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Strat. and Tactics > Strat and Tactics > Flashcards

Strat and Tactics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five major subsystems of NIIMS?

A

ICS, Training, Qualification and Certification System, Publications management, Supporting technologies

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2
Q

What are the functional areas of ICS?

A

Command, Operations, Logistics, Planning, and Finance/Administration.

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3
Q

What advantage does using a branch instead of a group provide in ICS?

A

Allows the Branch Director to expand the branch without span of control concerns.

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4
Q

What are the factors that indicate the need for written IAPs?

A

Multiple jurisdictions, long duration, multiple operational periods, activated ICS elements, required by agency policy, hazardous materials, special operations

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5
Q

What is the acceptable spread of the span of control in the ICS?

A

Two to seven

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6
Q

What factors influence the number of subordinates a person can effectively manage?

A

Training/experience level of subordinates, Complexity of the incident

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7
Q

What is the difference in span of control between a fast-moving incident and a slower-moving operation?

A

Fast-moving incident requires tighter span of control, while slower-moving operation allows for more personnel

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8
Q

What functions are not counted against the rule of five as reporting to a supervisor for span-of-control purposes?

A

Safety Officer, Liaison Officer, PIO, Rapid Intervention Crew, Staging Area Manager

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9
Q

In what types of incidents can an incident base be implemented?

A

High-rise fires, hazardous materials incidents, wildland fires

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10
Q

What is the difference between staging and an incident base?

A

Staging allows for rapid deployment within three minutes, while the incident base is a safe distance from the incident scene and units are not readily deployable

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11
Q

What are the three methods for comprehensive resource management?

A

Single resources, task forces, and strike teams.

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12
Q

What are the six components of NIMS?

A

Command and management, Preparedness, Resource management, Communications and information management, Supporting technologies, Ongoing management and maintenance

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13
Q

What does ICS include?

A

Facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications

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14
Q

What are MACS used for?

A

Higher-level resource management or information management in large-scale emergencies

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15
Q

What are the primary functions of MACS?

A

Support incident management policies and priorities, facilitate logistics support and resource tracking, make resource allocation decisions, coordinate incident-related information

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16
Q

What does MACS include?

A

Emergency Operations Centers (EOCs) and Multi-agency Coordination Entities

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17
Q

What is the function of EOCs?

A

Coordinate information and resources for incident activities

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18
Q

Who has direct tactical and operational responsibility for incident management activities?

A

Incident Commander

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19
Q

What does the Joint Information System (JIS) provide during an emergency?

A

Organized, integrated, and coordinated mechanism for providing information to the public

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20
Q

What is the importance of the Public Information Officer (PIO) in an emergency?

A

Operating within the parameters established for the Joint Information System (JIS)

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21
Q

What is an example of an incident that can be typically contained within an hour or two after resources arrive on scene?

A

Vehicle fire

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22
Q

How long does it typically take to contain the incident in the control phase?

A

Within one operational period

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23
Q

What needs to be completed for all incoming resources?

A

A documented operational briefing

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24
Q

Give examples of incidents that may require a documented operational briefing.

A

Examples include a major structure fire, a multiple vehicle crash with multiple patients, an armed robbery, or a small hazmat spill.

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25
Q

What is a Type 2 incident?

A

Incident requiring response from outside the area

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26
Q

What is required for each operational period of a Type 2 incident?

A

Written IAP

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27
Q

What type of incidents typically involve the Agency Administrator?

A

Incidents of regional significance

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28
Q

Describe a Type 1 incident.

A

Most complex, requires national resources, activates all Command and General Staff positions

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29
Q

How many operations personnel often exceed per operational period?

A

500

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30
Q

What is the emergency operations center (EOC) used for?

A

Enhance emergency management functions and identify a meeting place/location.

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31
Q

When is a mobile EOC utilized?

A

When decision makers need to see the situation urgently

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32
Q

How often should contact lists be updated?

A

Every three months

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33
Q

How often should staff training be held?

A

Quarterly basis

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34
Q

How often should a full review of the EOP be scheduled?

