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Animal Nursing > Study 1 > Flashcards

Study 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the veterinary code of ethics?

A

*Provide excellent care to animals with compassion and competence
*Commit to lifelong learning through CE
*Educate the public about disease control and zoonotic diseases & assist in the control of diseasees
*Keep client information confidential unless disclosure required by law
*Act responsibly and uphold the laws and regulations that apply to the position
*Be held accountable for their actions

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2
Q

Equine Terminology
1. Intact Adult Male
2. Adult Female
3. Castrated Male
4. Juvenile Female
5. Juvenile Male
6. Juvenile Before Weaning
7. Group Name

A
  1. Stallion
  2. Mare
  3. Gelding
  4. Filly
  5. Colt
  6. Foal
  7. Herd
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3
Q

Bovine Terminology
1. Group
2. Intact Adult Male
3. Adult Female
4. Castrated Adult Male
5. Juvenile Female
6. Juvenile Before Weaned

A
  1. Herd
  2. Bull
  3. Cow
  4. Steer
  5. Heifer
  6. Calf
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4
Q

Caprine Terminology
1. Group
2. Intact Adult Male
3. Adult Female
4. Castrated Male
5. Juvenile

A
  1. Herd/Flock
  2. Buck/Billy
  3. Doe/Nanny
  4. Wether
  5. Kid
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5
Q

Ovine Terminology
1. Group
2. Intact Adult Male
3. Adult Female
4. Castrated Male
5. Juvenile

A
  1. Flock
  2. Ram
  3. Ewe
  4. Wether
  5. Lamb
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6
Q

Porcine Terminology
1. Group
2. Intact Adult Male
3. Adult Female
4. Castrated Male
5. Juvenile Female
6. Juvenile Before Weaned

A
  1. Passel/Sounder
  2. Boar
  3. Sow
  4. Barrow
  5. Gilt
  6. Piglet
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7
Q

Terminology for Male and Female Donkeys

A

Jack and Jenny

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8
Q

What is a mule?

A

Offspring of a horse and donkey

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9
Q

Define Breed

A

Subgroup within a species with similar phenotypic characteristics

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10
Q

Define Species

A

most familiar taxonomic unit used for identifying types of animals

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11
Q

Define
1. Dam
2. Sire
3. Intact

A
  1. Female Parent
  2. Male Parent
  3. Not castrated
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12
Q

Poultry Terminology
1. Chicken less than 10 weeks
2. Chicken 8-12 weeks
3. Chicken for Egg Production
4. Adult Female Chicken
5. Adult Male Chicken

A
  1. Broilers/Fryers
  2. Roasters
  3. Layers
  4. Hen
  5. Rooster
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13
Q

Names
1. Male Duck
2. Male Goose
3. Adult Female Turkey
4. Young Turkey
5. Adult Male Turkey

A
  1. Drake
  2. Gander
  3. Hen
  4. Poult
  5. Tom
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14
Q

What is a stew bird?

A

Older poultry used for meat for stews and soups.

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15
Q

What are the types of aggression?

A
  1. Fearful
  2. Territorial
  3. Predatory
  4. Food or Possessive
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16
Q

What is fearful aggression?

A

Displayed when an animal feels threatened

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17
Q

What is territorial aggression?

A

Occurs when the animal becomes aggressive toward someone or another animal coming onto its property but does not seem bothered by the same interaction outside of its territory

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18
Q

What is predatory aggression?

A

An attack with the intent to kill prey with no warning

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19
Q

What is food or possessive aggression?

A

Displayed when the animal becomes aggressive when someone or another pet approaches when it is eating or has a toy

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20
Q

What is signalment?

A

Age, breed, sex, and reproductive status

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21
Q

Body Score
1 (1-5)
1-2 (1-9)

A

Emaciated or Very Thin
Ribs and pelvic bone easily distinguishable. Very little body fat or muscle mass.

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22
Q

Body Score
2 (1-5)
3-4 (1-9)

A

Thin or Underweight
Ribs can be felt easily. No obvious waistline or abdominal tuck

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23
Q

Body Score
3 (1-5)
5 (1-9)

A

Ideal Weight
Ribs can be felt

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24
Q

Body Score
4 (1-5)
6-7 (1-9)

A

Overweight or Heavy
Ribs are palpable with difficutly. Waist is absent or barely visible

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25
Q

Body Score
5 (1-5)
8-9 (1-9)

A

Obese or Severely Obese
Large fat deposits over chest and back. Abdomen appears distended

