STI's and Communicable Diseases Flashcards
What is the most common cause of the common cold?
a) Influenza virus
b) Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
c) Rhinovirus
d) Streptococcus pyogenes
Answer: C) Rhinovirus: Rarely causes fever. Rhinovirus is the most common cause of the common cold and typically leads to mild symptoms such as a runny nose, sore throat, and cough without significant fever
A) Influenza virus: This causes flu symptoms, which are more severe than the common cold (fever, chills, fatigue, body aches).
B) Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV): This virus mainly affects young children and causes more serious respiratory issues like bronchiolitis, wheezing, coughing and pneumonia. It can cause fever
D) Streptococcus pyogenes: This is the causative agent of strep throat, not the common cold. Often presents with fever.
Which of the following is a common complication of mumps?
a) Pneumonia
b) Orchitis
c) Sinusitis
d) Conjunctivitis
B) Orchitis: Mumps can lead to inflammation of the testes, known as orchitis, and other complications like pancreatitis and meningoencephalitis.
A) Pneumonia: Not a typical complication of mumps.
C) Sinusitis: This is not a common complication of mumps.
D) Conjunctivitis: Not associated with mumps.
How is norovirus most commonly transmitted?
a) Airborne droplets
b) Contact with contaminated surfaces
c) Inhalation of infected dust
d) Direct person-to-person contact
B) Contact with contaminated surfaces: This is the most common route of transmission for norovirus, especially through contaminated food, surfaces, or people.
Common symptoms are vomiting and diarrhea
Treatment: take 1 -3 day to recover, oral rehydration therapy, clear fluids, plain foods like rice, bananas, apple sauce, avoid irritating foods like meats, acidic foods, dairy
i) Wash hands before and after the bathroom
ii) Wash fruits and vegetables well
iii) Cook meat thoroughly
What is the recommended treatment for rotavirus in infants younger than 1 year?
a) Antibiotics
b) Oral hydration therapy
c) Frequent breastfeeding
d) IV fluids
C) Frequent breastfeeding: For infants under 1 year, breastfeeding provides hydration and nutrients that help manage rotavirus infection
A) Antibiotics: Rotavirus is viral, and antibiotics are not effective.
B) Oral hydration therapy: This is useful but for infants under 1 year, frequent breastfeeding is recommended.
D) IV fluids: Only used if there are complications like severe dehydration.
Symptoms: severe watery diarrhea in infants and
children; vaccine available by mouth at 2 mos
Transmission: virus is in fecal matter, spread by hands or in food/water
Treatment
i) younger 1yoa: frequent breastfeeding or oral hydration
therapy
ii) Over 1 yoa: oral hydration therapy, clear broth, ice pops
Which of the following is characteristic of measles?
a) High fever with a rash that starts on the trunk
b) Koplik’s spots in the mouth
c) Low-grade fever and maculopapular rash
d) Vesicles or red papules on the face, hands, and feet
Answer: B) Koplik’s spots in the mouth: These are characteristic of measles and appear before the rash.
A) High fever with a rash that starts on the trunk: While measles causes a rash, it typically starts on the face and spreads downward, not on the trunk.
C) Low-grade fever and maculopapular rash: This is more characteristic of rubella.
D) Vesicles or red papules on the face, hands, and feet: This is characteristic of hand, foot, and mouth disease.
What is a common complication of varicella zoster (chickenpox)?
a) Meningitis
b) Pneumonia
c) Sinusitis
d) Lymphadenitis
Answer: B) Pneumonia: Chickenpox can lead to bacterial pneumonia as a complication.
A) Meningitis: Rare for chickenpox but can occur in severe cases.
C) Sinusitis: Not typically a complication of chickenpox.
D) Lymphadenitis: Not a typical complication of chickenpox.
Which of the following is the best prevention for rubella?
a) Hand washing
b) Vaccination
c) Avoidance of contaminated food
d) Symptomatic therapy
Answer: B) Vaccination: The MMR vaccine (measles, mumps, rubella) is the best prevention for rubella.
A) Hand washing: While hand washing helps prevent infections in general, it does not specifically prevent rubella.
C) Avoidance of contaminated food: Rubella is not transmitted by food.
D) Symptomatic therapy: Treatment focuses on relieving symptoms but does not prevent the infection.
