonia
4. Pyothorax
5. Pneumothorax
50
What causes tracheobronchitis?
Bordetella bronchispetica
51
Describe Feline Herpesvirus type 1 (FHV-1)
1. Feline Viral Tracheitis
2. Commonly spread through direct contact
3. In environment for 24 hours
4. Ubiquitous globally
52
Describe Feline Calicivirus(FCV)
1. Feline URI and oral ulceration
2. Transmitted oral, nasal, conjunctival, feces, & urine up to 21 days
3. Carrier state for life
4. In environment up to 1 week
5. Ubiquitous globally
53
What does heart disease affect?
Myocardium (muscle of the heart) and pericardium (membrane around the heart)
54
Signs of Heart Failure
1. Exercise Intolerance
2. Syncope
3. Weakness
4. Tachypnea
5. Increased CRT
6. Cough
7. Anorexia
8. Depression
55
What is CHF
Congestive Heart Failure
56
Describe congestive heart failure
Poor cardiac output and resulting poor venous return to heart
57
Symptoms of Left Sided CHF
1. Pulmonary Edema
2. Dyspnea
3. Tachypnea
4. Cough
5. Abnormal Respiration
58
Symptoms of Right Sided CHF
1. Edema in the thoracic and abdominal cavities
2. Jugular distension
59
What is sinus bradycardia?
Slow but regular ventricular heart rate
60
What are the symptoms of sinus bradycardia?
1. Weakness
2. Hypotension
3. Syncope
4. Excessive or reduced parasympathetic tone
61
What are the side effects of sinus bradycardia?
1. Struggling to draw in air
2. Gastric Irritation
3. Increased CSF Pressure
4. Hypothyroidism
5. Hypothermia
6. Hyperkalemia
7. Hypoglycemia
62
What is sinus arrhythmia?
1. Normal variation in heartbeat due to respiratory patterns
2. HR increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration
3. Sinus refers to the sinoatrial node which is the hearts pacemaker
63
How is heartworm disease spread?
mosquitos
64
What are the symptoms of heartworm disease in cats?
1. Coughing
2. Vomiting
3. Lethargy
4. Anorexia
5. Weight Loss
6. Dyspnea
65
What are the symptoms of heartworm disease in dogs?
1. Coughing
2. Right Sided CHF
3. Syncope
4. Exercise Intolerance
5. Dyspnea
6. Hemoptysis
66
How do heartworm medications prevent heartworm disease?
Work by killing the infective larvae that have infected the patient in the previous month
67
What are the medications used to treat heartworm?
1. Ivermectin
2. Milbemycin Oxime
3. Selamectin
4. Moxidectin
5. Milbemycin Oxime with Praziquantel
68
Which heartworm medications contain Ivermectin
1. Heartgard
2. Ivermectin Plus
3. TriHeart
69
Which heartworm medications contain Ivermectin and Pyrantel Pamoate?
Heartgard Plus
70
Which heartworm medications contain Milbemycin Oxime?
1. Trifexis
2. Sentinel
71
Which heartworm medications contain Selamectin?
Revolution
72
Which heartworm medications contain moxidectin?
1. Proheart
2. Advantage Multi
73
Which heartworm medication contains milbemycin oxime and praziquantel?
Interceptor
74
What parasites does Heartgard plus deworm?
Hookworms & roundworms
75
What additional parasites does Trifexis and Sentinel Kill?
Roundworms, hookworms, and tapeworms
76
What additional parasites does Revolution kill?
Fleas, hookworm, roundworm, and ear mites
77
What additional parasites does Proheart and Advantage Plus kill?
Hookworm
78
What additional parasites does Interceptor kill?
Roundworm, Hookworm, Tapeworm, & Whipworm
79
What are the symptoms of upper GI disease?
1. Regurgitation
2. Dysphagia
3. Vomiting
4. Hypersalivation
5. Gagging
6. Dehydration
80
What are the symptoms of Lower GI disease?
1. Diarrhea
2. Blood or mucus in stool
3. Constipation
4. Tenesmus
81
What is melena?
Blood in the stool that is partially digested indicating disease in the small intestine
82
What is hematochezia?
