STSC Exam

Question 1

For construction, electrical power tools and cords must:
A) Make use of ground fault circuit interrupters
B) Be a two wire, double insulated construction
C) Be grounded, operational and not cause shock to persons in order to be utilized
D) Make use of ground fault circuit interrupters or be part of an assured equipment grounding conductor program

Answer 1

The best selection is the answer D because: Electrical power tools and cords used in construction must make use of ground fault circuit interrupters or an assured equipment grounding conductor program.

Question 2

The components of a typical extension cord grounding system include? (What must be present for a device plugged into an extension cord to be adequately grounded?)
1A- third wire in the cord, called aground wire
Il-A three-prong plug with a grounding prong on one end of the cord Ill-Proper gauge wires
IV-A three-wire, grounding-type receptacle at the other end of the cord V-A properly grounded outlet
A) I a n d V
B) I, Il and V
C) ,11, Il andVI
D) ,1I, VI and V

Answer 2

The best selection is answer D because:
According to NIOSH Publication No. 2009-113: Electrical Safety: Safety and Health for Electrical Trades Student Manual, the grounding path for extension cords must be kept intact to keep workers safe. A typical extension cord grounding system has four components:
: Aht rie wernsi or cale grown porng no eno dne of cord
* Athree-wire, grounding-type receptacle at the other end of the cord
* A properly grounded outlet

Question 3

A certified STS is expected to do the following:
A) Ensure the profitability of the company.
B) Sek methods to improve personal knowledge and understanding of methods, techniques, and practices for workers’ protection.
C) Seek to improve personal knowledge of financial and accounting practices related to supervising construction activities.
D) Carefully assess situations and problems to identify the most productive methods of completing construction tasks, while working to maintain the work area in a manner that will pass regulatory inspection.

Answer 3

The best selection is answer B because:
Seek methods to improve your knowledge and understanding of methods, techniques, and practices for the protection of workers. STS Code of Ethics

Question 4

Arrange the following hazard control steps in the most appropriate sequence: (1) guard hazard (2) engineer out hazard, if possible (3) educate personnel.

Answer 4

The best selection is answer A because:
Engineering is always the first and most successful method of dealing with a problem. The second choice is to guard against the hazard, and finally to educate the human element.

Question 5

Which action is preferred when dealing with minor infractions of work or safety rules?
A) Oral reprimand
B) Written reprimand
C) No response or consequence
D) Suspension

Answer 5

The best selection is answer A because:
Progressive companies believe the proper way to deal with minor rule infractions is to issue an oral reprimand for the first offense. Progressive discipline is then administered for additional violations.

Question 6

Which action is not required of a company that receives an OSHA citation?
A) Pay the fine
B) Pay the fine and post notice of violation
C) Correct violation
D) Retrain all employees

Answer 6

The best selection is answer D because:
Training of employees may not be required by every citation issued by OSHA.

Question 7

System safety analysis can be applied to which of the following?
A) Generally only on most complex of processes or systems
B) Very simple systems with only a single component C) Any system that has interacting components
D) Any system, only after some loss has occurred

Answer 7

The best selection is answer C because:
The discipline of system safety can be applied to almost any system that has interacting components. It si an application of systematic and forward-looking techniques to identify and control hazards. Discipline is most effective if it begins within the conceptual phases of project development and should continue throughout the entire life of the project or product.

Question 8

What should a supervisor do when a crew must walk across as area with open floor holes to get to their work area?
A) Warn them of hazards and tell them to avoid the holes.
B) Let them walk through.
C) Have floor holes covered before allowing workers to walk across.
D) Have the floor holes covered and inform crew of load surface restrictions.

Answer 8

The best selection is answer D because:
Have the floor holes covered and inform your crew of the load surface restrictions.

Question 9

The strongest motivator, according to the Contemporary Motivation Theory is:
A) Fear of a boss
B) Status
C) Recognition of achievement
D) Pay

Answer 9

The best selection is answer C because:
Current theory holds that recognition of achievement is the single most important motivator.

Question 10

Management has increased work hours and is pushing for more productivity. As STS, you are concerned about some of the safety risks associated with this production schedule. You should:
A) Report concern to the US Department of Labor (DOL)
B) Tel workers to launch a work slow down
C) Inform/communicate increased hazards due to increased production and verify that risk is acceptable
D) Do not challenge the management; accept the production schedule

Answer 10

The best selection is answer C because:
Informing/communicating to upper management the increased hazards due to increased production and verifying that risk is acceptable is the best solution.