A

Each year

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35
Q

What is the targeted goal for changeover?

A

30 minutes

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36
Q

Who is responsible for the management of emergency activities within its jurisdictional boundaries?

A

Local government

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37
Q

What is the role of the Emergency Program Manager in an EOC?

A

To make executive decisions and establish overall objectives and concept of operation

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38
Q

How is the Emergency Program Manager viewed in the EOC?

A

As the EOC commander

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39
Q

What is the advantage of the Incident Command System (ICS) structure?

A

Clarity of roles and functional integrity.

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40
Q

What is the disadvantage of an ICS structure in the EOC?

A

Potential confusion about authority.

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41
Q

Who is in charge of the EOC?

A

The Operations Manager

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42
Q

When are MAC Groups frequently defined geographically?

A

When an emergency crosses jurisdictional boundaries

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43
Q

What is a disadvantage of a MAC Group structure?

A

Lack of clearly defined, standardized relationships

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44
Q

What is the role of an EOC?

A

Hub for communications with different entities

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45
Q

What are the two basic requirements for communication at an EOC?

A

Interoperability and redundancy

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46
Q

What is a top priority for emergency providers in terms of communication?

A

Having a redundant system

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47
Q

What can help determine the recommended level of EOC activation?

A

Hazard analysis

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48
Q

What should deactivation levels be based on?

A

Current incident status and time required to complete objectives.

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49
Q

What is the most effective way to increase firefighter safety?

A

Utilization of an IMS.

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50
Q

What is unity of command?

A

No person reports to more than one person

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51
Q

What positions can be part of the command staff?

A

Safety, Public Information, Liaison Officer

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52
Q

What is one of the most important responsibilities of the Logistics and Finance Section Chief (LOFR)?

A

Coordinating the management of assisting or cooperating agencies.

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53
Q

How does the appointment of a LOFR benefit the incident?

A

It eliminates the desire of other agencies to set up separate CPs.

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54
Q

What is Level 1 Staging?

A

Having responding units go to predetermined sides of the fire building for coverage on all sides

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55
Q

Where should all other responding companies that have not received an assignment proceed?

A

Level 1 Staging

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56
Q

What should engine companies in Level 1 Staging do?

A

Secure water supply and notify IC

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57
Q

What determines the level of staging required?

A

Initial IC

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58
Q

What are some levels at which a branch can be utilized?

A

Functional, geographic, organizational

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59
Q

What are some examples of branches in incident management?

A

Fire Branch, Law Enforcement Branch, Public Works Branch

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60
Q

Who does the Branch Director report to?

A

Incident Commander

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61
Q

What are the specific responsibilities of a Branch Director?

A

Implementing IAP, coordinating activities, evaluating goals, informing supervisor, assigning specific tasks, resolving logistical problems

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62
Q

How many firefighters make up a crew?

A

Two to six

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63
Q

What is a typical arrangement for a strike team?

A

Five fully equipped and staffed engines with a chief officer as the Strike Team Leader

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64
Q

Who does the Strike Team Leader report to?

A

IC or Operations

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65
Q

What is a task force?

A

A group of resources with common communications and a leader

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66
Q

How many units should a task force not exceed?

A

Five

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67
Q

Who is responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of information about the development of the incident and the status of resources?

A

Planning Section Chief

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68
Q

What are the units within the Planning Section?

A

Resource Unit, Situation Unit, Documentation Unit, Demobilization Unit, and Technical Specialists

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69
Q

What are the three functional units in the Service Branch?

A

Communications, Medical, and Food

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70
Q

What is the Support Branch responsible for?

A

Providing personnel, equipment, and supplies

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71
Q

What are the three functional units in the Support Branch?

A

Supply, Facilities, and Ground Support

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72
Q

What is the responsibility of the Ground Support Unit?

A

Fueling, maintenance/repair, transportation, Incident Traffic Plan

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73
Q

What are the units included in Exam 11/27/2023 Finance/Administration?