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26
Q

Average Temperature
1. Dog
2. Cat
3. Calf
4. Cow
5. Foal
6. Horse

A
  1. 100-102.5
  2. 100-102.5
  3. 101.5-103
  4. 100.4-103.1
  5. 99.5-102.2
  6. 99.5-101.3
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27
Q

Average Pulse
1. Dog
2. Cat
3. Calf
4. Cow
5. Foal
6. Horse

A
  1. 60-120
  2. 150-200
  3. 100-140
  4. 50-60
  5. 45-60
  6. 38-45
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28
Q

Average Respirations
1. Dog
2. Cat
3. Calf
4. Cow
5. Foal
6. Horse

A
  1. 15-25
  2. 20-30
  3. 30-60
  4. 20-25
  5. 60-80
  6. 8-12
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29
Q

What is mentation?

A

Mental activity or level of consciousness of the pt.

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30
Q

What is dull mentation?

A

Interactive but seems depressed

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31
Q

What is obtunded mentation?

A

Reacting to stimuli but uninterested/depressed

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32
Q

What is stuporous mentation?

A

Disconnected and only respond to painful stimulation

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33
Q

What is unresponsive mentation?

A

Disconnected and no response to stimulus

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34
Q

Define auscultation

A

listening to the sound of the internal organs with a stethoscope

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35
Q

Describe pulmonary sounds

A
  1. Wheezing
  2. Crackling
  3. Stridor
  4. Rhonchi
  5. Rales
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36
Q

Describe stridor

A

sever, struggling, high pitched, gasping for air, arising from an obstructed or highly constricted airway

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37
Q

Describe rhonchi

A

wet, mucus laden wheezing or snoring sounds

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38
Q

Describe rales

A

crackling or bubbling sound emanating from the chest region

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39
Q

Define hyperventilation

A

deep, quick paced breathing

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40
Q

Define hypoventilation

A

shallow breathing

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41
Q

Define dyspnea

A

difficult or labored breathing

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42
Q

Clinical Signs of Dehydration

A

Decreased weight
Decreased skin turgor
Moistness of MM
Heart Rate
CRT

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43
Q

Degrees of Dehydration (Mild, Moderate, Severe)

A

Mild 6-8%
Moderate 10-12%
Severe 12-15%

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44
Q

Signs of Mild to Moderate Dehydration
1. Less than 5%
2. 5-6 %
3. 8%

A
  1. No obvious signs or symptoms
  2. Mild decrease of skin turgor
  3. Moderate decrease of skin turgor, minor rise in CRT, some dryness in mm
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45
Q

Signs of Severe Dehydration 10-12%

A
  1. Moderate to severe loss of skin turgor
  2. Hollow eyes
  3. Marked Increase CRT
  4. Rapid HR & RR
  5. Cold Limbs
  6. Signs of Shock
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46
Q

Signs of Severe Dehydration 12-15%

A

Extremely metabolically depressed and shock

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47
Q

Clinical Signs of Nasal Discharge
1. Serous
2. Mucoid
3. Mucopurulent
4. Hemorrhagic

A
  1. Clear liquid
  2. opaque and sticky
  3. Green-Yellow and mucoid
  4. bloody
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48
Q

Clinical Signs of Respiratory Disease

A
  1. Nasal Discharge
  2. Sneezing
  3. Facial Swelling
  4. Dyspnea
  5. Anorexia
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49
Q

Common Respiratory Disease Conditions

A
  1. Rhinits/Sinusitis
  2. Bronchitis
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Pyothorax
  5. Pneumothorax
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50
Q

What causes tracheobronchitis?

A

Bordetella bronchispetica

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51
Q

Describe Feline Herpesvirus type 1 (FHV-1)

A
  1. Feline Viral Tracheitis
  2. Commonly spread through direct contact
  3. In environment for 24 hours
  4. Ubiquitous globally
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52
Q

Describe Feline Calicivirus(FCV)

A
  1. Feline URI and oral ulceration
  2. Transmitted oral, nasal, conjunctival, feces, & urine up to 21 days
  3. Carrier state for life
  4. In environment up to 1 week
  5. Ubiquitous globally
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53
Q

What does heart disease affect?

A

Myocardium (muscle of the heart) and pericardium (membrane around the heart)

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54
Q

Signs of Heart Failure

A
  1. Exercise Intolerance
  2. Syncope
  3. Weakness
  4. Tachypnea
  5. Increased CRT
  6. Cough
  7. Anorexia
  8. Depression
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55
Q

What is CHF

A

Congestive Heart Failure

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56
Q

Describe congestive heart failure

A

Poor cardiac output and resulting poor venous return to heart

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57
Q

Symptoms of Left Sided CHF

A
  1. Pulmonary Edema
  2. Dyspnea
  3. Tachypnea
  4. Cough
  5. Abnormal Respiration
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58
Q

Symptoms of Right Sided CHF

A
  1. Edema in the thoracic and abdominal cavities
  2. Jugular distension
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59
Q

What is sinus bradycardia?