Blood in the stool that is undigested and present on the outside of the stool indicating disease of the colon or rectum
83
What causes GI obstruction?
1. Foreign Body
2. Neoplasia
3. Intussusception
84
What do GI obstructions occur?
Esophagus or bowel
85
What are the symptoms of esophagus obstruction?
vomiting or regurgitation
86
What are the symptoms of bowel obstruction?
abdominal pain, sepsis, diarrhea, or shock
87
What is pancreatitis?
Inflammation of the pancreas
88
What is the pancreas?
glandular organ that produces digestive enzymes and regulatory hormones such as insulin and glucagon
89
When does pancreatitis occur?
When trypsin (a protease) is activated early int he pancreas instead of the duodenum causing damage to the pancreas
90
What are the types of pancreatitis and what species do they occur in?
Acute more common in dogs and chronic more common in cats
91
What are the predisposing factors of pancreatitis?
1. High fat diet
2. Genetics
3. Dietary Indiscretion
4. Abrupt dietary changes
5. Trauma
6. Drug or medication toxicity
7. Hormonal disease
92
What are the signs of acute pancreatitis?
1. Hypotension
2. Anorexia
3. Fever
4. Vomiting
5. Diarrhea
6. Renal Failure
7. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
8. Multiple Organ Failure
93
What are the signs of chronic pancreatitis?
1. Anorexia
2. Lethargy
3. Weight Loss
4. Hiding in Cats
94
What can chronic pancreatitis lead to?
Diabetes mellitus and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
95
What is the treatment for pancreatitis?
hydration therapy and pain management
96
What is canine parvoviral enteritis?
common and highly contagious viral infection
97
Who is most susceptible to parvo?
Young dogs (6 weeks to 6 months) and unvaccinated or not fully vaccinated
98
How does parvo spread?
1. Direct fecal to oral
2. Indirect through fomites
99
How long can parvo survive in the environment?
Weeks, months, or years
100
How long is fecal shedding for parvo?
occurs days before and after infection. Usually before symptoms and continues for 10 days after recovery
101
What are the acute symptoms of parvo?
1. V/D (often hemorrhagic)
2. Dehydration
3. Nausea
4. Lethargy
5. Abdominal Pain
6. Fever
7. Leukopenia
8. Neurological Symptoms
102
How do you diagnose parvo?
Fecal antigen testing
103
What is the treatment for parvo?
1. Hydration therapy
2. Antiemetics
3. Antibiotics
4. Nutritional Support
104
What are the symptoms of urinary disease?
1. failure to produce urine
2. elevation of creat/bun in blood
3. presence of bacteria in urine'
4. discomfort on urination
5. glucose in urine
6. blood in urine
7. producing small amounts of urine
8. PU/PD
9. Excessive urination
10. Frequent urination
11. WBCs in urine
12. Straining to urinate
13. high levels of waste products in the blood
14. V/D
105
Define anuria
failure of kidneys to produce urine
106
Define azotemia
elevation of creat and bun in the blood
107
Define Bacteriuria
presence of bacteria in urine
108
Define dysuria
discomfort, pain, or burning on urination
109
Define glucosuria
glucose in the urine
110
Define hematuria
blood in the urine
111
Define Oliguria
production of only a small amount of urine
112
Define polydipsia
excessive thirst
113
Define polyuria
excessive urination
114
Define pollakiuria
frequent urination
115
Define proteinuria
increase levels of protein in the urine
116
Define pyuria
presence of wbcs in urine
117
Define stranguria
straining to urinate
118
Define uremia
high levels of waste products in the blood
119
What are kidneys?
Paired, bean-shaped organs in the abdominal cavity on either side of the spine
120
What is the purpose of the kidneys?
filter waste and excess fluid from the blood
121
What are glomeruli?
Filters of the kidney
122
What is it called when you estimate the function of the kidney?
Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
123
What is chronic kidney disease?
involves a progressive loss of renal function due to tissue damage
124
What are the symptoms of chronic kidney disease?
1. Azotemia
2. Hypertension
3. Proteinuria
4. PU/PD
5. V/D
6. Lethargy
7. Anorexia
8. Dehydration
9. Oral ulceration
10. Uremia
125
How many stages of chronic kidney disease are there?