What is the hallmark sign of hand, foot, and mouth disease?
a) Fever and cough
b) Vesicles or red papules on the hands, feet, and mouth
c) A maculopapular rash
d) Koplik’s spots in the mouth
Answer: B) Vesicles or red papules or putules on the hands, soles, interdigital, feet, and buttocks; and ulcers in the mouth: This is the characteristic sign of hand, foot, and mouth disease. It is cause by several enteroviruses but Coxsackievirus A is the most specific or the enterovirus
A) Fever and cough: These are more typical of respiratory infections like the common cold or flu.
C) A maculopapular rash: This is more common in diseases like rubella or measles.
D) Koplik’s spots in the mouth: These are specific to measles, not hand, foot, and mouth disease.
What is the treatment for impetigo?
a) Oral antibiotics
b) Topical steroids
c) Antiviral therapy
d) Pain relief only
Answer: a) Oral antibiotics
A) Oral antibiotics: Impetigo is a bacterial infection treated with antibiotics like penicillin or amoxicillin.
B) Topical steroids: These are not used to treat impetigo; they may worsen infection.
C) Antiviral therapy: Not effective for impetigo, which is bacterial.
D) Pain relief only: Pain relief alone does not address the bacterial infection.
Which of the following is the most common cause of conjunctivitis (pink eye)?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Adenovirus or bacteria
c) Coxsackievirus
d) Rubella virus
Answer: b) Adenovirus or bacteria
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae: While it can cause bacterial conjunctivitis, adenovirus is more common.
B) Adenovirus or bacteria: Adenovirus is a leading cause of viral conjunctivitis, and bacterial causes include Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Coxsackievirus: Not a common cause of conjunctivitis.
D) Rubella virus: Rubella does not cause conjunctivitis; it causes a rash and other symptoms.
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E. coli is not the most common cause of conjunctivitis. The most frequent causes depend on the type of conjunctivitis (bacterial, viral, or allergic). Here’s a breakdown:
Bacterial Conjunctivitis:
The most common bacterial pathogens are Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae.
E. coli can cause conjunctivitis, but it is much less common and typically associated with contamination from fecal matter (e.g., poor hygiene or contact with contaminated water).
Viral Conjunctivitis:
Most often caused by adenoviruses. This is the most common type of conjunctivitis overall.
Allergic Conjunctivitis:
Triggered by allergens like pollen, dust mites, or pet dander, not infections.
Why E. coli is uncommon:
E. coli is primarily associated with gastrointestinal infections or urinary tract infections. Its involvement in conjunctivitis is rare and usually occurs in specific scenarios (e.g., exposure to contaminated water or in neonates during delivery if the mother has an E. coli infection).
In summary, while E. coli can cause conjunctivitis in rare cases, it is not the most common pathogen. Adenovirus is the leading cause overall, while Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are the primary bacterial culprits.
Which of the following is the most likely etiology of viral conjunctivitis?
A) Adenovirus
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
A) Adenovirus is the most common cause of viral conjunctivitis, presenting with symptoms like watery discharge, photophobia, and “pink eye.”
Why others are wrong:
B & C (Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae): These are bacterial causes, typically leading to mucopurulent discharge and “morning crustiness.”
D (Chlamydia trachomatis): While it can cause conjunctivitis, it’s typically associated with sexually transmitted infections and neonatal ophthalmia.
A patient presents with mucopurulent discharge, morning crustiness, and unilateral eye redness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Viral conjunctivitis
B) Bacterial conjunctivitis
C) Allergic conjunctivitis
D) Herpetic keratitis
B) Bacterial conjunctivitis
Why it’s correct: Mucopurulent discharge and “morning crustiness” are hallmarks of bacterial conjunctivitis, often caused by Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp., or H. influenzae.
Why others are wrong:
A (Viral conjunctivitis): This typically presents with watery discharge and is frequently bilateral.
C (Allergic conjunctivitis): Associated with itching and bilateral symptoms, without discharge.
D (Herpetic keratitis): Often presents with photophobia, blurred vision, and dendritic ulcers seen on fluorescein staining.
Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated Chlamydia trachomatis conjunctivitis?
A) Corneal abrasion
B) Blindness
C) Retinopathy
D) Cataracts
B) Blindness
Why it’s correct: Untreated C. trachomatis conjunctivitis can lead to blindness, especially in endemic areas (trachoma).
Why others are wrong:
A (Corneal abrasion): This is a complication of rubbing in viral or allergic conjunctivitis.