A

Slow but regular ventricular heart rate

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60
Q

What are the symptoms of sinus bradycardia?

A
  1. Weakness
  2. Hypotension
  3. Syncope
  4. Excessive or reduced parasympathetic tone
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61
Q

What are the side effects of sinus bradycardia?

A
  1. Struggling to draw in air
  2. Gastric Irritation
  3. Increased CSF Pressure
  4. Hypothyroidism
  5. Hypothermia
  6. Hyperkalemia
  7. Hypoglycemia
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62
Q

What is sinus arrhythmia?

A
  1. Normal variation in heartbeat due to respiratory patterns
  2. HR increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration
  3. Sinus refers to the sinoatrial node which is the hearts pacemaker
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63
Q

How is heartworm disease spread?

A

mosquitos

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64
Q

What are the symptoms of heartworm disease in cats?

A
  1. Coughing
  2. Vomiting
  3. Lethargy
  4. Anorexia
  5. Weight Loss
  6. Dyspnea
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65
Q

What are the symptoms of heartworm disease in dogs?

A
  1. Coughing
  2. Right Sided CHF
  3. Syncope
  4. Exercise Intolerance
  5. Dyspnea
  6. Hemoptysis
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66
Q

How do heartworm medications prevent heartworm disease?

A

Work by killing the infective larvae that have infected the patient in the previous month

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67
Q

What are the medications used to treat heartworm?

A
  1. Ivermectin
  2. Milbemycin Oxime
  3. Selamectin
  4. Moxidectin
  5. Milbemycin Oxime with Praziquantel
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68
Q

Which heartworm medications contain Ivermectin

A
  1. Heartgard
  2. Ivermectin Plus
  3. TriHeart
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69
Q

Which heartworm medications contain Ivermectin and Pyrantel Pamoate?

A

Heartgard Plus

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70
Q

Which heartworm medications contain Milbemycin Oxime?

A
  1. Trifexis
  2. Sentinel
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71
Q

Which heartworm medications contain Selamectin?

A

Revolution

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72
Q

Which heartworm medications contain moxidectin?

A
  1. Proheart
  2. Advantage Multi
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73
Q

Which heartworm medication contains milbemycin oxime and praziquantel?

A

Interceptor

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74
Q

What parasites does Heartgard plus deworm?

A

Hookworms & roundworms

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75
Q

What additional parasites does Trifexis and Sentinel Kill?

A

Roundworms, hookworms, and tapeworms

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76
Q

What additional parasites does Revolution kill?

A

Fleas, hookworm, roundworm, and ear mites

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77
Q

What additional parasites does Proheart and Advantage Plus kill?

A

Hookworm

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78
Q

What additional parasites does Interceptor kill?

A

Roundworm, Hookworm, Tapeworm, & Whipworm

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79
Q

What are the symptoms of upper GI disease?

A
  1. Regurgitation
  2. Dysphagia
  3. Vomiting
  4. Hypersalivation
  5. Gagging
  6. Dehydration
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80
Q

What are the symptoms of Lower GI disease?

A
  1. Diarrhea
  2. Blood or mucus in stool
  3. Constipation
  4. Tenesmus
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81
Q

What is melena?

A

Blood in the stool that is partially digested indicating disease in the small intestine

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82
Q

What is hematochezia?

A

Blood in the stool that is undigested and present on the outside of the stool indicating disease of the colon or rectum

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83
Q

What causes GI obstruction?

A
  1. Foreign Body
  2. Neoplasia
  3. Intussusception
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84
Q

What do GI obstructions occur?

A

Esophagus or bowel

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85
Q

What are the symptoms of esophagus obstruction?

A

vomiting or regurgitation

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86
Q

What are the symptoms of bowel obstruction?

A

abdominal pain, sepsis, diarrhea, or shock

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87
Q

What is pancreatitis?

A

Inflammation of the pancreas

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88
Q

What is the pancreas?

A

glandular organ that produces digestive enzymes and regulatory hormones such as insulin and glucagon

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89
Q

When does pancreatitis occur?

A

When trypsin (a protease) is activated early int he pancreas instead of the duodenum causing damage to the pancreas

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90
Q

What are the types of pancreatitis and what species do they occur in?

A

Acute more common in dogs and chronic more common in cats

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91
Q

What are the predisposing factors of pancreatitis?

