Streptococci and Enterococci Flashcards

1
Q

What are some key features of acute pharyngitis?

A

fever, sore throat, headache, cervical lymphadenopathy, exudate; difficult to differentiate from viral infection; 5% asymptomatic carriers; transmitted by respiratory droplets

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2
Q

With erysipelas, what is the most affected part of the body?

A

the legs (used to be the face)

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3
Q

What is a key feature of impetigo?

A

honey crusted lesions

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4
Q

True or false: Impetigo and pharyngitis are caused by the SAME strains of S. pyogenes.

A

False

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5
Q

What does the streptokinase virulence factor do?

A

cleaves fibrinogen and fibrin (“clot buster”) to facilitate spread in infected tissues

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6
Q

Scarlet fever is a complication of what?

A

streptococcal pharyngitis

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7
Q

What are some of the key features of scarlet fever?

A
  • rash first appears as tiny red bumps on chest and abdomen 12-48 hours after fever
  • accentuation of rash in skin folds (Pastia’s lines)
  • circumoral pallor
  • sore throat
  • fever
  • bright red tongue w/ “strawberry” appearance
  • desquamation begins after rash fades
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8
Q

How does necrotizing fasciitis present?

A

with malaise, diffuse myalgia, low grade fever, and excruciating pain

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9
Q

How does necrotizing fasciitis develop?

A

It is caused by a S. pyogenes infection deep in the subcutaneous tissues that spreads along the fascial planes, leading to extensive destruction of the muscle and fat. It also leads to systemic toxicity with a mortality rate exceeding 50%.

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10
Q

What is Toxic Shock-like Syndrome caused by?

A

SPEs (Streptococcal Pyrogenic Exotoxins) that are similar to S. aureus TSST-1

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11
Q

Which virulence factor is responsible for the rash in scarlet fever?

A

erythrogenic exotoxin (an SPE)

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12
Q

What are the post-streptococcal sequelae we discussed?

A
  • rheumatic fever

- acute glomerulonephritis

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13
Q

What are the characteristic lesions associated with rheumatic fever?

A

cardiac lesions called Aschoff bodies (granulomas)

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14
Q

How can we prevent perinatal GBS infection?

A

Cultures should be performed on vaginal/rectal swabs collected at 35-37 weeks gestation; if mother is found to have GBS, treat her with prophylactic antibiotics.
*Combined vaginal/rectal swab improves isolation rates by 40% over vaginal swab alone

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15
Q

What is the most common cause of community-acquired acute bacterial pneumonia?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

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16
Q

What is a vaccine target for Strep. pneumoniae?

A

type-specific antibodies to capsular polysaccharide

17
Q

What is the most common clinical presentation of pneumococcal disease among children younger than 2 years?

A

bacteremia

18
Q

Which member of Bovis group streptococcus is the one to remember and why?

A

S. gallolyticus ss. gallolyticus (aka, S. bovis biotype I), as it is associated with carcinoma of the colon

19
Q

Vancomycin Resistant Enterococci (VRE) is most often mediated by which species?

A

E. faecium (plasma-mediated w/ vanA or vanB gene conferring resistance)

20
Q

Which type of atmosphere does Strep prefer? How is this different from Staph?

A

Strep prefers anaerobic or CO2 atmosphere, while Staph prefers aerobic atmosphere

21
Q

Compare the planes of division of staph and strep.

A

Strep has only 1 plane of division (perpendicular to long axis of chain), while staph can divide along all 4 planes.

22
Q

Describe the PYR test.

A

It is a quick spot test that helps identify enterococcus and group A strep. PYR impregnated discs serve as a substrate for detection of pyrrolidonyl peptidase, which will cleave PYR.

23
Q

Which laboratory test is useful for confirming diagnosis of rheumatic fever?

A

ASO: antibody detection of Anti-Streptolysin O antibodies with latex agglutination (Abs appear 3-4 weeks after initial exposure to group A strep)