A

Time Unit, Procurement Unit, Compensation and Claims Unit, Cost Unit

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74
Q

What does the Compensation and Claims Unit handle?

A

Management of compensation for injury and claims-related activities (other than injury) for an incident.

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75
Q

What is the role of the Cost Unit?

A

Collect cost data and provide cost-saving recommendations

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76
Q

What is a good time frame for required status reports during a fire?

A

10-minute intervals

77
Q

What does an IAP provide?

A

Overall incident objectives

78
Q

Who prepares written IAPs?

A

Planning Section

79
Q

In which situations must IAPs be written?

A

Hazardous materials incidents and special operations

80
Q

When should a written IAP be considered?

A

Multiple jurisdictions are involved in the response

81
Q

What are some factors that may trigger the use of ICS organizational elements?

A

Long duration, multiple operational periods, hazardous materials, special operations

82
Q

When are ICS Forms 201, 215, and 215A typically used?

A

As foundation pieces, not part of formal IAP

83
Q

What forms are prepared by the Planning Section?

A

ICS Forms 202, 203, and 204

84
Q

What forms are prepared by the Logistics Section?

A

Forms 205 and 206

85
Q

What information is contained in ICS Form 205?

A

Designated radio frequencies for Dispatch, tactical, and support functions

86
Q

What additional information may be listed in a Form 205A?

A

Methods of contact: radio frequency, phone, cell phone, or pager numbers of the essential individuals in the incident management organization

87
Q

What is the purpose of the IAP?

A

Flexibility and scalability for decision making

88
Q

Why might teams create a separate document called 205A?

A

To keep contact information from mass distribution

89
Q

What is the Planning “P” used for?

A

Planning process and development of IAP

90
Q

What are the nine steps in the operational planning period cycle?

A

IC/UC Develop/Update Objectives, Meeting Command and General Staff, Preparing for the Tactics Meeting, Tactics Meeting, Preparing for the Planning Meeting, Planning Meeting, IAP Prep and Approval, Operations Period Briefing, Execute Plan and Assess Progress

91
Q

What are the two basic methods of decision making?

A

Classical method and Naturalistic/Recognition Prime/Cue-based method

92
Q

What is the process of naturalistic decision making?

A

Extremely fast decisions based on experience and training level

93
Q

What is the system used by most fire officers?

A

Naturalistic/Recognition Prime/Cue-based decision making

94
Q

What is cue-based decision making?

A

The automatic association of past experiences with current developments

95
Q

What is the classical method of decision making used for?

A

Training exercises, preplans, or unfamiliar cues

96
Q

What are the five levels of command sequence?

A

Level 1: Incident Priorities; Level 2: Size-Up; Level 3: Strategy; Level 4: Tactics; Level 5: Tasks

97
Q

When does size-up start?

A

Size-up starts in the preplanning stages.

98
Q

How many of the seven strategic considerations will an initial responder typically deal with?

A

four. Rescue, exposures, confinement, ventilation

99
Q

What is the next step after size-up?

A

Implementation of an incident management system

100
Q

What are the five factors that CRM is based on?

A

Communications, Situational awareness, Decision making, Teamwork, Barriers

101
Q

How much water is needed to drastically reduce interior temperatures in a fire room?

A

25 gallons from a straight stream

102
Q

What is fire spread largely driven by?

A

Pressure

103
Q

What is the first priority of the first hose-line?

A

Protect civilians exiting the building or in need of rescue

104
Q

What is the first step in gaining control of the building?

A

Gaining control of the stairs

105
Q

What should the second hose-line do if an offensive-exterior attack is initiated?

A

Prepare to enter and attack the fire on an offensive-interior attack

106
Q

Why is a third hose-line taken to protect any secondary exits?

A

To ensure that anyone seeking escape via another exit will receive the protection of a hose-line.

107
Q

What resources should respond to the rear of the fire building?

A

At least one engine and one ladder or truck company

108
Q

What is the rule of thumb for hose-line pulled up the exterior of a building or up a stairwell?

A

One length for every three floors.

109
Q

What is the requirement for hose-line laid on the stairs?