A
  1. High fat diet
  2. Genetics
  3. Dietary Indiscretion
  4. Abrupt dietary changes
  5. Trauma
  6. Drug or medication toxicity
  7. Hormonal disease
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92
Q

What are the signs of acute pancreatitis?

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Anorexia
  3. Fever
  4. Vomiting
  5. Diarrhea
  6. Renal Failure
  7. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
  8. Multiple Organ Failure
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93
Q

What are the signs of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  1. Anorexia
  2. Lethargy
  3. Weight Loss
  4. Hiding in Cats
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94
Q

What can chronic pancreatitis lead to?

A

Diabetes mellitus and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

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95
Q

What is the treatment for pancreatitis?

A

hydration therapy and pain management

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96
Q

What is canine parvoviral enteritis?

A

common and highly contagious viral infection

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97
Q

Who is most susceptible to parvo?

A

Young dogs (6 weeks to 6 months) and unvaccinated or not fully vaccinated

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98
Q

How does parvo spread?

A
  1. Direct fecal to oral
  2. Indirect through fomites
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99
Q

How long can parvo survive in the environment?

A

Weeks, months, or years

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100
Q

How long is fecal shedding for parvo?

A

occurs days before and after infection. Usually before symptoms and continues for 10 days after recovery

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101
Q

What are the acute symptoms of parvo?

A
  1. V/D (often hemorrhagic)
  2. Dehydration
  3. Nausea
  4. Lethargy
  5. Abdominal Pain
  6. Fever
  7. Leukopenia
  8. Neurological Symptoms
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102
Q

How do you diagnose parvo?

A

Fecal antigen testing

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103
Q

What is the treatment for parvo?

A
  1. Hydration therapy
  2. Antiemetics
  3. Antibiotics
  4. Nutritional Support
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104
Q

What are the symptoms of urinary disease?

A
  1. failure to produce urine
  2. elevation of creat/bun in blood
  3. presence of bacteria in urine’
  4. discomfort on urination
  5. glucose in urine
  6. blood in urine
  7. producing small amounts of urine
  8. PU/PD
  9. Excessive urination
  10. Frequent urination
  11. WBCs in urine
  12. Straining to urinate
  13. high levels of waste products in the blood
  14. V/D
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105
Q

Define anuria

A

failure of kidneys to produce urine

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106
Q

Define azotemia

A

elevation of creat and bun in the blood

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107
Q

Define Bacteriuria

A

presence of bacteria in urine

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108
Q

Define dysuria

A

discomfort, pain, or burning on urination

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109
Q

Define glucosuria

A

glucose in the urine

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110
Q

Define hematuria

A

blood in the urine

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111
Q

Define Oliguria

A

production of only a small amount of urine

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112
Q

Define polydipsia

A

excessive thirst

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113
Q

Define polyuria

A

excessive urination

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114
Q

Define pollakiuria

A

frequent urination

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115
Q

Define proteinuria

A

increase levels of protein in the urine

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116
Q

Define pyuria

A

presence of wbcs in urine

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117
Q

Define stranguria

A

straining to urinate

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118
Q

Define uremia

A

high levels of waste products in the blood

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119
Q

What are kidneys?

A

Paired, bean-shaped organs in the abdominal cavity on either side of the spine

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120
Q

What is the purpose of the kidneys?

A

filter waste and excess fluid from the blood

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121
Q

What are glomeruli?

A

Filters of the kidney

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122
Q

What is it called when you estimate the function of the kidney?

A

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

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123
Q

What is chronic kidney disease?

A

involves a progressive loss of renal function due to tissue damage

124
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic kidney disease?

A
  1. Azotemia
  2. Hypertension
  3. Proteinuria
  4. PU/PD
  5. V/D
  6. Lethargy
  7. Anorexia
  8. Dehydration
  9. Oral ulceration
  10. Uremia
125
Q

How many stages of chronic kidney disease are there?

A

4

126
Q

Describe Stage 1 CKD

A

Subclinical, usually undetected

127
Q

Describe Stage 2 CKD

A
  1. GFR less than 25% or normal
  2. Azotemia present
  3. Decreased ability to concentrate urine
  4. PU/PD
128
Q

Describe Stage 3 CKD

A
  1. GFR decline
  2. Azotemia present
  3. Clinical Signs present
  4. Reevaluate every 3-6 months
129
Q

Describe Stage 4 CKD

A
  1. GFR decline
  2. Sever azotemia
  3. Clinical Signs present
  4. Reevaluate every 1-3 months
130
Q

What is the treatment for chronic kidney disease?

