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xD3 Pharm Exam 1 > Strauss Emergency > Flashcards

Strauss Emergency Flashcards

2
Q

What is the protocol for an endotracheal tube?

A
  1. Induce to unconscious with Propofol or Brevital (barbiturates)
  2. Oxygenate the patient
  3. Paralyze with succinylcholine (depolarizing muscle relaxant)
  4. Place endotracheal tube using laryngoscope
  5. Patient breathes Sevoflurane or Isoflurane
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3
Q

General anesthesia puts the patient into what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 3

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4
Q

When do many deaths associated with sedation occur?

A

During recovery

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5
Q

What is the biggest complication with sedation and GA cases?

A

Airway complication

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6
Q

While treating a medical emergency, what is important to ensure someone is doing while the team is treating the patient?

A

Recording what is doen when and how much

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7
Q

In any medical emergency, what must you think first?

A
  1. Airway
  2. Breathing
  3. Circulation
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8
Q

What is the best treatment for a medical emergency?

A

Prevent it (know your patient)

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9
Q

What is the term for the transient loss of consciousness as a result of a temporary decrease in cerebral blood flow with resultant ischemia?

A

Syncope

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10
Q

What is the most common emergency in the dental office?

A

Syncope

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11
Q

Why does syncope occur in the dental office?

A

Fight or flight kicks in but no muscle movement to pump blood to the brain so the patient faints

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12
Q

What is the demographic for syncope?

A

Males 16-35

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13
Q

What demographic do we normally not worry about syncope in from natural causes (e.g. could worry because of a medicine they take, but not worried that psychogenic will cause a syncope)?

A

Elderly

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14
Q

When does vasovagal response syncope normally occur?

A

Nonpsychogenic; due to hunger, dehydration, exhaustion. Vagus nerve slows heart.

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15
Q

Both psychogenic and non-psychogenic syncope are rare in what position?

A

Supine

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16
Q

What is the first sign of syncope?

A

Diaphoresis

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17
Q

What pulse should you check in a syncope patient?

A

Carotid because the BP will be in 30mmHg range will not be felt in wrist

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18
Q

What will be the pulse of a syncope patient?

A

Bradycardia 30-50 bpm

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19
Q

What is the ideal position for a syncope patient?

A

Astronaut - head and thorax in the same plane with feet elevated. Have the patient move their muscles to pump blood

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20
Q

How long should it take to recover from syncope?

A

20 seconds

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21
Q

What is the one relative contraindication to giving every patient oxygen in an emergency?

A

COPD patient who is oxygen driven. Dr Strauss says everyone gets oxygen in a medical emergency.

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22
Q

What is the most important drug in the emergency kit?

A

Oxygen

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23
Q

What are the 4 ventilatory statuses?

A
  1. Normal
  2. Decreased (e.g. seizure, airway compromised)
  3. Respiratory distress
  4. Ventilatory arrest or collapse
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24
Q

What is the best immediate method of ventilation that gives 16% oxygen?

A

Mouth to mouth

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25
Q

Mouth to mask ventilation gives how much oxygen?

A

16%, the same as mouth to mouth

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26
Q

What is the most efficient ventilator tool?

A

Endotracheal intubation

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27
Q

The chin thrust, neck tilt, and angle thrust airway opening maneuvers are designed to do what?

A

Bring the tongue forward off the pharyngeal wall

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28
Q

What is the term for a hollow plastic tube that physically separates the tongue from the pharyngeal wall and can attach to a bag valve mask set up?

A

Oral airway

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29
Q

Which is more well-tolerated in the awake patient: oral airway or nasal airway?

A

Nasal airway

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30
Q

What are 2 methods to get a surgical airway?

A
  1. Cricothyrotomy

2. Tracheostomy

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31
Q

Is a tracheostomy an emergency procedure?

A

No, it’s only for a long-term airway

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32
Q

What is an emergency airway for obstruction above the trachea?

A

Cricothyrotomy

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33
Q

What must be placed in cricothyrotomy to maintain the airway after the airway is opened with the blade handle?

A

Trach tube or anything solid and hollow

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34
Q

How long will the brain last without oxygen before unconsciousness?

A

6 seconds

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35
Q

What is the term for breathing that is more rapid or more deep than is required for normal maintenance of arterial PaO2, PaCO2, and blood pH?

