Structural chromosomal abnormalities Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 types of translocation

A

reciprocal

robertsonian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does translocation mean

A

exchange of two segments between non-homologous chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the name give to the DNA repair mechanism whereby they rejoin the broken double stranded DNA

A

Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What happens when NHEJ goes wrong

A

the end joining occurs but onto different chromosomes creating derivative chromosomes
there is no net gain or loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does translocation effect aligning of chromosomes during meiosis

A

Homologous chromosomes usually align as bivalent structures during metaphase 1, however since a translocation took place it means that it will align as a tetravalent structure. this is because the chromosomes segment must align with its complement homologous chromosome segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Result of unbalanced reciprocal translocation

A

-Many lead to miscarriage (hence why a woman with a high number of unexplained
miscarriages should be screened for a balanced translocation)
-Learning difficulties, physical disabilities
-Tend to be specific to each individual so exact risks and clinical features vary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is robertsonian translocation

A
  • only occurs in acrocentric chromosome
  • the p arms are chopped off and lost . Then the q arms are stuck together instead
  • balanced carrier has 45 chromosomes and will be healthy because there is still a copy of both the q arm
  • However if there are 46 chromosomes including robertonian then it will be unbalanced
  • p arms encode rRNA
  • trivalent alignment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

2 ways Trisomy 21 can arise and how will it look different on a karyotype

A

NDJ and Robertsonian
in NDJ there will be 3 chromosome present together
In robertsonian there will 2 chromosomes together with an extra on translocated chromosomes (e.g. chromosome 14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

5 other structural chromosomal changes changes

A
  • terminal deletion
  • interstitial deletion
  • inversion
  • duplication
  • ring chromosomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Deletions

A

-1 :7000 live births
-Deletion may be terminal or interstitial
-Causes a region of monosomy
-Haploinsufficiency Of some genes
-Contiguous gene syndronme (multiple, unrelated clinical features)
-Phenotype is specific for size and place on deletion
Gross deletions seen on metaphase spread on G-banded karyotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Microdeletions

A
  • Many patients had no abnormality visible on rnetaphase spread
  • High resolution banding, FISH and now CGH showed ‘micro’ deletions
  • Only a few genes may be lost or gained
  • Velocardiofacial (DiGeorge), 22q11
  • Wolf-Hirschhorn, 4p16
  • Williarns, 7q11
  • Snith-Magenis, 17p11
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sources of sample for karyotyping for prenatal and postnatal

A
prenatal
--amniocentesis
-chorionic villus sampling
--cell-free fetal DNA 
postnatal
--blood
saliva
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Chromosome staining

A
  • most common = G-banding

- G =Giemsa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why does bands form in chromosome staining

A
  • chromatin
  • 2 different sorts: euchromatin & heterochromatin
  • Euchromatin GC-rich; loosely packed; genes active
  • Heterochromatin = AT-rich; tightly packed; genes inactive
  • Stain differently
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

process of chromosomes staining work

A

-5ml venous blood taken
-add phytohemagglutinin and culture medium
-culture at 37 degree for 3 days
-add colchicine and hypotonic saline
-cells fixed
spread cell onto slide by dropping
-digest with trypsin and stain giemsa
-analyse metaphase spread
-karyotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what can you use g-banding to look for

A

aneuploidies
translocation
very large deletion

17
Q

what is FISH

A

-Fluorescent in situ hybridisation
-Hybridisation single stranded nucleic acid strand binds to a new single stranded nucleic acid
strand (DNA,’DNAor DNA/RNA)
-Cultured cells, metaphase spread
–Fluorescent probe
–Denature probe and target DNA
–Mix probe and target DNA
–Probe binds to target

18
Q

what is probe

A
  • A single stranded DNA (or RNA) molecule
  • Typically 20 — 1 OOO bases in length
  • Labelled with a fluorescent or luminescent molecule (less cormnnly a radioactive
    isotope)
  • In some techniques thousands or rfillions of probes are used simultaneously
19
Q

what can you use FISH to look for

A

aneuploidies
translocation
large deletion
– uses fluorescent probes for specific parts of the genome

20
Q

what is array CGH

A
--Array comparative 
genomic hybridisation 
-For detection of sub- 
microscopic 
chromosomal 
abnormalities 
-Patient DNA labelled 
Green 
-Control DNA labelled in red
21
Q

what can you use aCGH to look for

A

for microdeletions and microduplications

22
Q

what QF-PCR

A
  • quantitative fluorescence polymerase chain reaction

- uses microsatellites

23
Q

what is microsatellite

A

-Short repeated sequences
-Number of repeats varies
between individuals
-Total length of microsatellite
sequence varies between
individuals
-Microsatellites: Length polymorphism
• Dinucleotide
• Trinucleotide
• Tetranucleotide
and so on..
-Short tandem repeat (STR) =Microsatellites=
simple sequence repeat (SSR)

24
Q

how to detect microsatellite

A
  • Isolate DNA from individual
  • Design primers specific to flanking sequences
  • PCR amplification
  • Gel electrophoresis
  • PCR amplification of microsatellite region
  • Genotype size of fragments on gel-based system
  • Homozygotes = single product of specific size
  • Heterozygotes = two different sized products
25
Q

PCR

A

-Exponential amplification of a DNA fragment of known sequence
-Components of the PCR reaction:
—Template — DNA to amplify
—primers — Short pieces Of SSDNA (15-30bp)
—polymerase — thermostable enzyme (Taq)
—Nucleotides — single base mixture (dNTPs)
—Buffer—To maintain pH
—MgC12 — Essential for polymerase activity
- PCR consists of incubating at three different temperatures
This results in three different processes happening:
Denaturation
Annealing
Extension

26
Q

QF-PCR

A

-Perform PCR using primers for microsatellite known to be on chromosome 21 (if testing for Down’s)
-Should be two copies Of microsatellite (one from one from father, like any
other autosornal locus, gene, whatever)
-If homozygous, there will be a single peak Of high signal
-If heterozygous, there will be two peaks of similar, lower signal