A

Identify and treat primary disease
Treat complications

131
Q

What is acute kidney injury aka?

A

Acute renal failure

132
Q

What causes acute renal failure?

A

toxins, ischemia, & infections

133
Q

What are the clinical signs of acute renal failure?

A
  1. V/D
  2. Anorexia
  3. Depression
  4. Oliguria
  5. Oral ulceration
134
Q

What are the grades of acute renal failure?

A

Based on serum creatinine
1. Less than 1.6
2. 1.7-2.5
3. 2.6-5
4. 5.1-10
5. Greater than 10

135
Q

What is the survival rate of acute kidney failure?

A

50%

136
Q

Treatment for acute kidney failure

A

Hydration therapy
Increase urine output
Parental feeding tube
Dialysis

137
Q

What is urolithor calculus?

A

Mineral salt stone found in the urinary tract

138
Q

Define
1. Nephrolith
2. Urocystolith
3. Ureterolith
4. Urethrolith

A

Stone in
1. Nephron
2. Bladder
3. Ureter
4. Urethra

139
Q

Treatment for urolithiasis

A

SX removal of stones
Catheter removal of stones
Lithotripsy
Dissolution via urinary acidification

140
Q

Prevention of urolithiasis

A

Owner education
Dietary changes
Monitoring of urine by owner

141
Q

What causes urinary tract infections?

A

Could be the result of a cather or urolith or could be secondary to other diseases such as diabetes mellitus, hyperadrenocorticism, and CKD

142
Q

What are the symptoms of UTI?

A
  1. Dysuria
  2. Hematuria
  3. Polyuria
  4. Inappropriate Urination
  5. Urine containing WBCs, RBCs, or bacteria
143
Q

What is the treatment for UTI?

A

Antibiotics

144
Q

What is FLUTD?

A

Feline lower urinary tract disease or feline urologic syndrome

145
Q

What are the conditions of FLUTD?

A
  1. Urolithiasis
  2. Neoplasia
  3. Trauma
  4. Feline interstitial or idiopathic cystitis
  5. UTI
146
Q

What does the urinary tract consist of?

A

Bladder, ureters, and urethra

147
Q

What are the common clinical signs of FLUTD?

A

Polyuria, Hematuria, Stranguria

148
Q

Who is most at risk for FLUTD?

A

Cats 2-6 years old

149
Q

Where is the thyroid?

A

gland that is wrapped around the front of the trachea just below the larynx

150
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A

When the thyroid is overactive and produces to much T4 and T3 leading to increased metabolic rate

151
Q

What is T4?

A

Thyroxine

152
Q

What is T3?

A

Triidothyronine

153
Q

Who is most at risk for hyperthyroidism?

A

Middle-aged and geriatric cats

154
Q

What are the symptoms of Hyperthyroidism?

A
  1. Weight loss
  2. Increased appetite
  3. Increased excitability
  4. PU/PD
  5. V/D
155
Q

What are the signs of hyperthyroidism on exam?

A
  1. Elevated T4
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Heart murmur
  4. Hypertension
  5. Enlarged thyroid gland
  6. Dyspnea
  7. CHF
156
Q

What is Apathetic Hyperthyroidism?

A

Involves vomiting, depression, and anorexia

157
Q

What are the treatment options for hyperthyroidism?

A
  1. Thyroidectomy or Hemithyroidectomy
  2. Radioactive Iodine Medication
  3. Antithyroid drugs
  4. Low Iodine Diet
158
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A

Occurs when there is a deficiency of thyroid hormones leading to a decreased metabolic rate

159
Q

What are the 2 types of hypothyroidism?

A

Lymphocytic Thyroiditis & Idiopathic Thyroid Atrophy

160
Q

What is lymphocytic thyroiditis?

A

immune mediated and occurs when lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages invade and destroy the thyroid gland decreasing its functionality

161
Q

What is idiopathic thyroid atrophy?

A

Describes the idiopathic replacement of thyroid tissue with adipose tissue

162
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A
  1. Lethargy
  2. Depression
  3. Dullness
  4. Exercise Intolerance
  5. Weight Gain
  6. Obesity
  7. Low T4 & T3
  8. No pruritic alopecia
  9. Hypothermia or heat seeking behaviors
163
Q

What is the treatment of hypothermia?

A

Daily oral hormonal replacement medication

164
Q

What is the significance of CBC?

A

gives information on the patients RBCs, WBCs, & platelets including size and appearance

165
Q

What is packed cell volume?

A

PCV
proportion of RBCs to whole blood volume AKA hematocrit

166
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

whole lysed blood concentration

167
Q

What is anemia?

