Strategic Planning Flashcards

1
Q

What is a zero-based budget?

A

A budget where nothing is permitted by mere precedent – all expenses have to be justified

Very time-consuming and detail-oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a Kaizen budget?

A

A budget which seeks to foster continuous, progressive, steady improvement

Kaizen = Japanese for “change for the better”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a rolling budget?

A

A budget whose time horizon will periodically add one time period from the future and subtract one from the past

E.g. a budget might encompass six months, starting with January through June, then including February through July, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a master budget?

A

A comprehensive budget for all of a firm’s activities

Includes summarized data from (1) operating budget, (2) financial budget, and (3) capital expenditures budget, where (1) tends to be most foundational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is included in an operating budget?

A

Forecasts related to operating income:

(i) sales
(ii) inventory
(iii) cost of goods sold
(iv) selling and G&A expenses
(v) income statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the role of a production budget within an operating budget?

A

Establishes how much to produce, given the beginning finished-goods inventory, (a) to meet the forecasted sales/demand and (b) to achieve the desired ending finished-goods inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the role of a schedule of inventory costs within an operating budget?

A

Includes

(a) a schedule for direct materials
(b) a schedule for direct labor costs
(c) a schedule for manufacturing overhead costs, which includes parts for VOH and FOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are other subsidiary budgets included within an operating budget?

A

(a) cost of goods sold budget
(b) budget for selling, general, & administrative expenses
(c) budgeted income statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is included in a financial budget?

A

A budget for cash flows and other finances

Also includes a budgeted balance sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is included in a capital expenditures budget?

A

A summary of expenditures for particular capital projects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a flexible budget?

A

A budget which allocates resources based on different projected levels of production/activity

Can be initially used to project activity for many different levels of production and then, as the year goes on, can help to better pinpoint what activity ought to look like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is responsibility accounting?

A

Internal accounting designed to trace costs (and other accounting elements) to particular “responsibility centers” within the business

Done to hold managers responsible for their particular areas

Includes budgeted forecasts to predict how different centers should behave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are different kinds of responsibility centers?

A

(1) cost centers = managers held responsible for controllable costs
(2) revenue centers = responsible for controllable revenues
(3) profit centers = responsible for controllable costs + revenues
(4) investment centers = responsible for controllable costs, revenues, and investments (i.e. rate of return)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is probability theory?

A

The use of probabilities to predict outcomes amid uncertainties

Assigns different probabilities to different events and calculates a weighted avg. outcome – the expected value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a probability distribution?

A

A graphical representation of all possible outcomes for some particular variable, each outcome being assigned a probability

Sum of the outcomes = 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For a probability distribution, what is standard deviation (σ)?

A

The level of variation or dispersion within the set of values – in this case, how “spread out” the distribution is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does it mean for two events to be independent or dependent?

A

Independent = the chance that one event occurs is the same regardless of whether the other occurs

Dependent = the chance that one event occurs is different if the other event occurs (or doesn’t occur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is joint probability?

A

The chance that both events will occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the joint probability of two independent events?

A

For independent events, their joint probability is the product of each of their individual probabilities

P(AB) = P(A) x P(B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the joint probability of two dependent events?

A

For dependent events, their joint probability includes the chance of A given B – P(A/B)

P(AB) = P(A/B) x P(B) = P(B/A) x P(A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is regression analysis?

A

A statistical process for establishing a relationship between variables based on a series of ordered pairs (or ordered triples if three variables, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a regression analysis measure?

A

Correlation (though only with probability), not causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the difference between simple and multiple regression analysis?

A

Simple = measures relationship of one dependent variable to one independent variable

Multiple = measures relationship of one dependent variable to more than one independent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a time series?

A

A sequence of data points (often ordered pairs) collected over a period of time at specific intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is econometrics?

A

Using math and statistics for the study of economics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

For regression analysis, what is the coefficient of correlation (r)?

A

Measures how linear of a relationship two variables have

\+1 = perfect direct correlation
-1 = perfect inverse correlation
0 = no correlation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

For regression analysis, what is the coefficient of determination (r^2)?

A

Measures the degree to which the change in the dependent variable can be accounted for by change in the independent variable

Since r must be between -1 and +1, r^2 must be between 0 and 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the Delphi method?

A

Seeking to gain information on a decision by sending out questionnaires to experts

These are sent in different “rounds,” with the responses aggregated and reported back to each expert each round, though individual responses remain anonymous

Thus this seeks out creativity (avoiding social pressure) while also seeking eventual consensus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When does the Delphi method tend to get used?

A

Only for very complex decisions and as a last resort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the purpose of scorecards?

A

They provide a measure of business performance in both financial and non-financial terms

Thus they can surpass financial statements, which are designed for external users and can be limited that way – but scorecards are also therefore based more on individual judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How specific should scorecards intend to be?