4
126
Describe Stage 1 CKD
Subclinical, usually undetected
127
Describe Stage 2 CKD
1. GFR less than 25% or normal
2. Azotemia present
3. Decreased ability to concentrate urine
4. PU/PD
128
Describe Stage 3 CKD
1. GFR decline
2. Azotemia present
3. Clinical Signs present
4. Reevaluate every 3-6 months
129
Describe Stage 4 CKD
1. GFR decline
2. Sever azotemia
3. Clinical Signs present
4. Reevaluate every 1-3 months
130
What is the treatment for chronic kidney disease?
Identify and treat primary disease
Treat complications
131
What is acute kidney injury aka?
Acute renal failure
132
What causes acute renal failure?
toxins, ischemia, & infections
133
What are the clinical signs of acute renal failure?
1. V/D
2. Anorexia
3. Depression
4. Oliguria
5. Oral ulceration
134
What are the grades of acute renal failure?
Based on serum creatinine
1. Less than 1.6
2. 1.7-2.5
3. 2.6-5
4. 5.1-10
5. Greater than 10
135
What is the survival rate of acute kidney failure?
50%
136
Treatment for acute kidney failure
Hydration therapy
Increase urine output
Parental feeding tube
Dialysis
137
What is urolithor calculus?
Mineral salt stone found in the urinary tract
138
Define
1. Nephrolith
2. Urocystolith
3. Ureterolith
4. Urethrolith
Stone in
1. Nephron
2. Bladder
3. Ureter
4. Urethra
139
Treatment for urolithiasis
SX removal of stones
Catheter removal of stones
Lithotripsy
Dissolution via urinary acidification
140
Prevention of urolithiasis
Owner education
Dietary changes
Monitoring of urine by owner
141
What causes urinary tract infections?
Could be the result of a cather or urolith or could be secondary to other diseases such as diabetes mellitus, hyperadrenocorticism, and CKD
142
What are the symptoms of UTI?
1. Dysuria
2. Hematuria
3. Polyuria
4. Inappropriate Urination
5. Urine containing WBCs, RBCs, or bacteria
143
What is the treatment for UTI?
Antibiotics
144
What is FLUTD?
Feline lower urinary tract disease or feline urologic syndrome
145
What are the conditions of FLUTD?
1. Urolithiasis
2. Neoplasia
3. Trauma
4. Feline interstitial or idiopathic cystitis
5. UTI
146
What does the urinary tract consist of?
Bladder, ureters, and urethra
147
What are the common clinical signs of FLUTD?
Polyuria, Hematuria, Stranguria
148
Who is most at risk for FLUTD?
Cats 2-6 years old
149
Where is the thyroid?
gland that is wrapped around the front of the trachea just below the larynx
150
What is hyperthyroidism?
When the thyroid is overactive and produces to much T4 and T3 leading to increased metabolic rate
151
What is T4?
Thyroxine
152
What is T3?
Triidothyronine
153
Who is most at risk for hyperthyroidism?
Middle-aged and geriatric cats
154
What are the symptoms of Hyperthyroidism?
1. Weight loss
2. Increased appetite
3. Increased excitability
4. PU/PD
5. V/D
155
What are the signs of hyperthyroidism on exam?
1. Elevated T4
2. Tachycardia
3. Heart murmur
4. Hypertension
5. Enlarged thyroid gland
6. Dyspnea
7. CHF
156
What is Apathetic Hyperthyroidism?
Involves vomiting, depression, and anorexia
157
What are the treatment options for hyperthyroidism?
1. Thyroidectomy or Hemithyroidectomy
2. Radioactive Iodine Medication
3. Antithyroid drugs
4. Low Iodine Diet
158
What is hypothyroidism?
Occurs when there is a deficiency of thyroid hormones leading to a decreased metabolic rate
159
What are the 2 types of hypothyroidism?
Lymphocytic Thyroiditis & Idiopathic Thyroid Atrophy
160
What is lymphocytic thyroiditis?
immune mediated and occurs when lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages invade and destroy the thyroid gland decreasing its functionality
161
What is idiopathic thyroid atrophy?