Question 11

The best evaluation of tasks descriptor involving steps, hazards and solutions is?
A) System Safety Analysis (SSA)
B) Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)
C) Job Safety Analysis (ISA)
D) Management Oversight and Risk Tre (MORT)

Answer 11

The best selection is answer C because:
Job Safety Analysis is a systematic analysis of job elements. It results in an in-depth evaluation by workers and first-line supervisors of individual steps and hazards. JSAs also offer protective measures or solutions to identified hazards.

Question 12

If a staff safety engineer is given authority by the General Manager to stop operations on a construction site whenever he or she observes an imminent danger situation,. Which of the following correctly identifies that authority?
A) Staf authority
B) Staff to line authority
C) Authority of delegation
D) Functional authority

Answer 12

The best selection is answer D because:
The operational control delegated the safety engineer to The operational control delegated the safety engineer to shut down dangerous jobs by the General Manager is functional or line authority.

Question 13

What PE si required for a worker si using a jackhammer with a spade to remove asphalt?
A) None, there is not a hazard
B) Hearing and eye protection
C) Hearing, eye, head and foot protection
D) Hearing, eye, head, foot and respiratory protection

Answer 13

The best selection is answer C because:
Without further information of the actual work conditions, the minimum required would be for hearing, eye, head, and foot protection.
1926.95(a

Question 14

Minimally, ____ designated person(s) shall be on duty above ground whenever any employee is working underground and shall be responsible for securing immediate aid, and keeping an accurate count of employees underground in case of emergency.
A) No/zero
B) One
C) Two
D) Number depends on size of underground operation

Answer 14

The best selection is answer B because: 1926.800(g)(3)
Designated person: At least one designated person shall be on duty above ground whenever any employee is working
underground. This designated person shall be responsible for securing immediate aid and keeping an accurate count of
employees underground in case of emergency. The designated person must not be over-committed to duties resulting in negligence of the required counting function.

Question 15

A medical questionnaire required when safety workers place an employee in respiratory protection must be evaluated by whom?
A) The industrial hygienist
B) The safety director
C) A licensed health care professional
D) Any supervisor in the employee’s chain

Answer 15

The best selection is answer C because: 1910.134(e)(2)(i)
The employer shall identify a physician or other licensed health-care professional (PLHCP) to perform medical evaluations using a medical questionnaire or an initial medical examination that obtains the same information as the medical questionnaire.

Question 16

OSHA states that each employee on a walking/working surface (horizontal and vertical surface) with an unprotected side or edge which is feet or more above a lower level shall be
protected from falling by the use of guardrail systems, safety net systems, or personal fall arrest systems.
A) 3
B) 6
C) 10
D) 12

Answer 16

The best selection si answer B because:
1926.501(b) (1) “Unprotected sides and edges.” Each employee on a walking/working surface (horizontal and vertical surface) with an unprotected side or edge that is 6 feet (1.8 m) or more above a lower level shall be protected from falling by the use of guardrail systems, safety net systems, or personal fall arrest systems.

Question 17

A crew member deliberately violates a safety procedure. What should be done?
A) Do nothing
B) Stop work, write a formal complaint and explain
C) Talk with worker to explain what he/she was doing wrong, and allow him/her to return to work
D) Summon the Safety Supervisor

Answer 17

The best selection is answer B because:
Stop work, write a formal disciplinary report, and explain the reasoning to the worker. The key to disciplinary reporting in this instance is that the worker deliberately violated the rule.

Question 18

OSHA requires that each employee on a scaffold more than
feet above a lower level should be provided with fall protection to prevent from falling to that lower level.
A) 3
B) 6
C) 10
D) 12

Answer 18

The best selection is answer C because: 1926.451(g)(1) - Fal Protection
Each employee on a scaffold more than 10 feet (3.1 m) above a lower level shall be protected from falling to that lower level. Paragraphs (g)(1)(i) through (vii) of this section, establish the types of fall protection to be provided to the employees on each type of scaffold. Paragraph (g)(2) of this section addresses fall protection for scaffold erectors and dismantlers.