A

Very general – they should include only a few points focused on meeting company objectives, as designed for the intended audience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a balanced scorecard?

A

A scorecard that generally analyzes four key areas:

(1) learning & growth/innovation
(2) business processes
(3) customers
(4) finance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the first three (of five) costs which can be part of a product quality control program?

A

(1) prevention costs – costs to prohibit the production of defective products
(2) appraisal costs – costs to evaluate whether products are defective
(3) interior failure costs – costs incurred for defective products that are discovered before being sent to customers (e.g. reworking costs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the last two (of five) costs which can be part of a product quality control program?

A

(4) exterior failure costs – costs incurred for defective products that are discovered AFTER being sent to customers
(5) opportunity costs – the costs of forgone sales or unhappy customers due to defective products; includes the costs of factory capacity that had to be used for reworking products rather than making new ones

(5) is not as commonly included in quality control programs as (1) - (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is process value analysis (PVA)?

A

Evaluates whether each part in the production process adds value, i.e. whether each part adds something that pleases the customer

Done to eliminate unnecessary expenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

As regards process value analysis (PVA), what are push systems and pull systems?

A

Push systems are motivated by forecasted demand, thus “pushed” from early stages to later

Pull systems are motivated by actual demand, thus “pulled” by each department as it needs to meet the customer demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a just-in-time (JIT) system?

A

A system which seeks to eliminate (or drastically reduce) inventory costs by producing goods only as they are needed for customers – each stage finishes its processes “just in time” for the next stage, all the way till the customer receives the product

Often the result of PVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are different kinds of inventory tracking systems?

A

(1) sequential costing

(2) backflush costing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is sequential costing?

A

Tracking inventory as it moves through the manufacturing process, assigning costs to different processes as they physically occur

Also called synchronous costing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is backflush costing?

A

Assigning costs to inventory only when it reaches the end of the process, then “flushing back” the costs retroactively and assigning them to previous processes using standard costs

Often used for JIT systems

Also called delayed costing or endpoint costing

41
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of backflush costing over sequential costing?

A

Backflush costing is simpler and less expensive than sequential costing, as it does not have to record any WIP inventory

Yet it is not necessarily GAAP and it can preclude an audit trail

42
Q

What are different factors of product quality?

A

(i) performance
(ii) durability
(iii) aesthetics
(iv) conformance to standards
(v) reputation/perceived quality
(vi) ease of repair
(vii) additional features

43
Q

What are referred to as “best practices”?

A

The practices/processes of successful companies, mostly in making necessary and routine processes extremely efficient

44
Q

What are best practices concerning overall work organization?

A

(i) being results-based rather than task-based
(ii) structuring work so a single individual or team can complete it, avoiding the inefficiencies that come with transferring tasks to others
(iii) working concurrently rather than sequentially, when multiple tasks are needed done

45
Q

What are best practices concerning data capture?

A

(i) having integrated data systems so that data needs to be inputted only once
(ii) having accessible data systems so it is available on demand

46
Q

What are best practices concerning controls?

A

Identifying errors in data input, using automated technology and sampling

47
Q

What is backflush costing?

A

Assigning costs to inventory only when it reaches the end of the process, then “flushing back” the costs retroactively and assigning them to previous processes using standard costs

Often used for JIT systems

Also called delayed costing or endpoint costing

48
Q

What is benchmarking?

A

Quantifying some standard, almost always in relation to the actual practice of some other organization

49
Q

What are different factors of product quality?

A

(i) performance
(ii) durability
(iii) aesthetics
(iv) conformance to standards
(v) reputation/perceived quality
(vi) ease of repair
(vii) additional features

50
Q

What are referred to as “best practices”?

A

The practices/processes of successful companies, mostly in making necessary and routine processes extremely efficient

51
Q

What is strategic management?

A

Planning out a business’s operations for the long run, often done by rare and momentous decisions

It is more externally oriented, and generally includes four elements: (1) environmental analysis/scanning, (2) strategy development, (3) strategy implementation, and (4) evaluation and control

52
Q

What are best practices concerning data capture?

A

(i) having integrated data systems so that data needs to be inputted only once
(ii) having accessible data systems so it is available on demand

53
Q

What are best practices concerning controls?

A

(i) avoiding all defects in data on original entry

(ii) using sampling to detect errors

54
Q

What are best practices concerning geographical location?

A

(i) technologically integrating different locations so that information/communication is easily transferred
(ii) having geographically dispersed locations, in order to benefit customers

55
Q

What is benchmarking?

A

Setting goals for the business to reach, almost always in terms of achievements actually reached by other businesses

56
Q

What is the difference between real-value-added processes, business-value-added processes, and no-value-added processes?