Describes the idiopathic replacement of thyroid tissue with adipose tissue
162
What are the clinical signs of hypothyroidism?
1. Lethargy
2. Depression
3. Dullness
4. Exercise Intolerance
5. Weight Gain
6. Obesity
7. Low T4 & T3
8. No pruritic alopecia
9. Hypothermia or heat seeking behaviors
163
What is the treatment of hypothermia?
Daily oral hormonal replacement medication
164
What is the significance of CBC?
gives information on the patients RBCs, WBCs, & platelets including size and appearance
165
What is packed cell volume?
PCV
proportion of RBCs to whole blood volume AKA hematocrit
166
What is hemoglobin?
whole lysed blood concentration
167
What is anemia?
Deficiency of healthy rbcs
168
What is polycythemia?
elevation of the # of RBCs above normal
169
What are the types of leukocytes?
1. Eosinophil
2. Neutrophil
3. Monocyte
4. Lymphocyte
5. Basophils
170
What would an abnormal increase or decrease of WBCs indicate?
infection
171
What is the significance of erythrocytes?
Carry oxygen throughout the body by way of the protein hemoglobin
172
What is unique about mammalian erythrocytes?
lack a cell nucleus
173
How are erythrocyte indices established?
RBC count, HGB count, & PCV
174
What is the purpose of RBC indices?
Applied to identify various types of anemias or blood deficiencies
175
What is a manual RBC counter called?
hemacytometer
176
How are RBC indices obtained?
by comparing total RBCs to PCV
177
Considerations for counting RBCs
1. Can be counted manually or mechanically
2. Requires calibration base on size which varies by species
3. Automated counters are more accurate
4. Both require diluted sample
178
What is the neubauer Hemacytometer Method
manual means of determining the # of RBCs using an unopette system
179
What are other names for PCV?
Hematocrit and Erythrocyte Volume Fraction
180
How do you measure PCV?
the percentage of RBCs in whole blood
181
What is the normal PCV for dogs?
35-45%
182
What is the normal PCV for cats?
25-45%
183
What is it called when PCV is decreased?
Anemia
184
What can cause anemia?
1. Hemorrhage from ulcers or trauma
2. Hemolysis
3. Lack of RBC production
185
What causes an increased PCV?
Dehydration or increase in RBC production
186
What do you evaluate with a PCV?
1. The PCV
2. Color pigmentation and clearness of plasma
3. Direct microscopic examination for examination of microfilaria and other blood borne parasites
187
What is mean corpuscular volume?
Average volume of RBCs
188
How do you calculate MCV?
(PCV x 1000)/RBCs in femtoliters
189
What is the significance of Hemoglobin?
1. Iron containing proteins in RBCs
2. Carries Oxygen from the lungs to the tissues in the body.
3. Assists with acid/base balance of the blood
190
How do you measure hemoglobin?
photometric methods or automated cell counters
191
How do you record hemoglobin?
g/dL or g/L
192
How do you rapidly assess Hemoglobin?
1/3 PCV
193
What is mean corpuscular hemoglobin?
Average mass of hemoglobin found in a sampler per RBC
194
How do you calculate MCH?
(Hb x10)/RBC
195
What is mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration?
Average concentration of hemoglobin in a given volume of RBCs
196
How do you calculate MCHC?
Hemoglobin concentration/PCV
197
Which of the RBC indicies is the most precise?
MCHC because it does not use the RBCs
198
What do you examine on a blood smear?
1. RBC morphology
2. WBC Differential Count
3. Estimated platelet count
199
RBC normocyte
uniform average size
200
RBC macrocytic
abnormally large
201
RBC microcytic
Abnormally small
202
Anisocytosis
substantial discrepancies in RBC size
203
How do you mark the severity of erythrocyte variations
mild, moderate, severe
204
What could cause mycrocytic RBCs?