Question 19

The OSHA 300 Log requires that a noise-induced hearing loss be recorded under which category?
A) Disorders due to skin problem
B) Disorders due to injury
C) Disorders due to poisoning
D) Hearing loss

Answer 19

The best selection is answer D because:
Recordable occupational illnesses on the OSHA 300 log are categorized as follows:
* Injury
* Skin disorder
* Respiratory conditions
* Poisoning
* Hearing loss
* Al other illnesses

Question 20

Which of the following would not be included under the provisions of ANSI Z16.2, the standardized method of recording accident falls?
A) Injury classifications
B) Hazardous Condition Classification
C) Workers Compensation Rating
D) UnsafeActs

Answer 20

The best selection is answer C because:
ANSI Z16.2 does not include any provisions for recording workers’ compensation information.
The classifications that are included are:
* Nature of Injury
* Part of Body Affected
* Source of Injury
* Accident Type
* Hazardous Condition
* Agency of Accident
* Agency of Accident Part

Question 21

When working on a scaffold 50 feet high who must approve the scaffold for use?
A) The Superintendent
B) The Supervisor
C) The Competent person
D) The Engineer

Answer 21

The best selection is answer C because:
1926.451(a)(3) No scaffold shall be erected, moved, dismantled, or altered except under the supervision of competent persons.

Question 22

Both large and small businesses are required to report work- related fatalities within eight hours of the nearest OSHA Area Office. What other mishaps require reporting within this time frame?
A) The injury of an employee that required hospitalization, as a result of a work-related incident
B) The in-patient hospitalization of three or more employees, as a result of a work-related incident
C) The injury of more than one employee that requires hospitalization or involves traumatic amputation or broken bones, as a result of a work-related incident
D) The transport of five or more workers to a hospital, as a result of a work-related incident

Answer 22

The best selection is answer B because:
The OSHA requirements for reporting fatalities or multiple hospitalization mishaps are contained in 1904.8 which states, “Within 8 hours after the death of any employee from a work-related incident or the in-patient hospitalization of three or more employees as a result of a work-related incident, the employer of any employees so affected shall orally report the fatality / multiple hospitalizations by telephone or ni person to the Area Office of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Question 23

A carpenter was injured on the job when a splinter ran into his arm on. He located the on-site registered nurse (RN) who removed the splinter and cleaned the puncture wound. The RN said he would not need additional treatment, however, the RN requested he return the next day for observation. Which of the following is the best OSHA classification for this incident?
A) First-aid injury
B) Recordable lost time injury
C) Medical treatment, greater than first-aid
D) Not recordable, less than first-aid

Answer 23

The best selection is answer A because:
First aid treatment is defined by OSHA as “any one-time treatment, and any follow-up visit for the purpose of observation, of minor scratches, cuts, burns, splinters, and so forth, which do not ordinarily require medical care. Such one-time treatment, and follow-up visit for the purpose of observation, is considered first aid, even though provided by a physician or registered professional personnel.”

Question 24

A guardrail system’s major components include?
A) Top rails, mid rails
B) Top rails, toe boards
C) Top rails, screens
D) All of the above

Answer 24

The best selection si answer D because:
The major components of a guardrail system are top rails, mid rails, toe boards, and screens.

Question 25

Safety professionals perform accident investigations primarily to:
A) Discipline rule violators
B) Provide OSHA and the country with valid information
C) Satisfy the insurance carrier
D) Determine causal conditions

Answer 25

The best selection si answer D because:
Accidents or mishaps are investigated by safety and health professionals to determine root cause factors and to prevent similar future occurrences by implementing appropriate corrective actions.

Question 26

Accident analysis is primarily used as a(n)?
A) Performance review system
B) OSHA reporting system
C) Baseline for goals
D) Indicator of problem areas

Answer 26

The best selection is answer D because:
The goal of accident analysis is to uncover problem areas.

Question 27

For injury accident analysis, information sources include all of the following except?
A) First-aid report
B) Insurance rate table
C) First Report of Injury form
D) Supervisor accident investigation

Answer 27

The best selection is answer B because:
The insurance rate table provides little or no useful information for analysis of accidents since it is most often based on past experience

Question 28

The major cause(s) of construction accidents in the United States is/are?
A) Falls
B) Lack of PPE (personal protective equipment)
C) Struck by falling objects
D) Electrical shocks

Answer 28

The best selection is answer A because:
Falls are, by far, the most common cause of office mishaps.

Question 29

Various methods of securing line accountability for safety are widely accepted within the safety community. Which techniques will have long lasting influence on the line manager or supervisor?
A) Charge accidents to specific departments
B) Put safety in supervisor’s appraisal
C) Ensure that safety results affect supervisor’s income
D) All of the above

Answer 29

The best selection is answer D because:
Current thinking within the safety community would support the contention that all actions listed will make line supervision take notice.