A

One length per floor and additional firefighters for advancement.

110
Q

What should be done in large volume rooms?

A

Direct the water onto the burning material.

111
Q

What is the rule for departments when more than two hose-lines are operating and there is an adequate hydrant system available?

A

Hose-lines should be supplied by more than one pumper

112
Q

What is the primary goal of placing the first hose-line strategically?

A

Incident stabilization and property conservation

113
Q

What determines the priority of hose-line placement if no life is endangered?

A

Value of the property

114
Q

When is an operation considered complete for search and rescue?

A

After a thorough search is made of the exterior of the structure.

115
Q

What equipment should each member of a search and rescue team carry?

A

Hand tool, light, portable radio, and a TIC.

116
Q

Where should a ladder be placed for a firefighter to enter a window?

A

Alongside the window, about three rungs above the windowsill.

117
Q

What type of doors usually open inward in living areas?

A

Bedroom doors, hotel room doors

118
Q

What is the benefit of using the up and over method for ventilation on multistoried flat roof structures?

A

Efficiently ventilates multiple windows

119
Q

In what type of buildings can the up and over method be used?

A

Town houses with restricted entry to the rear

120
Q

What is the role of the first-arriving truck company or assigned engine company?

A

Raise ladder to roof

121
Q

What should be the size of a ventilation hole on a small roof?

A

4 feet by 4 feet

122
Q

What should be the size of a ventilation hole on a large roof?

A

8 feet by 12 feet

123
Q

What are the most common types of hazards for firefighters on rooftops with solar panels?

A

Tripping and slipping

124
Q

What optional component in a PV system could present an electrical shock hazard?

A

Battery storage system for nighttime use

125
Q

How is hydraulic ventilation achieved?

A

Setting hose-lines with a nozzle on a fog pattern that covers about 90% of the window or door opening.

126
Q

What is the minimum size requirement for fans used?

A

10,000 cubic feet per minute

127
Q

What is the maximum size range for fans used?

A

20,000 cubic feet per minute

128
Q

What are the common shapes of observation openings?

A

Kerf cut and triangular cut

129
Q

What should be done once the trench is opened?

A

Monitor from above and below; keep a hose-line at both locations.

130
Q

What are the primary causes of rekindles?

A

Incendiary fires and careless firefighting.

131
Q

What are the most common methods of protecting steel?

A

Encasement, Sprayed-on protection, Membrane protection

132
Q

What materials are used for encasement of steel?

A

Concrete, brick, terra cotta, plaster, or fire-rated drywall

133
Q

What materials are used for sprayed-on protection?

A

Cementatious mixture, volcanic ash, and other coatings

134
Q

What protection method depends on the quality of application and possible removal by other craftsmen?

A

Sprayed-on protection

135
Q

What type of construction are concrete or concrete block buildings with a metal deck roof classified as?

A

Noncombustible/limited combustible construction

136
Q

What is the main advantage of using steel bar joist construction?

A

Large, wide-open floor areas

137
Q

When are lightweight building components especially dangerous?

A

During construction and demolition

138
Q

What type of buildings are considered ordinary construction?

A

Buildings used for offices, retail sales, commercial occupancies, mixed occupancies, and dwelling units

139
Q

How tall are ordinary buildings?

A

One to three stories tall

140
Q

What is the maximum height of taller buildings of ordinary construction?

A

15 stories

141
Q

What is the minimum depth of the exterior walls?

A

8 inches

142
Q

What is the maximum thickness of walls in taller buildings?

A

30 inches

143
Q

What are the materials used for the floor and roof in older construction?

A

1-inch-thick tongue-and-groove boards for the floor and 1- to 1¼-inch-thick planks for the roof

144
Q

What is a fire-cut?

A

30-degree cut on each end of the joist

145
Q

How long is the longer end of the fire-cut?

A

placed downward and rests in the bearing wall

146
Q

What is the purpose of a fire-cut?

A

allows the floor to collapse without pushing the masonry wall outward

147
Q

Why is the concept of installing a lintel or an arch beneficial to the building owner?