A

(1) real = refers to processes that add value for the customer
(2) business = refers to processes that add value by being conducive to the business’s existence, e.g. regulatory compliance
(3) no = refers to processes that add neither real nor business value

57
Q

What is a process map?

A

Maps out the processes of a business in order to identify problem areas (e.g. bottlenecks, multiple data entries) and provide solutions

58
Q

What is strategic management?

A

Planning out a business’s operations for the long run

It is more externally oriented, and generally includes four elements: (1) environmental analysis, (2) strategy development, (3) strategy implementation, and (4) evaluation and control

59
Q

What are some evolving stages of strategic management?

A

(1) basic financial planning
(2) forecast-based planning
(3) strategic planning/externally oriented planning
(4) strategic management

60
Q

How does the cycle of ever-increasing competition generally work?

A

Firms providing a good can compete on its cost and quality until, eventually, many firms can provide the good at high quality and low cost
-at this point entry barriers are raised that prevent new firms from joining the market (e.g. economies of scale), and companies tend to merge

There also can be new markets to move into, and the development of new products as old ones die out

61
Q

What is forecast-based planning?

A

(i) involves three- to five-year plans

(ii) more environmental info is acquired

62
Q

What is strategic planning?

A

Planning assumed less by lower-level managers and more by higher-level managers engaged in formal top-down planning

63
Q

How does strategic management compare to the earlier evolving stages leading up to it?

A

(i) involves the higher-level centralization of planning
(ii) combines the external focus of some earlier stages, but does not neglect lower-level input (as strategic planning can) – and so is more integrative than top-down
(iii) develops reactions to various scenarios, rather than just forecasting what will happen
(iv) unlike other stages, engages in planning year-round, rather than setting aside normal operations momentarily for planning

64
Q

In what two components can a business’s external environment can be distinguished?

A

(1) societal environment – economic, cultural, political, and technological factors (e.g. environmentalism, cell phone technology, etc.)
(2) task environment – more related to the industry (e.g. competitors, labor unions, customers, lenders)

65
Q

What is hypercompetition?

A

A state of affairs where businesses must constantly improve their competitive advantage, since such advantages can sometimes last only for months

66
Q

As regards strategy development, what is a mission?

A

The purpose for the company as a whole

Included in a mission statement, or (if geared towards the future) a vision statement

67
Q

As regards strategy development, what are objectives?

A

Desired achievements that can be generated from a company’s mission, and usually given with specific deadlines

Sometimes distinguished between goals (unquantified, open-ended) and objectives (quantified, with a deadline)

68
Q

What is environmental scanning?

A

Evaluating a firm’s internal and external environment to identify strategic factors

Strategic factors = things affecting the business’s future performance that aren’t within management control in the short term

69
Q

Which tool is commonly utilized for environmental scanning?

A

SWOT analysis

Analyzes strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats – the first two being internal, the last two being external

70
Q

What does a SWOT analysis matrix usually look like?

A

Similar to a Punnett square, a SWOT matrix aligns strengths/weaknesses on one side (e.g. the top) and opportunities/threats on another (e.g. the left), such that four cells in the middle are the intersections of S & O, S & T, W & O, or W & T

These middle cells explain how a company’s strengths will respond to opportunities, how its strengths will respond to threats, and the same thing for its weaknesses

71
Q

In what two components can a business’s external environment can be distinguished?

A

(1) societal environment – economic, cultural, political, and technological factors (e.g. environmentalism, cell phone technology, etc.)
(2) task environment – more related to the industry (e.g. competitors, labor unions, customers, lenders)

72
Q

How does strategy development emerge from the environmental scanning phase?

A

It involves the formulation of strategies to use strengths and minimize weaknesses in the face of opportunities and threats

Specifically, involves the formulation of (i) a mission, (ii) objectives, (iii) strategies, and (iv) policies

73
Q

As regards strategy development, what is a mission?

A

An overall purpose for the business as a whole, encapsulated in a mission statement

If particularly future-oriented, can be called a vision statement

74
Q

How does strategy development emerge from the environmental scanning phase?

A

It involves the formulation of strategies to use strengths and minimize weaknesses in the face of opportunities and threats

Specifically, involves the formulation of (i) a mission, (ii) objectives, (iii) strategies, and (iv) policies

75
Q

What are stability strategies?

A

Various strategies to ensure stability in given situations

(i) the company might want to leave untouched a steady stream of profit from a stable position in the market
(ii) there might be instability given some big change, such as rapid growth, which requires a period of very careful and methodical changes
(iii) declining sales might be stabilized by reducing short-term expenditures to keep the company at its same position

76
Q

As regards strategy development, what are objectives?