Question 30

What are the two areas of accident costs?
A) Budgeted and Non-Budgeted
B) Insured and Uninsured
C) Direct and Indirect
D) Direct and Uninsured

Answer 30

The best selection is answer C because:
Accident costs have, for many years, been divided into direct and indirect costs. Direct costs are those costs directly and often immediately associated with the accident such as transportation of injured, medical services, days lost from work, etc. Indirect costs would include lost production, replacement of injured workers, costs of training a replacement, etc.

Question 31

Who typically does most accident investigations within the construction community?
A) Supervisor
B) Manager
C) Chief Executive Officer
D) Safety Engineer

Answer 31

The best selection is answer A because:
The supervisor is the prime investigator in most industrial
accidents. They are closest to the action and are most familiar with the environment, resultant interactions, and stresses that occur.

Question 32

Who should investigate a serious or fatal accident in an active mishap prevention program?
A) A senior management official
B) The safety engineer
C) The supervisor
D) The insurance investigator

Answer 32

The best selection is answer A because: Senior management should investigate:
* Fatal accidents
* Accidents with large losses or potential for large losses
* Mishaps that result or could result ni adverse public reaction

Question 33

Often several accident investigators will be at the scene of an accident at the same time due varying reasons for gathering information. Which of the following is the least important task with respect to the STSs accident investigation responsibilities?
A) Getting to the scene before anybody else Arriving first on the scene
B) Preventing a second accident
C) Preserving as much evidence as possible
D) Taking care of, and/or transporting the injured and/or dead

Answer 33

The best selection is answer A because:
There is no doubt that an investigator’s first task is to arrive at the scene safely. Al responders are in a hurry to get to the scene of the accident, but cannot render assistance or perform an adequate investigation fi they do not arrive safely.

Question 34

While interviewing witnesses to an accident or participants in the event, investigators often find themselves talking to a hostile and very defensive people. Which of the following methods would most likely result in an honest and truthful statement from these interviewees?
A) Inform these people that all that they say will be written down and filed; thus, telling the truth is imperative
B) Tel them the information will only be used for accident prevention purposes and no disciplinary actions will result from the investigation
C) Inform the person that it would be appreciated it if they would tell the truth since it may help secure investigator’s current position within the company and should not affect them
D) Tel them that they are supposed to be informed of their rights, but will not be, so they have nothing to fear because anything they say cannot be used against them

Answer 34

The best selection is answer B because:
Dealing with hostile, belligerent, or dishonest witnesses or participants, is a way of life for accident investigators. There are many theories about obtaining frank, candid, and honest statements from these people. However, it is generally accepted that the most effective way is to explain that your investigation is for accident prevention purposes only and cannot be used for any type of disciplinary action.

Question 35

Throughout accident investigations, the interviewing of witnesses is often required to determine facts relative to the
event. Which of the following choices offers the best place to conduct interviews for safety investigations?
A) nI a secure board room equipped with sound recording devices
B) in the employees’ lunch room
C) At the employees’ work area
D) In your office with door shut

Answer 35

The best selection is answer D because:
This is a difficult question because the preferred place to conduct interviews changes with conditions. The investigator needs to make sure the witness feels at ease during the interview, which may mean conducting the interview at a location where the witness feels comfortable.

Question 36

The best descriptor of the legal premise of “chain of custody” is?
A) Secure storage
B) Documentation of possession
C) Ownership
D) Personal knowledge

Answer 36

The best selection is answer B because:
Often if evidence is to be used in a court of law, the chain of custody must be documented. The chain of custody is simply a documented explanation of where the evidence was obtained and where it has been since that time.

Question 37

Exactly when should an accident investigation begin?.
A) Within 48 hours of the time the accident scene is secured; that is, after emergency services have left the site
B) Immediately - the sooner the better
C) As soon as possible, realizing that protection of the injured and prevention of a second accident will take precedence
D) As soon as all legal notifications have been made and the scene has been secured against the destruction of evidence

Answer 37

The best selection is answer C because:
Prompt investigation of the accident scene, including interviewing witnesses, is of utmost importance; however, protection of the injured and prevention of a second accident must always take priority.

Question 38

The primary reasons for accidents are? A) Personality factors
B) Environmental factors
C) Physical limitations
D) Combinations of factors

Answer 38

The best selection is answer D because:
Accidents are usually multi-causal in nature and cannot be attributed entirely to any single factor.