A

Exterior walls remain intact

148
Q

What are lintels and arches typically made of?

A

Wood, steel, or masonry

149
Q

What is the space called under the roof in a peaked building?

A

Attic

150
Q

What is the space called under the roof in a flat-roofed building?

A

Cockloft

151
Q

What type of doors must be used for door openings?

A

Self-closing fire doors

152
Q

What are the two common truss configurations?

A

Flat and triangular-shaped

153
Q

What is the minimum thickness required for columns?

A

Eight inches

154
Q

What is the minimum thickness for girders that span the distance between the columns?

A

Six inches

155
Q

What is the minimum thickness for the floor?

A

Three inches

156
Q

What is the minimum thickness of the planks used in this construction?

A

Two inches

157
Q

What can be used to span wider areas in frame row dwellings?

A

Lightweight trusses and wooden I-beams.

158
Q

What is the weak point of brick veneer?

A

Attachment to wall studs

159
Q

What are the parts of a truss?

A

Top and bottom chord and web members

160
Q

What is another type of timber truss that utilizes lightweight components?

A

Parallel chord truss

161
Q

What is the most important factor in determining whether a building will fail under fire conditions?

A

The roof of the structure

162
Q

What should be noted if the roof consists of timber trusses?

A

Actual size of members and method of attachment

163
Q

What are two examples of timber truss sizes and their attachments?

A

4x6 with steel attachments, or 12x16 with no steel

164
Q

What is the major reason for truss failure?

A

Connection points

165
Q

What size can timber trusses span?

A

Areas of 100 feet.

166
Q

What is the spacing for timber trusses?

A

20 feet on center.

167
Q

What is the best indicator of a fire’s severity from the exterior of a building?

A

Volume, intensity, and color of the smoke

168
Q

Which material is used for the top and bottom chords in a truss?

A

Wood

169
Q

Which material is used for the web members in a truss?

A

Steel

170
Q

What are gusset-less trusses primarily used to support?

A

Floors

171
Q

How does doubling the width of a beam or truss without changing the depth affect its carrying capacity?

A

It doubles the carrying capacity.

172
Q

What happens to the carrying capacity if the depth is doubled without an increase in width?

A

It is increased four times.

173
Q

What are the different sizes of tiles that can be inserted into the metal grid work?

A

Two foot 3 two foot, two foot 3 four foot, or one foot 3 four foot

174
Q

What are typical exterior wall collapse indicators?

A

Smoke showing through walls, Old wall cracks enlarging, New wall cracks, Fire showing through wall cracks, Bulging walls, Leaning walls, Failure of part of a wall, Visible spalling of a brick wall, Spalling of concrete and exposure of steel

175
Q

What is a potential collapse indicator in a masonry wall?

A

Wall spreader

176
Q

What causes plaster to slide off walls?

A

Twisting movement of the building

177
Q

What is one precaution that can be taken during a welding operation?

A

Maintain a 35-foot area around the welding operation

178
Q

How much water can a 1¾-inch hose-line deliver per minute?

A

Approximately 175 gallons

179
Q

What does the dead load include?

A

Structural members, air-handling systems, plaster, paint, plumbing fixtures, electrical components

180
Q

What is an example of dead load that might not have been originally designed for?

A

Billboards on a building’s roof

181
Q

What is a weight forced upon a building?

A

impact load

182
Q

What is supported or hinged on one side?

A

lean-to collapse

183
Q

How long can Benzene cause leukemia?

A

as little as six years

184
Q

What antidote can be administered for known or suspected cyanide-poisoned patients?

A

hydroxocobalamin

185
Q

What are the risks to firefighters classified as?

A

low, medium, or high

186
Q

Who should perform a PAR at the scene?

A

the IC or his or her designate

187
Q

When is the EAB depressed to sound a Mayday?

A

10 to 20 seconds

188
Q

What is a measure of saturation in the blood in cases of nontraumatic injury?

A

carbon monoxide

Strat. and Tactics (1 decks)

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