A

Desired achievements that can be generated from a company’s mission, and usually given with specific deadlines

Sometimes distinguished between goals (unquantified, open-ended) and objectives (quantified, with a deadline)

77
Q

What is a hierarchy of strategies?

A

A nested series of strategies, where the higher-tiered ones explain how the company plans to achieve its objectives and mission, and where the lower-tiered ones go into more detail

78
Q

What are corporate strategies?

A

Strategies for issues regarding the corporation as a whole

79
Q

What are some different kinds of corporate strategies?

A

(1) growth strategies
(2) stability strategies
(3) retrenchment strategies
(4) portfolio strategies
(5) parenting strategies

80
Q

What are growth strategies?

A

Strategies focused on growing product lines – either in the same industry (concentration) or in others (diversification)

81
Q

As regards growth strategies, what are different ways to achieve concentration and diversification?

A

Concentration – through vertical growth (fulfilling the function of a previous supplier or distributor) or horizontal growth (increasing market share)

Diversification – through concentric growth (expanding into a related industry) or conglomerate growth (expanding into an unrelated one)

82
Q

As regards growth strategies, what is synergy?

A

The idea that businesses in related industries can be more profitable than either of them individually

83
Q

What are some different types of cooperative business strategies?

A

(i) joint ventures
(ii) licensing arrangements
(iii) collusion (which is illegal)

84
Q

What are stability strategies?

A

Various strategies seeking to keep the business stable in different circumstances:

(i) continuing as normal if sales and growth are healthy
(ii) cutting back short-term expenses if in a period of temporary deficits or reduced sales
(iii) being very cautious if experiencing other big changes (e.g. enormous growth)

85
Q

What are retrenchment strategies?

A

Strategies to reduce a company’s size or complexity in order to reduce expenses and regain its footing in the market

86
Q

What are some different retrenchment strategies?

A

(i) the company makes itself dependent on a big customer in order to reduce expenses (e.g. marketing) and ensure stability
(ii) the company sells a product line or exiting an industry altogether
(iii) the company seeks relief through bankruptcy

87
Q

What are portfolio strategies?

A

Strategies where a company’s product lines or businesses are treated like assets in a portfolio

The potential for future cash flows from different product lines depends largely upon the stage of the product life cycle they’re in

88
Q

What are different ways a business can be structured?

A

(1) simple structure – entrepreneurial, only works for small firms
(2) functional structure – involves several managers with particular functions, rather than a single head
(3) divisional structure – decentralized, different divisions have different product lines; can be inflexible/slow to action
(4) advanced – can be either matrix or network

89
Q

What are the five stages of the organizational life cycle?

A

(1) birth
(2) growth
(3) maturity
(4) decline
(5) termination

Structure and business strategies change as these stages develop
-moreover, this order is not identical for all businesses: some stages can be skipped, some cycles can be restarted, etc.

90
Q

What are the four types of competitive business strategies?

A

(1) cost leadership – aiming for low costs in a broad market
(2) differentiation – aiming for qualitative superiority in a broad market
(3) cost focus – aiming for low costs in a narrow/niche market
(4) differentiation focus – aiming for qualitative superiority in a narrow/niche market

91
Q

Among competitive strategies, what are differentiation and low-cost strategies more likely to achieve?

A

Differentiation strategies are more likely to achieve higher profits

Low-cost strategies are more likely to achieve a greater market share

92
Q

What are some examples of cooperative business strategies?

A

(i) joint ventures
(ii) licensing arrangements
(iii) collusion – which is illegal

93
Q

What are functional strategies?

A

Another category within the hierarchy of strategies that is focused particularly on creating a competitive advantage, developing a “core competency” of the business

94
Q

As regards marketing, what is the difference between a push strategy and a pull strategy?

A

Push = aims to place products in many suppliers’ hands so that customers will inevitably become aware of the product

Pull = aims to make the customers aware of the product, which will then lead to suppliers demanding it

95
Q

As regards product pricing, what is the difference between skimming and penetration pricing?

A

Skimming = starting with a high price, gradually lowering it as pressure to lower it increases (e.g. fewer customers willing to buy it; competitors develop similar products)

Penetration = starting with a low price, gaining a large market share and gradually increasing the price

96
Q

How do strategies get implemented in a company?

A

Via programs, with procedures being the sequences to carry out a program, and budgets being developed for the funding of the program

97
Q

What is goal displacement?

A

Displacing objectives (which can be vague or hard to quantify) with specific procedures for the attainment of those objectives

98
Q

What is suboptimization?

A

When a subdivision’s performance is optimized at the expense of the business’s well-being

99
Q

What are some characteristics of a good system of controls?

A

(i) supports strategy
(ii) obtains the minimum required info
(iii) timely & reliable
(iv) identifies exceptions
(v) emphasizes rewards rather than punishments