Question 39

While reviewing the plans for a sewer line project to be performed by a sub-contractor, the investigator is puzzled by the definition of a “trench excavation” used throughout the document. Which of the following is the best definition of an OSHA trench excavation?
A) A hole deeper than wide
B) Any excavation less than 20 feet in depth that is longer than it is wide
C) An excavation where the dimension B” is greater than the dimension A” as long as A” is less than 2X”B”
D) A narrow excavation where the depth is greater than the width but not greater than 15 feet

Answer 39

The best selection is answer D because:
OSHA at 1926.650 defines a trench or trench excavation as “…a narrow excavation (in relation to its length) made below the surface of the ground.

Question 40

While reviewing preliminary plans for the construction of a radio transmitting site located at 9,000 feet elevation, workers travel from sea level to the site each day and return after 12-hour shifts. With which of the following would you be most concerned?
A) Caisson disease
B) Dequervain’s disease
C) Raynauds’ phenomenon
D) Hypoxia

Answer 40

The best selection is answer D because:
Hypoxia is caused by a lack of oxygen and can be experienced by industrial workers in extreme elevations, under heavy workloads, or in confined spaces with oxygen deficiencies.

Question 41

Contractors can sometimes use the term “competent person” in a general sense. Which of the following descriptions best fits the intent of the OSHA standards when referring to a “Competent Person”?
A) The person required at confined space, and hoisting & rigging, and excavation &trenching job sites
B) The supervisor with the ability to identify existing and future hazards on the job site and who reports directly to the person responsible for the operation
C) The person who has the authority to shut down the operation anytime the risk analysis indicates that a moderate or greater hazard is reasonably expected to cause injury to workers
D) The person who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions that are unsanitary, hazardous, or
dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them

Answer 41

The best selection is answer D because: OSHA defines a competent person as “one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards ni the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them”.

Question 42

A pre-job survey of a sub-contractor safety program reveals a disturbing program element to the investigator. The sub-contractor has performed many Job Safety Analyses (JSAs) to satisfy the legal requirement for a hazard analysis, but the JSAs were then filed and never used in the field. Which of the following is an invalid use for a JSA?
A) To provide training for new workers and refresher training for the veteran workers
B) As a survey document when a job or task is modified by new procedures or equipment
C) As a replacement for job instructions or workplace procedures
D) As a survey instrument to see if a job has changed since last evaluated and to determine if the job is currently being performed correctly

Answer 42

The best selection is answer C because:
Job Safety Analysis si a systematic analysis of job elements. It results ni an in-depth evaluation by workers and first-line supervisors of the individual steps and hazards.

Question 43

A contractor has proposed several options for developing and complying with safety and health procedures while reviewing a bid for a large construction job. Which of the following will produce the most effective safety and health interface?
A) The sub-contractor should develop their own procedures and follow them to the letter
B) The sub-contractor should use the general contractor’s procedures to provide site standardization
C) The sub-contractor should follow all OSHA rules and, thus, will not need procedures
D) The sub-contractor should develop their own procedures with assistance from the general contractor

Answer 43

The best selection is answer D because:
The current opinion is that the sub-contractors should develop their own procedures, with help from the general contractor. This method will assure maximum standardization and flexibility while assuring effective accident prevention programs.

Question 44

Medical personnel must be available for contractor consultation on matters of occupational health. The employer must also make arrangements prior to the start of any construction project for medical attention in case of serious injury on the job site. In lieu of a nearby hospital or clinic, a person trained in first-aid must be available at the job site. All of the following are valid and acceptable methods of obtaining the required first aid training except:
A) A valid certificate in first-aid training from the US. Bureau of Mines
B) A valid certificate in first-aid training from the American Red Cross
C) Training equivalent to the American Red Cross course in first aid with the correct documentation
D) Instruction in emergency medicine from a county hospital

Answer 44

The best selection is answer D because:
In order for first-aid training to be acceptable to OSHA, the training needs to be equivalent to nationally recognized training courses such as the US. Bureau of Mines, the American Red Cross etc.

Question 45

Professional Engineers are required for the design of a shoring system at what exact depth?
A) 15 feet
B) 22 feet
C) 20 feet
D) 25 feet

Answer 45

The best selection is answer C because:
The requirements ni §1926.652(c)(2) through (4) are supplemented with additional requirements in text, tables, and illustrations ni appendices to Subpart P1. As noted, Appendix F states that a registered professional engineer (RPE) must design protective systems for excavations deeper than 20 feet.