C (Retinopathy): Not associated with conjunctivitis.
D (Cataracts): Unrelated to conjunctivitis.
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How Does Chlamydia trachomatis Cause Blindness?
C. trachomatis causes blindness primarily through trachoma, a chronic infectious eye disease. Here’s the process:
Initial Infection:
C. trachomatis serovars A, B, and C infect the conjunctiva.
This infection often begins in childhood and is transmitted via direct contact, contaminated items, or flies.
Chronic Inflammation:
Repeated infections cause chronic conjunctival inflammation.
The body’s immune response leads to scarring of the inner eyelid (conjunctiva).
Trichiasis:
Scar tissue causes the eyelashes to turn inward (trichiasis).
The lashes scratch the cornea with each blink, leading to corneal abrasions.
Corneal Opacification:
Persistent damage to the cornea leads to ulceration, secondary infections, and ultimately, blindness due to corneal opacity.
Trachoma remains the leading infectious cause of blindness worldwide and is preventable through improved hygiene, access to clean water, and antibiotics like azithromycin.
Which of the following is a common complication of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in women?
A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Cervical cancer
D) Reiter’s syndrome
Correct Answer: A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
Why it’s correct: PID is a well-known complication of C. trachomatis infections, often resulting from untreated cervicitis. It can lead to infertility and ectopic pregnancy.
Why others are wrong:
B) Trichomoniasis: Caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, not C. trachomatis.
C) Cervical cancer: Linked to HPV, not C. trachomatis.
D) Reiter’s syndrome: While possible, it is much rarer and presents as reactive arthritis, not a primary concern in most women.
More information
The symptoms of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) caused by Chlamydia trachomatis result from its ability to ascend from the cervix into the upper reproductive tract (uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries) and trigger a cascade of inflammatory damage. Here’s a detailed explanation:
Mechanism of PID Symptoms
Initial Infection (Cervicitis):
C. trachomatis infects the epithelial cells of the cervix, where it triggers a localized immune response.
Without treatment, the infection can ascend to the upper genital tract, spreading to the endometrium (endometritis), fallopian tubes (salpingitis), and ovaries.
Tissue Inflammation and Damage:
The infection leads to an intense inflammatory response, characterized by recruitment of neutrophils, macrophages, and cytokines.
This inflammation damages the delicate tissues of the fallopian tubes and ovaries, causing scarring and adhesions.
Symptoms in PID:
Abdominal/pelvic pain: Inflammation of the reproductive organs irritates surrounding nerves.
Fever: Systemic immune activation leads to fever.
Abnormal discharge: The inflamed endometrium and cervix produce excess secretions.
Dyspareunia (painful intercourse): Inflammation in the pelvic region causes discomfort during sexual activity.
Infertility: Scarring of the fallopian tubes can block egg transport, leading to infertility.
Infertility and Ectopic Pregnancy:
Scarring and narrowing of the fallopian tubes caused by chronic inflammation can prevent fertilized eggs from traveling to the uterus.
This increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy, where the embryo implants in the fallopian tube or another inappropriate location.
Why PID Is a Serious Complication
PID is often asymptomatic or mild at first, which delays treatment.
Chronic or recurrent PID increases the risk of irreversible damage to the reproductive organs, leading to long-term consequences like infertility, chronic pelvic pain, and increased risk of ectopic pregnancies.
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for both Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A) Gram stain
B) Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
C) Blood culture
D) Direct fluorescence antibody test
Correct Answer: B) Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
Why it’s correct: NAAT is highly sensitive and specific, making it the gold standard for detecting both C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae in urine or swab samples.
Why others are wrong:
A) Gram stain: Useful for diagnosing N. gonorrhoeae in symptomatic males (shows diplococci) but not sensitive enough for C. trachomatis.
C) Blood culture: Used for systemic infections, not local STIs.
D) Direct fluorescence antibody test: Less sensitive and rarely used in modern clinical practice.
Which of the following vaccines can prevent complications of STIs?
A) Hepatitis B vaccine
B) MMR vaccine
C) Influenza vaccine
D) Varicella vaccine
Correct Answer: A) Hepatitis B vaccine
Why it’s correct: Hepatitis B can be sexually transmitted, and the vaccine prevents both the infection and its complications, like chronic hepatitis or hepatocellular carcinoma.