A

Deficiency of healthy rbcs

168
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

elevation of the # of RBCs above normal

169
Q

What are the types of leukocytes?

A
  1. Eosinophil
  2. Neutrophil
  3. Monocyte
  4. Lymphocyte
  5. Basophils
170
Q

What would an abnormal increase or decrease of WBCs indicate?

A

infection

171
Q

What is the significance of erythrocytes?

A

Carry oxygen throughout the body by way of the protein hemoglobin

172
Q

What is unique about mammalian erythrocytes?

A

lack a cell nucleus

173
Q

How are erythrocyte indices established?

A

RBC count, HGB count, & PCV

174
Q

What is the purpose of RBC indices?

A

Applied to identify various types of anemias or blood deficiencies

175
Q

What is a manual RBC counter called?

A

hemacytometer

176
Q

How are RBC indices obtained?

A

by comparing total RBCs to PCV

177
Q

Considerations for counting RBCs

A
  1. Can be counted manually or mechanically
  2. Requires calibration base on size which varies by species
  3. Automated counters are more accurate
  4. Both require diluted sample
178
Q

What is the neubauer Hemacytometer Method

A

manual means of determining the # of RBCs using an unopette system

179
Q

What are other names for PCV?

A

Hematocrit and Erythrocyte Volume Fraction

180
Q

How do you measure PCV?

A

the percentage of RBCs in whole blood

181
Q

What is the normal PCV for dogs?

A

35-45%

182
Q

What is the normal PCV for cats?

A

25-45%

183
Q

What is it called when PCV is decreased?

A

Anemia

184
Q

What can cause anemia?

A
  1. Hemorrhage from ulcers or trauma
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Lack of RBC production
185
Q

What causes an increased PCV?

A

Dehydration or increase in RBC production

186
Q

What do you evaluate with a PCV?

A
  1. The PCV
  2. Color pigmentation and clearness of plasma
  3. Direct microscopic examination for examination of microfilaria and other blood borne parasites
187
Q

What is mean corpuscular volume?

A

Average volume of RBCs

188
Q

How do you calculate MCV?

A

(PCV x 1000)/RBCs in femtoliters

189
Q

What is the significance of Hemoglobin?

A
  1. Iron containing proteins in RBCs
  2. Carries Oxygen from the lungs to the tissues in the body.
  3. Assists with acid/base balance of the blood
190
Q

How do you measure hemoglobin?

A

photometric methods or automated cell counters

191
Q

How do you record hemoglobin?

A

g/dL or g/L

192
Q

How do you rapidly assess Hemoglobin?

A

1/3 PCV

193
Q

What is mean corpuscular hemoglobin?

A

Average mass of hemoglobin found in a sampler per RBC

194
Q

How do you calculate MCH?

A

(Hb x10)/RBC

195
Q

What is mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration?

A

Average concentration of hemoglobin in a given volume of RBCs

196
Q

How do you calculate MCHC?

A

Hemoglobin concentration/PCV

197
Q

Which of the RBC indicies is the most precise?

A

MCHC because it does not use the RBCs

198
Q

What do you examine on a blood smear?

A
  1. RBC morphology
  2. WBC Differential Count
  3. Estimated platelet count
199
Q

RBC normocyte

A

uniform average size

200
Q

RBC macrocytic

A

abnormally large

201
Q

RBC microcytic

A

Abnormally small

202
Q

Anisocytosis

A

substantial discrepancies in RBC size

203
Q

How do you mark the severity of erythrocyte variations

A

mild, moderate, severe

204
Q

What could cause mycrocytic RBCs?

A

Vitamin or mineral deficiencies, genetic traits, or certain iatrogenic changes

205
Q

Define normochromic

A

fully developed cells with a normal amount of hemoglobin

206
Q

Hypochromic

A

cells with inadequate concentration of hemoglobin (pale pink)

207
Q

Describe mammalian RBCs

A

Whitish, innermost area due to biconcave formation and lack of nucleus & cellular organelles

208
Q

Describe reptile, birds, and reptilian RBCs

A

have nucleus

209
Q

Torocyte

A

RBC with an abrupt transition from pale white to red ring caused by poor slide smear technique

210
Q

Poikilocytosis

A

10% or more increase of abnormally shaped cells

211
Q

Codocytes

A

dark circular target appearance

212
Q

Causes of codocytes

A
  1. Cell membrane collapse secondary to very low hemoglobin content
  2. Increased cholesterol and lechithin content
  3. Bile insufficiency
  4. Liver disease
  5. Splenectomy
  6. Anemia
213
Q

Leptocytes

A

abnormally thin flattened RBCs

214
Q

What causes leptocytes?