Question 46

The required placards for shipping hazardous materials are required by whom?
A) The driver
B) The carrier
C) The shipper
D) The manufacturer

Answer 46

The best selection is answer C because:
According to DOT regulations ni 49 CFR Part 397, the shipper must:
* Transport the products by truck, railroad, ship, or airplane
* Determine the product’s proper shipping name, hazard class, identification number, correct packaging, placard, tables, and markings
* Package materials, label, and mark packages prepare shipping paper, and supply placards
* Certify on shipping paper that the shipper properly complied with shipment rules.

Question 47

When a new hazardous chemical has been introduced to the workplace by a subcontractor, who is expected to inform the general contractor and subcontractor workers?
A) Superintendent
B) Subcontractor
C) Foreman
D) Safety Officer

Answer 47

The best selection si answer B because:
Any employer that introduces a new hazardous chemical into the multi-employer workplace must inform the general contractor and affected sub-contractor workers.

Question 48

The three distinct parts of a “means of egress” are?
A) exit access, exit, and exit discharge
B) door, passageway, and ramps
C) door opening device, door, and exit light
D) horizontal exits, stairs, and ramps

Answer 48

The best selection is answer A because:
NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, states, A” means of egress si a continuous and unobstructed way of exit travel from any point ni a building or structure to a public way and consists of three separate and distinct parts: (a) the exit access, (b) the exit, and (c) the exit discharge.

Question 49

In which location is a Commercial Motor Vehicle, transporting hazardous materials, is required to display placards in which of the following locations?
A) front, rear, and both sides of the vehicle
B) front, rear, and both sides of HAZMAT container
C) front, rear, top, and both sides of the vehicle
D) front, rear, top, and both sides of HAZMAT container

Answer 49

The best selection is answer A because:
According to 49 CFR 172.504, placards should be attached as workers load and before they drive the vehicle. The placards must appear on both sides and ends of the vehicle.

Question 50

OSHA requires al of the following on a confined space permit except:
A) The permit space to be entered B) The purpose of the entry
C) The name of the CEO or President
D) The date and the authorized duration of the entry permit

Answer 50

The best selection is answer C because:
1910.146(1) Entry permit: The entry permit that documents compliance with this section and authorizes entry to a permit space shall identify:
* Permit space to be entered;
* Purpose of the entry; Date and the authorized duration of the entry permit;
* Authorized entrants within the permit space, by name or by such other means (for example, through the use of rosters or tracking systems) as will enable the attendant to determine quickly and accurately, for the duration of the permit, which authorized entrants are inside the permit space.

Question 51

The first step when developing an emergency plan should be to?
A) Identify and evaluate potential disasters
B) Assess potential harm that may be caused
C) Evaluate how many company assets are required
D) Decide on the chain of command

Answer 51

The best selection is answer A because:
Although all answers need to be addressed during the planning process, according to the NSC, “before an organization initiates an emergency plan, it should identify and evaluate the potential disasters that might occur”.

Question 52

The most important reason for investigating accidents is:
A) To assess responsibility.
B) To prevent future occurrences.
C) For liability protection.
D) For workers’ compensation

Answer 52

The best selection is answer B because:
Investigations should be performed to identify root causes and contributory causes in an effort to prevent the reoccurrence of the accident.

Question 53

The primary consideration when preparing for a potential disaster is?
A) Selecting the emergency committee
B) Identifying a person to be the on-scene commander
C) Doing advanced emergency planning
D) Having a list of necessary state and federal directives

Answer 53

The best selection is answer C because:
According to the NSC, “advanced emergency management planning is the best way to minimize potential loss from natural or human-caused disasters or accidents.”

Question 54

The primary consideration in storing chemicals?
A) Ventilation
B) Fire Suppression
C) Control of static
D) Segregation

Answer 54

The best selection is answer D because:
The first principle of good storage practice for chemicals is segregation, including separation from other materials in storage, from processing and handling operations, and from incompatible materials.

Question 55

Emergency preparedness plans in a natural emergency usually call for which of the following as the first consideration?
A) Turn the responsibility over to authorities for the protection of resources
B) Safeguard people and abandon systems
C) Shutdown processes involving hazardous/toxic materials
D) Safeguard both personnel and equipment/processes

Answer 55

The best selection is answer D because:
When planning for an emergency, the protection of all resources must be considered. Naturally, the saving of life must come first; however, the protection of processes and equipment is also of utmost concern. Should the decision be made to abandon hazardous processes, an additional disaster could be created.