A

Hyperventilation

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36
Q

What are the causes of hyperventilation?

A

Anxiety, pain, metabolic acidosis, hypercapnia, cirrhosis, organic CNS disorder

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37
Q

Palpitations during hyperventilation are what type of heart arrhythmias?

A

PVC

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38
Q

What are the neurologic manifestations of hyperventilation?

A
  1. Perioral parasthesia

2. Carpopedal spasms due to hypocalcemia

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39
Q

If a patient is hyperventilating, how should you position them and what should they do?

A
  1. Sit up

2. Have them breathe into a paper bad or hands

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40
Q

What is the term for acute paroxysmal chest pain as a result of coronary artery disease?

A

Angina

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41
Q

What is the term for angina associated with being at rest and having arrhythmias?

A

Prinzmetal angina

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42
Q

What are the steps for recognition and treatment of Angina?

A
  1. Patient will have dull heavy pain in the chest and radiating to left arm
  2. Give one of their nitroglycerine, wait 5 mins
  3. If first nitro doesn’t work, give 2nd nitro
  4. If 2nd nitro doesn’t work, the patient is having an MI until proven otherwise
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43
Q

If the patient is okay after the first dose of nitro, can you continue the appointment?

A

Yes

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44
Q

Can you give EPI to an angina patient?

A

Yes, 2 carpules

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45
Q

Myocardial necrosis and cell death resulting from a deficiency of blood flow to a region of myocardium

A

Myocardial infarction

46
Q

What are symptoms that can differentiate MI from angina?

A

Diaphoresis, dyspnea, sense of impending doom

47
Q

What will initial treatment of MI be?

A

Nitroglycerine

48
Q

If the patient doesn’t have their own nitroglycerine, what dose should be given?

A

150 grams

49
Q

What narcotic can be given to an MI patient?

A

Morpine 2-5 mg q10min IV or SC

50
Q

What is the term for the cessation of cardiac function as a result of non-functional arrhythmia?

A

Cardiac arrest

51
Q

What is the best prevention of cardiac arrest?

A

Recognize an at-risk patient and prevent MI or angina

52
Q

What are two terms that might cover a foreign body in the bronchus, or upper airway, or swallowing a foreign object?

A
  1. Aspiration

2. Obstruction

53
Q

What is the main obstruction area?

A

The vocal cords

54
Q

Could aspiration or obstruction have any symptoms at all?

A

No, could be asymptomatic if swallowed

55
Q

If the patient is coughing, what should be done?

A

Encourage coughing, trendelenburg position

56
Q

What is the term for a state of hypersensitivity acquired through exposure to a particular allergen, re-exposure to which leads to an immunologic reaction?

A

Anaphylaxis

57
Q

What is the character of a type I allergy?

A

AnaphylaxisImmediateIgE mediated

58
Q

What is the character of a type IV allergy?

A

DelayedDermatologicCellular mediated

59
Q

What is the treatment for a type IV skin allergy?

A

50 mg Benadryl

60
Q

What is the treatment for anaphylaxis?

A

Epi 3.0 mg SC

61
Q

What is the syndrome of cerebral disorders characterized by transient paroxyisms involved changes in the state of sensorium, motor activity, or consciousness?

A

Seizure disorders, absence, myoclonic, grand mal, tonic-clonic

62
Q

What are the phases of seizure disorders?

A

ProdromalIctalPost ictal

63
Q

How should the patient be positioned during the seizure?

A

Side on floor, maintain airway, but no mouth gag

64
Q

What is given for status epilepticus (brain is in a state of persistent seizure, one continuous non-stop seizure for more than 30 minutes?

A

Diazepam 2-10mg IV

65
Q

What are the symptoms of a local anesthetic overdose?

A

Talkative, excitedBP, HR, respiration increased, tinnitusThen seizures, cardiorespiratory depression

66
Q

What can be given as an anticonvulsant?

A

Valium IV

67
Q

What can be given for hypotension?

A

Ephedrin 25 mg IM

68
Q

What 2 things can lead to local anesthetic overdose?

A
  1. Liver disease

2. Plasma cholinesterase deficiency

69
Q

What is the maximum dose of lidocaine?

A

4.4 mg/kg

70
Q

What is the maximum dose of EPI?