Why others are wrong:
B) MMR vaccine: Protects against measles, mumps, and rubella, not STIs.
C) Influenza vaccine: Prevents the flu, unrelated to STIs.
D) Varicella vaccine: Protects against chickenpox and shingles, not STIs.
How the Hepatitis B Vaccine Prevents STI
Remember hepatitis B is for Blood
Complications
Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted infection (among other transmission routes, like blood or perinatal).
The Hepatitis B vaccine works by inducing the immune system to produce antibodies against the Hepatitis B virus (HBV), preventing infection and its complications.
Complications Prevented:
Chronic hepatitis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer)
Vertical transmission from mother to neonate during childbirth
What is the primary method to prevent trachoma caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?
A) Antibiotic eye drops
B) Improved hygiene and sanitation
C) Routine eye exams
D) Wearing sunglasses
Correct Answer: B) Improved hygiene and sanitation
Why it’s correct: Trachoma spreads via contact with contaminated hands, towels, or flies, so improving hygiene and access to clean water is key to prevention.
Why others are wrong:
A) Antibiotic eye drops: Used for treatment, not prevention.
C) Routine eye exams: Important for early detection but not preventive.
D) Wearing sunglasses: Reduces UV exposure but has no role in preventing trachoma.
What is the recommended treatment for Neisseria gonorrhoeae if co-infection with C. trachomatis cannot be ruled out?
A) Doxycycline alone
B) Ceftriaxone IM + azithromycin PO
C) Amoxicillin PO
D) Ciprofloxacin IM
**Correct Answer: B) Ceftriaxone IM + azithromycin PO
Why it’s correct: This combination treats both N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis, covering the possibility of co-infection.**
Why others are wrong:
A) Doxycycline alone: Effective for C. trachomatis but not for N. gonorrhoeae.
C) Amoxicillin PO: Ineffective against N. gonorrhoeae.
D) Ciprofloxacin IM: No longer recommended due to widespread resistance in N. gonorrhoeae
What complication is associated with neonatal exposure to Chlamydia trachomatis during delivery?
A) Neonatal sepsis
B) Meningitis
C) Ophthalmia neonatorum and pneumonia
D) Herpetic encephalitis
Correct Answer: C) Ophthalmia neonatorum and pneumonia
Why it’s correct: Neonates exposed to C. trachomatis during vaginal delivery can develop conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum) or pneumonia.
Why others are wrong:
A) Neonatal sepsis: More commonly caused by Group B Streptococcus or N. gonorrhoeae.
B) Meningitis: Typically caused by E. coli, Group B Streptococcus, or Listeria monocytogenes.
D) Herpetic encephalitis: Associated with HSV, not C. trachomatis.
What is the most effective way to ensure compliance with STI treatment in adolescents?
A) Self-administered therapy at home
B) Directly observed therapy (DOT)
C) Providing written instructions
D) Telephone follow-ups
Correct Answer: B) Directly observed therapy (DOT)
Why it’s correct: DOT ensures the adolescent takes the medication correctly under supervision, improving compliance.
Why others are wrong:
A) Self-administered therapy at home: Risk of incomplete adherence.
C) Providing written instructions: Helpful but insufficient alone for ensuring compliance.
D) Telephone follow-ups: Useful for reminders but do not guarantee adherence.
Which historical event marked the creation of the first vaccine?
A) Mass vaccination for smallpox (1967)
B) Development of the COVID-19 vaccine (2021)
C) Dr. Edward Jenner’s smallpox vaccine (1796)
D) Polio eradication initiative (1988)
C) Correct: Edward Jenner’s work in 1796 is widely recognized as the first successful development of a vaccine, using cowpox to create immunity against smallpox.
A) Incorrect: Mass vaccination campaigns for smallpox occurred much later, in 1967, after Jenner’s vaccine.
B) Incorrect: The COVID-19 vaccine is a modern achievement, not the first vaccine developed.
D) Incorrect: The Polio eradication initiative began in 1988, long after smallpox vaccination.
What recommendation from the CDC aims to improve vaccine compliance in infants?
A) Avoid VIS forms during vaccination discussions.
B) Reduce missed opportunities to vaccinate.
C) Defer vaccines when parents are hesitant.
D) Schedule fewer doses by 18 months.
B) Correct: Reducing missed vaccination opportunities ensures that infants stay on schedule and are protected against 14 diseases by 18 months.