A
  1. Decreased hemoglobin volume or increased surface area of cell membrane
  2. Anemia
215
Q

Elliptocytes

A

Cigar or egg shaped RBCs attributed to flaw in membrane that is found with all types of anemia

216
Q

Schistocytes

A

Fragmented RBCs of varying shapes such as keratocytes, triangulocytes, helmet shaped cells

217
Q

What causes schistocytes?

A

Burns, uremia, hemolytic anemias, and DIC

218
Q

Spherocytes

A

Round, spherical form with decreased surface area most commonly found in dogs

219
Q

What causes spherocytes?

A
  1. Immune related hemolytic anemia
  2. Defective membrane assembly
  3. Traumatic or toxic injury to RBCs
220
Q

Describe stomatocytes

A

Pale center is rod or smile shaped

221
Q

What causes stomatocytes?

A

Inherited disorder in dogs or liver disease

222
Q

Describe acanthocytes

A

Cells exhibiting obvious blunt protrusions extending from the cell wall and have an inconsistent shape

223
Q

What causes acanthocytes?

A

caused when RBC membranes contain excess cholesterol and/or abnormal plasma lipoproteins

224
Q

Describe echinocytes

A

have copious amounts of little spicules protruding from a roughly spherical surface

225
Q

What is another name for echinocytes?

A

burr cells

226
Q

What causes echinocytes?

A
  1. Renal disease
  2. Horses after vigorous exercise
  3. Canines with lymphosarcoma and renal disease
  4. Handling errors such as after a transfusion or improper drying
227
Q

What is agglutination?

A

Clustered together without any clear structural constriction

228
Q

What is agglutination associated with?

A

Presence of an antibody or immune disease

229
Q

What is basophilic stippling?

A

Granulated appearance of ribosomal structures found in certain erythrocytes

230
Q

What station do you use to see basophilic stippling?

A

New methylene blue

231
Q

What causes basophilic stippling?

A

Anemia
Lead poisoning
Active erythropoiesis

232
Q

What are blister cells?

A

Blister or vacuole has formed and is absent of any hemoglobin content

233
Q

What causes blister cells?

A

Iron deficiency

234
Q

What is crenation?

A

Cells contract for to lack of water and have notched or scalloped edges

235
Q

What are eccentrocytes?

A

Rbcs appear semicircular due to adhesion of cell membranes from opposing sides of the wall

236
Q

What causes eccentrocytes?

A

Onion and garlic ingestion
Administration of oxidant drugs

237
Q

What are ghost cells?

A

Rbcs that have lysed spiking out hemoglobin content

238
Q

What are Howell jolly bodies

A

Rbcs that did not dispel DNA now visible are round purple basophilic inclusions

239
Q

What causes Howell jolly bodies

A

Splenectomy
Regenerative anemia
Spleen disorders

240
Q

What are heinz bodies?

A

Small inclusions of denatured hemoglobin found on rbcs

241
Q

What causes heinz bodies

A

Oxidant drugs
Lymphosarcoma
Hyperthyroidism
Onion consumption.
Diabetes mellitus in cats

242
Q

What are nrbcs

A

Nucleated rbcs
Younger smaller rbcs that have retained their nucleus

243
Q

What causes nrbcs in mammals

A

Severe bone marrow stress

244
Q

What species are nrbcs normal in?

A

Birds reptiles fish and amphibians

245
Q

What are reticulocytes?

A

Immature rbcs

246
Q

How do you view reticulocytes?

A

Wright’s stain or nmb

247
Q

What is reticulocyte production index?

A

How rapidly reticulocytes are produced in the system

248
Q

What increases reticulocyte count?

A

Blood loss
Disease shortened rbc loss
Anemia
Low oxygen intake

249
Q

What species does not produce reticulocytes in cases of severe chronic anemia?

A

horses

250
Q

Types of leukocytes

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Eosinophils
  5. Basophils
251
Q

Causes of increased neutrophils?

A

Respond to inflammation

252
Q

Causes of eosinophils?

A

Associated with mast cells, allergies, parasitic disease, and fungal infections

253
Q

Causes of lymphocytes?

A

Arrive at sites of inflammation a few days after it starts

254
Q

Causes of monocytes?

A

Plentiful during inflammation

255
Q

Causes of basophils

A

increase due to allergic or parasitic infection

256
Q

What are the granular leukocytes

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

257
Q

What are the non-granular leukocytes

A

monocytes and lymphocytes

258
Q

What are banded cells?