Vitamin or mineral deficiencies, genetic traits, or certain iatrogenic changes
205
Define normochromic
fully developed cells with a normal amount of hemoglobin
206
Hypochromic
cells with inadequate concentration of hemoglobin (pale pink)
207
Describe mammalian RBCs
Whitish, innermost area due to biconcave formation and lack of nucleus & cellular organelles
208
Describe reptile, birds, and reptilian RBCs
have nucleus
209
Torocyte
RBC with an abrupt transition from pale white to red ring caused by poor slide smear technique
210
Poikilocytosis
10% or more increase of abnormally shaped cells
211
Codocytes
dark circular target appearance
212
Causes of codocytes
1. Cell membrane collapse secondary to very low hemoglobin content
2. Increased cholesterol and lechithin content
3. Bile insufficiency
4. Liver disease
5. Splenectomy
6. Anemia
213
Leptocytes
abnormally thin flattened RBCs
214
What causes leptocytes?
1. Decreased hemoglobin volume or increased surface area of cell membrane
2. Anemia
215
Elliptocytes
Cigar or egg shaped RBCs attributed to flaw in membrane that is found with all types of anemia
216
Schistocytes
Fragmented RBCs of varying shapes such as keratocytes, triangulocytes, helmet shaped cells
217
What causes schistocytes?
Burns, uremia, hemolytic anemias, and DIC
218
Spherocytes
Round, spherical form with decreased surface area most commonly found in dogs
219
What causes spherocytes?
1. Immune related hemolytic anemia
2. Defective membrane assembly
3. Traumatic or toxic injury to RBCs
220
Describe stomatocytes
Pale center is rod or smile shaped
221
What causes stomatocytes?
Inherited disorder in dogs or liver disease
222
Describe acanthocytes
Cells exhibiting obvious blunt protrusions extending from the cell wall and have an inconsistent shape
223
What causes acanthocytes?
caused when RBC membranes contain excess cholesterol and/or abnormal plasma lipoproteins
224
Describe echinocytes
have copious amounts of little spicules protruding from a roughly spherical surface
225
What is another name for echinocytes?
burr cells
226
What causes echinocytes?
1. Renal disease
2. Horses after vigorous exercise
3. Canines with lymphosarcoma and renal disease
4. Handling errors such as after a transfusion or improper drying
227
What is agglutination?
Clustered together without any clear structural constriction
228
What is agglutination associated with?
Presence of an antibody or immune disease
229
What is basophilic stippling?
Granulated appearance of ribosomal structures found in certain erythrocytes
230
What station do you use to see basophilic stippling?
New methylene blue
231
What causes basophilic stippling?
Anemia
Lead poisoning
Active erythropoiesis
232
What are blister cells?
Blister or vacuole has formed and is absent of any hemoglobin content
233
What causes blister cells?
Iron deficiency
234
What is crenation?
Cells contract for to lack of water and have notched or scalloped edges
235
What are eccentrocytes?
Rbcs appear semicircular due to adhesion of cell membranes from opposing sides of the wall
236
What causes eccentrocytes?
Onion and garlic ingestion
Administration of oxidant drugs
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What are ghost cells?
Rbcs that have lysed spiking out hemoglobin content
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What are Howell jolly bodies
Rbcs that did not dispel DNA now visible are round purple basophilic inclusions
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What causes Howell jolly bodies
Splenectomy
Regenerative anemia
Spleen disorders
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What are heinz bodies?
Small inclusions of denatured hemoglobin found on rbcs
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What causes heinz bodies
Oxidant drugs
Lymphosarcoma
Hyperthyroidism
Onion consumption.
Diabetes mellitus in cats
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What are nrbcs
Nucleated rbcs
Younger smaller rbcs that have retained their nucleus
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What causes nrbcs in mammals
Severe bone marrow stress
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What species are nrbcs normal in?
Birds reptiles fish and amphibians
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What are reticulocytes?
Immature rbcs
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How do you view reticulocytes?
Wright's stain or nmb
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What is reticulocyte production index?
How rapidly reticulocytes are produced in the system
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What increases reticulocyte count?
Blood loss
Disease shortened rbc loss
Anemia
Low oxygen intake
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What species does not produce reticulocytes in cases of severe chronic anemia?
horses
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Types of leukocytes
1. Neutrophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Monocytes
4. Eosinophils
5. Basophils
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Causes of increased neutrophils?
Respond to inflammation
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Causes of eosinophils?
Associated with mast cells, allergies, parasitic disease, and fungal infections
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Causes of lymphocytes?