A) Incorrect: VIS (Vaccine Information Statements) are mandatory by law under the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986.
C) Incorrect: Vaccines are only deferred for true medical contraindications, not vaccine hesitancy.
D) Incorrect: Infants are recommended to receive 25 doses by 18 months to ensure protection against various diseases.
Which condition is a contraindication for live attenuated vaccines?
A) Egg allergy
B) Immunocompromised state
C) Soreness at the injection site
D) Fever following previous vaccination
B) Correct: Live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in immunocompromised individuals (e.g., SCID) due to the risk of infection from the weakened virus.
A) Incorrect: Egg allergies may affect eligibility for specific vaccines but do not contraindicate all live vaccines.
C) Incorrect: Soreness is a mild, common side effect, not a contraindication.
D) Incorrect: Fever after vaccination is typically a mild, self-limiting side effect.
What ethical consideration is critical in addressing vaccine hesitancy?
A) Restricting access to vaccines for hesitant parents
B) Avoiding discussions about vaccine safety
C) Providing evidence-based education about vaccines
D) Requiring NDs to give vaccine recommendations
C) Correct: Educating families about vaccine benefits, addressing myths, and building trust is key to reducing vaccine hesitancy.
A) Incorrect: Restricting access is unethical and counterproductive.
B) Incorrect: Avoiding discussions exacerbates fears and mistrust.
D) Incorrect: Naturopathic doctors (NDs) are not typically authorized to provide primary vaccine recommendations; this is usually the role of family physicians.
What is a key benefit of the CANImmunize app?
A) It administers vaccines remotely.
B) Tracks vaccinations for individuals and families.
C) Provides immediate treatment for adverse vaccine reactions.
D) Reduces vaccine costs for low-income families.
B) Correct: CANImmunize is a tool for tracking vaccination records to ensure timely immunizations.
A) Incorrect: The app does not administer vaccines.
C) Incorrect: It does not provide treatments for adverse events.
D) Incorrect: It does not directly reduce vaccine costs but facilitates immunization tracking.
Which of the following diseases is vaccine-preventable and often asymptomatic in early stages?
A) Influenza
B) Hepatitis B
C) Varicella
D) HPV
B) Correct: Hepatitis B is often asymptomatic initially but can lead to complications such as liver disease. It is preventable with vaccination.
A) Incorrect: Influenza is vaccine-preventable but typically presents with symptomatic respiratory illness.
C) Incorrect: Varicella (chickenpox) is preventable but has a clear symptomatic presentation.
D) Incorrect: HPV (human papillomavirus) can be asymptomatic but is more associated with cancer prevention through vaccines.
Which of the following historical vaccine milestones occurred in 2016?
A) Polio eradication initiative
B) Measles combined with mumps and rubella
C) Meningitis Vaccination Project
D) Creation of the first Ebola vaccine
Correct Answer: C) Meningitis Vaccination Project
Why it’s correct: The Meningitis Vaccination Project was a significant milestone in 2016, targeting high-risk populations.
Why others are wrong:
A) Polio eradication initiative was launched in 1988.
B) Measles combined with mumps and rubella occurred in 1971.
D) The Ebola vaccine was developed for high-risk countries in 2019.
Which vaccine-preventable disease is characterized by temperature instability and hypothermia in infants rather than fever?
A) Hepatitis B
B) HPV
C) Meningococcal disease
D) Varicella
Correct Answer: C) Meningococcal disease
Why it’s correct: Meningococcal disease can cause temperature instability and hypothermia in infants, alongside severe symptoms like meningitis and encephalitis.
Why others are wrong:
A) Hepatitis B primarily affects the liver and does not cause these symptoms.
B) HPV leads to cervical cancer and other conditions but is asymptomatic in many cases.
D) Varicella typically causes fever and a vesicular rash.
Which vaccine-preventable disease is associated with a maculopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads to the trunk and extremities?
A. Varicella Zoster
B. Rubella
C. Mumps
D. Hepatitis B
B. Rubella: Correct. Rubella presents with a rash that starts on the face and spreads downward, characteristic of this disease.
Think R for Rash and Rubella and ready to spreads to trunk and extremities… I hope this helps
A. Varicella Zoster: Incorrect. Varicella (chickenpox) presents as small red bumps that turn into blisters, not a maculopapular rash.