A

Non segmented immature cells

259
Q

What are toxic neutrophils?

A

Hypersegmented

260
Q

What is hemolysis?

A

Rupturing and destruction of rbcs

261
Q

Describe plasma

A

Yellowish fluid which contains the blood, proteins, and lipid particles

262
Q

What is serum?

A

Plasma after coagulation has occurred

263
Q

Describe hemolytic serum

A

Red or pinkish caused by ruptured rbcs

264
Q

Describe icteric plasma

A

Yellow color indicating liver disease

265
Q

Describe lipemic plasma

A

Opaque has high lipids

266
Q

Significance of high globulins

A

Autoimmune diseases or kidney/liver disease

267
Q

Significance of low albumin

A

Malnutrition, severe burns, Disease

268
Q

Significance of globulin

A

Electrophoresis vs. fibrinogens

269
Q

Significance of urea

A

measure of GFR

270
Q

Significance of BUN

A

kidney disease

271
Q

Significance of CREAT

A

kidney disease

272
Q

Significance of ALT

A

liver disease

273
Q

Significance of ALP

A

liver disease

274
Q

Significance of GGT

A

Liver, pancrease, and kidney

275
Q

Significance of AST

A

Not connected to particular organ but can be associated with liver disease in conjuction with ALT

276
Q

Increase of Serum Sodium

A

Hypernatremia may indicate dehydration

277
Q

Decrease of Serum Sodium

A

Hyponatremia may indicate kidney failure

278
Q

Increase of Potassium

A

Hyperkalemia indicates adrenal cortical hypofunction

279
Q

Decrease of Potassium

A

Hypokalemia indicating alkalosis and insulin therapy

280
Q

Increase of Serum Chloride

A

Hypercholemia indicating metabolic acidosis

281
Q

Decrease of Serum Chloride

A

Hypochloremia indicating vomiting, anorexia, malnutrition, diabetes insepidus

282
Q

Increase of Serum Calcium

A

Hypercalcemia may indicate pseudohyperparathyroidism

283
Q

Decrease of Serum Calcium

A

Hypocalcemia may indicate malabsorption or preeclampsia or pancreatic necrosis

284
Q

What is parturient paresis?

A

Milk fever which is decreased calcium potentially causing GI stasis

285
Q

Increase of serum phosphorous

A

Hyperphosphatemia indicates kidney failure or poisoning with ethylene glycol

286
Q

Decrease of serum phosphorous

A

Diet low in phosphorous

287
Q

Increase blood glucose

A

Hyperglycemia indicates Diabetes mellitus

288
Q

What is bilirubin?

A

Byproduct of the metabolism of hemoglobin

289
Q

Significance of increased bilirubin

A

Hyperbilirubenemia causes jaundice

290
Q

What can increased cholesterol cause?

A

hypothyroidism, lipemia, diabetes mellitus, hyperadrenocorticism

291
Q

What is bile

A

produced by the liver and important for digestive process

292
Q

Increased bile acid

A

indicates liver disease

293
Q

Decreased bile acid

A

Normal

294
Q

What is amylase?

A

digestive enzyme that functions to break down carbohydrates

295
Q

What does increased amylase indicate?

A

Pancreatitis

296
Q

Significance of increased lipase?

A

Pancreatitis

297
Q

What does ACTH stand for?

A

Adrenocorticotopic Hormone

298
Q

What does ACTH stim test diagnose?

A

Cushings disease

299
Q

How do you do an ACTH stim test?

A

Baseline Cortisol test, Administration of ACTH, 2nd sample taken 1 hour later, compare samples. If there is an increase in cortisol then patient has cushings

300
Q

What is LDDS?

A

Low Dose Dexamethasone Suppresion Test

301
Q

What does LDDS determine?

A

If cushings is pituitary or adrenal origin

302
Q

How do you perform and LDDS?

A

Baseline cortisol, administration of synthetic cortisol, Second sample taken 4-8 hours later, Decrease cortisol production = pituitary tumor, No decrease = adrenal tumor

303
Q

Cytology Staining Techniques

A
  1. Romanowsky Stains
  2. New Methylene Blue
  3. Papanicolanu Stains
304
Q

What are the types of Romanowsky stains?

A
  1. Wrights
  2. Giemsa
  3. Diff-quik
305
Q

What does new methylene blue examine?

A

Cell nuclei, mast cell granules, and infectious organisms

306
Q

What do papanicolanu stains determine?

A

Gram staining can identify bacterial agents
Pink=gram negative
Purple=gram positive

307
Q

What is ascites?

A

Fluid in the abdominal region

Animal Nursing (1 decks)

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