Arrive at sites of inflammation a few days after it starts
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Causes of monocytes?
Plentiful during inflammation
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Causes of basophils
increase due to allergic or parasitic infection
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What are the granular leukocytes
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
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What are the non-granular leukocytes
monocytes and lymphocytes
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What are banded cells?
Non segmented immature cells
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What are toxic neutrophils?
Hypersegmented
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What is hemolysis?
Rupturing and destruction of rbcs
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Describe plasma
Yellowish fluid which contains the blood, proteins, and lipid particles
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What is serum?
Plasma after coagulation has occurred
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Describe hemolytic serum
Red or pinkish caused by ruptured rbcs
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Describe icteric plasma
Yellow color indicating liver disease
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Describe lipemic plasma
Opaque has high lipids
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Significance of high globulins
Autoimmune diseases or kidney/liver disease
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Significance of low albumin
Malnutrition, severe burns, Disease
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Significance of globulin
Electrophoresis vs. fibrinogens
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Significance of urea
measure of GFR
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Significance of BUN
kidney disease
271
Significance of CREAT
kidney disease
272
Significance of ALT
liver disease
273
Significance of ALP
liver disease
274
Significance of GGT
Liver, pancrease, and kidney
275
Significance of AST
Not connected to particular organ but can be associated with liver disease in conjuction with ALT
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Increase of Serum Sodium
Hypernatremia may indicate dehydration
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Decrease of Serum Sodium
Hyponatremia may indicate kidney failure
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Increase of Potassium
Hyperkalemia indicates adrenal cortical hypofunction
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Decrease of Potassium
Hypokalemia indicating alkalosis and insulin therapy
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Increase of Serum Chloride
Hypercholemia indicating metabolic acidosis
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Decrease of Serum Chloride
Hypochloremia indicating vomiting, anorexia, malnutrition, diabetes insepidus
282
Increase of Serum Calcium
Hypercalcemia may indicate pseudohyperparathyroidism
283
Decrease of Serum Calcium
Hypocalcemia may indicate malabsorption or preeclampsia or pancreatic necrosis
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What is parturient paresis?
Milk fever which is decreased calcium potentially causing GI stasis
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Increase of serum phosphorous
Hyperphosphatemia indicates kidney failure or poisoning with ethylene glycol
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Decrease of serum phosphorous
Diet low in phosphorous
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Increase blood glucose
Hyperglycemia indicates Diabetes mellitus
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What is bilirubin?
Byproduct of the metabolism of hemoglobin
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Significance of increased bilirubin
Hyperbilirubenemia causes jaundice
290
What can increased cholesterol cause?
hypothyroidism, lipemia, diabetes mellitus, hyperadrenocorticism
291
What is bile
produced by the liver and important for digestive process
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Increased bile acid
indicates liver disease
293
Decreased bile acid
Normal
294
What is amylase?
digestive enzyme that functions to break down carbohydrates
295
What does increased amylase indicate?
Pancreatitis
296
Significance of increased lipase?
Pancreatitis
297
What does ACTH stand for?
Adrenocorticotopic Hormone
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What does ACTH stim test diagnose?
Cushings disease
299
How do you do an ACTH stim test?
Baseline Cortisol test, Administration of ACTH, 2nd sample taken 1 hour later, compare samples. If there is an increase in cortisol then patient has cushings
300
What is LDDS?
Low Dose Dexamethasone Suppresion Test
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What does LDDS determine?
If cushings is pituitary or adrenal origin
302
How do you perform and LDDS?
Baseline cortisol, administration of synthetic cortisol, Second sample taken 4-8 hours later, Decrease cortisol production = pituitary tumor, No decrease = adrenal tumor
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Cytology Staining Techniques
1. Romanowsky Stains
2. New Methylene Blue
3. Papanicolanu Stains
304
What are the types of Romanowsky stains?
1. Wrights
2. Giemsa
3. Diff-quik
305
What does new methylene blue examine?
Cell nuclei, mast cell granules, and infectious organisms
306
What do papanicolanu stains determine?
Gram staining can identify bacterial agents
Pink=gram negative
Purple=gram positive
307
What is ascites?
Fluid in the abdominal region