C. Mumps: Incorrect. Mumps does not cause a rash; it typically presents with parotid gland swelling.
D. Hepatitis B: Incorrect. Hepatitis B is a liver infection and does not involve a rash.
A 2-year-old child presents with fever, a rash on the hands, feet, and mouth, and mild sore throat. What is the most likely causative agent?
A) Coxsackievirus
B) Varicella-Zoster Virus
C) Epstein-Barr Virus
D) Rubella
Correct Answer: A) Coxsackievirus
Explanation:
A) Correct: Coxsackievirus is in the genus of enterovirus and is the cause of Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease, which presents with fever, vesicular rashes on the hands, feet, and mouth, and mild systemic symptoms.
B) Incorrect: Varicella causes vesicular rashes but does not localize to the hands, feet, and mouth.
C) Incorrect: Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) causes mononucleosis with fever, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy but no localized rash.
D) Incorrect: Rubella causes a diffuse maculopapular rash, not localized vesicles.
Which of the following is a common complication of bacterial rhinosinusitis that requires immediate intervention?
a. Otitis media
b. Osteitis (Pott’s Puffy tumor)
c. Pharyngitis
d. Croup
(b) Correct: Osteitis, specifically Pott’s Puffy tumor, is a complication of frontal sinusitis that can lead to meningitis or brain abscesses. Immediate intervention is necessary.
(a) Otitis media is a common complication of viral and bacterial URIs but is not as urgent as other complications.
(c) Pharyngitis can occur with viral infections, but it is not typically a complication of rhinosinusitis.
(d) Croup is related to viral infections and is a complication more common in cases of laryngotracheobronchitis, not rhinosinusitis.
What is the first-line treatment for bacterial rhinosinusitis in pediatric patients?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
c. Cefdinir
d. Azithromycin
(b) Correct: Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the first-line treatment for bacterial rhinosinusitis in children, particularly if symptoms do not improve after 10 days.
(a) Amoxicillin is effective for many bacterial infections, but amoxicillin-clavulanate is preferred for rhinosinusitis due to its broader spectrum of action, including against resistant strains.
(c) Cefdinir is an option for children with allergies, but it’s not first-line.
(d) Azithromycin is not first-line and should be reserved for specific cases, as it has limited activity against Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Which of the following is a complication of untreated bacterial pharyngitis?
A) Scarlet fever
B) Tympanocentesis
C) Eczema
D) Pneumothorax
A) Scarlet fever: Correct. Untreated bacterial pharyngitis, particularly Group A Streptococcus, can lead to scarlet fever, characterized by a diffuse erythematous rash.
B) Tympanocentesis: Incorrect. This is a medical procedure which is the aspiration of fluid from the middle ear , not a complication of pharyngitis.
C) Eczema: Incorrect. Eczema is unrelated to bacterial pharyngitis.
D) Pneumothorax: Incorrect. Pneumothorax is unrelated to bacterial pharyngitis and more commonly associated with trauma or pulmonary disease.
A 9-year-old child presents with fever, tender cervical lymphadenopathy, and tonsillar exudates. Using the CENTOR criteria, what is the next step?
A) Start antibiotics immediately
B) Perform a throat swab and culture
C) Reassure the parents and advise rest
D) Order a chest X-ray to rule out complications
B) CENTOR score >3 suggests testing with a swab is appropriate.
A) Antibiotics should not be started without confirmation of bacterial infection.
C) Reassurance without testing is inappropriate for a high-risk presentation.
D) Chest X-ray is unnecessary for this case.
- Communities at high risk for Acute Rheumatic Fever (northern and indigenous): test in all children >3yoa with sore throat; without testing, use antibiotics in scores 3 or more
- CENTOR decision rule
- 1 point for exudate or swollen tonsils, tender or swollen cervical lymph nodes, fever, no cough
- Swab is score is > 3
Which of the following is the correct dosage of acetaminophen for a child with fever?
A) 5 mg/kg every 6-8 hours
B) 10 mg/kg every 6 hours, maximum 50 mg/kg per day
C) 15 mg/kg every 4-6 hours, maximum 80 mg/kg per day
D) 20 mg/kg every 4 hours, no maximum
C) 15 mg/kg every 4-6 hours, maximum 80 mg/kg per day
A) Too low to effectively manage fever.
B) Incorrect dose frequency and maximum dose.
C) Correct recommendation for acetaminophen in pediatric fever.
D) Dose and frequency exceed safe limits.