A

0.2 mg

71
Q

Maximum 2% xylocaine 1:100 EPI adult dose

A

8 carpules

72
Q

What is the most common cause of hypotension?

A

From drugs (orthostatic hypotension)

73
Q

What is a disorder of ANS in which syncope occurs when supine patient assumes an upright position, can occur from sitting to standing or lying to sitting?

A

Orthostasis hypotension

74
Q

Are drugs needed in dental office emergencies?

A

No, when in doubt never medicate

75
Q

What antihistamine is in the emergency kit?

A

Benadryl

76
Q

What anticonvulsant is in the emergency kit?

A

Valium

77
Q

What narcotic antagonist is in the emergency kit?

A

Narcan

78
Q

What corticosteroid is in the emergency kit?

A

Hydrocortisone

79
Q

What analgesic is in the emergency kit?

A

Morphine

80
Q

What is the vasopressor in the emergency kit?

A

Ephedrine

81
Q

Which antihypoglycemic is in the emergency kit?

A

50% dextrose

82
Q

Which antiarrythmic is in the emergency kit?

A

Lidocaine

83
Q

Which anticholinergic is in the emergency kit?

A

Atropine

84
Q

Which coronary vasodilator is in the emergency kit?

A

Nitroglycerine

85
Q

Which respiratory stimulant is in the emergency kit?

A

Ammonia spirit

86
Q

Which oral antihypoglycemic is in the emergency kit?

A

Carbohydrate (icing)

87
Q

Which bronchodilator is in the emergency kit?

A

Metaproteronol

88
Q

What is the most important tool in the management of medical emergenies?

A

Common sense

89
Q

Respiratory stimulants induce respiration via the nasal mucosa and medulla, increase respiration and heart rate, and are contraindicated in what patients?

A
  1. Asthma

2. COPD

90
Q

What is the ideal bronchodilator for acute allergic reactions and asthmatic reactions?

A

B2 agonist, Metaproteronol

91
Q

What should be used in asthmatic attack first?

A

Patient’s own mistometer (inhaler), if it does not work, give EPI

92
Q

What is the consideration for emergency suction in the emergency kit?

A
  1. Portable

2. Non-electric

93
Q

What is the character of epinephrine?

A
  1. Alpha and beta receptor agonists
  2. Bronchodilator
  3. Cardiac stimulator
  4. Vasopressor
94
Q

Which drugs are better at preventing histamine action rather than reversing it (can be used as a local anesthetic when allergy to lidocaine is noted)?

A

Antihistamine

95
Q

Should antihistamine be given to an asthmatic?

A

No, will thicken bronchial secreations

96
Q

Which antihistamine be given to an asthmatic?

A
  1. Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-trimeton) 10mg/ml

2. Diphenhydramine (Benedryl) 50 mg/ml

97
Q

Which are better at treating seizures as an anti-convulsant: benzodiazepines or barbiturates?

A

Benzodiazepine (Diazepam (vlium), Midazolam (versed) due to post-ictal depression

98
Q

Which is given in higher dose as anticonvulsant-diazepam (valium) or Midazolam (versed)

A

Diazepam 5mg/mlMidazolam 1mg/ml

99
Q

What is the narcotic reversal agent and dose?

A

0.4mg/ml Narcan

100
Q

Why is morphine given?

A

To decrease workload on the heart due to pain or anxiety (e.g. MI or congestive heart failure)

101
Q

When would morphine not be given?

A

In a head injury patient

102
Q

What can be given if you give too much morphine?

A

Narcan (narcotic reversal agent)

103
Q

When in doubt during an allergic reaction what should you give?

A

Corticosteroid (hydrocortisone)

104
Q

What in the emergency kit can be used as a diagnostic tool in unconsciousness and seizures?

A

Antihypoglycemic (IV dextrose, oral sucrose)

105
Q

IM glucagon is contraindicated in what patient?

A

Chronic hypoglycemia

106
Q

What is used for severe bradycardia (less than 40-50 beats/min) associated with hypotension?

A

Atropine (anticholinergic)

107
Q

What is a problem with atropine injections?

A

Will increase cardiac work and could increase an infarct

108
Q

What is the drug of choice for chest pain because it is a potent vasodilator?

A

Nitroglycerine

109
Q

What is the side effect of nitroglycerine?

A

Pulsating headache and flushing

xD3 Pharm Exam 1 (4 decks)

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