Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Technical Knowledge > STI Previous Technical Questions > Flashcards

STI Previous Technical Questions Flashcards

1
Q

How to disarm the auto brakes?

A
  • Apply pedal braking.
  • Advance any thrust lever after landing.
  • Speed brake lever moved to Down decent after the speed brakes have deployed on the ground.
  • DISARM OR OFF position selected on Auto brake selector.
  • Auto brake fault.
  • Normal anti skid system fault.
  • Loss of normal brake hydraulic pressure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What systems are hydraulically powered?

A 
Primary flight controls
Flaps
Spoilers 
Elevator feel
Auto pilot servos 
Landing gear
Landing gear steering
Brakes
Thrust reversers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What hydraulic systems power the elevator feel mechanism?

A

Hydraulic systems 2&3 power the elevator feel. If both systems are lost a mechanical Spring provides feel forces but is no longer a function of airspeed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What hydraulic systems power the stabiliser trim?

A

Hydraulic systems 2&3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What Hydraulic systems control the trailing edge flaps?

A

Inboard flaps a powered by hydraulic system 1 and outboard flaps are normally powered by hydraulic system 4.

Opposite trailing edge flaps are mechanically connected to maintain symmetry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How are the leading edge flaps powered?

A

Normally powered pneumatically from the bleed air duct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What hydraulic system powers the nose and body gear?

A

Hydraulic system 1 powers the retraction, extension and steering of the nose and body gear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What hydraulic systems power the wing gear?

A

Hydraulic system 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What hydraulic system powers the brakes?

A

Normally hydraulic system 4 powers the brakes with a alternate brake system powered by hydraulic system 1 or 2.

Loss of hydraulic systems 4,1 and 2 cause the brake source light to illuminate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What hydraulic system powers the parking brake?

A

Hydraulic system 4 via the brake accumulator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes the takeoff configuration warning?

A

CONFIG is displayed if:

  • airplane is on the ground and
  • fuel control switches are in RUN position and
  • engine two or three thrust is in takeoff range and
  • airspeed is less than V1 and
  • any of the following configurations exist:
  • flaps not in takeoff position or
  • body gear not centred
  • Parking brake set or
  • Speed brake lever not in DN detent or
  • stabiliser trim not in takeoff range.

CONFIG message remains until the airplane is configured for a normal take off or engine 2 and 3 thrust decreased below takeoff range and airspeed is less than V1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What causes the landing configuration warning?

A

CONFIG GEAR message is displayed if the gear is not extended for landing.

  • the airplane is in flight
  • any landing gear is not down and locked
  • any of the following configurations exist:
  • any thrust lever is closed and the radio altitude is less than 800ft or
  • flaps in a landing position.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Red PFD message SPEEDBRAKE occurs when?

A

On the ground

  • the speed brake lever is DN or at ARM and
  • airspeed is greater than 80kts and
  • the main gear tilt sensors indicate gear are not tilted for more than three seconds and
  • all thrust levers are set below climb thrust for more than 3 seconds.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Approaching MCP selected altitude.

A

At 900ft prior to the reaching selected altitude C- chord sounds and highlighted white box.
Within 200ft of selected altitude the highlights no longer appear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Departing MCP selected altitude.

A

When departing a selected altitude by 200ft the EICAS message ALTITUDE ALERT is displayed and highlighted by a Amber box.

The highlights are no longer displayed when subsequently reproaching to within 200ft of selected altitude or a new MCP is selected or departing more than 900ft from selected altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MCP selected altitude alert inhibits

A

When glide slope is captured or

Landing flaps selected and landing gear down and locked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pushing TOGA switches below 50kts (on the ground)?

A

Below 50kts with flaps out of UP. Activates A/T in THR REF mode at reference thrust limit selected on the THRUST LIMIT page. If not pressed below 50kts A/T is inhibited until reaching 400ft altitude.
Updates FMC position to runway landing threshold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pushing TOGA (in flight after lift off with takeoff reference thrust limit displayed)

A
  • removes takeoff and climb derates and assumed temperature thrust reduction, quiet climb set to OFF.
  • A/T in HOLD activates A/T in THR REF mode.
  • between 50ft and 400ft selects TOGA roll mode.
  • above 400ft selects TOGA roll and pitch modes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pushing TOGA (on approach with flaps out of UP or glide slope/ glide path captured)

A

Activates A/T in THR mode with GA reference thrust limit displayed. Thrust adjusts to provide a 2000ft/min climb.
- selects TOGA roll and pitch modes
- activates FD with no A/P or FD active
- arms or activates LNAV of LNAV is available
Second push activates autothrottle in THR REF using GA reference thrust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During takeoff at 65kts?

A

Autothrottle annunciation changes to HOLD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During takeoff as airplane accelerates through 100kts?

A

The FMC records baro metric altitude. This altitude is used to activate LNAV and VNAV. Enable autothrottle activation (if not active), command acceleration for flap retraction, and set climb thrust of an altitude has been selected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Auto brake rejected takeoff mode

A

RTO braking occurs when:

  • the airplane is on the ground
  • ground speed is above 85kts
  • all thrust levers are closed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Auto brake system becomes active above what speed?

A

85kts

24
Q

What happens if the primary FMC fails?

A

If the primary FMC fails, LNAV and VNAV de-activate, and the autothrottle disconnects. The EICAS Message FMC LEFT, RIGHT displays. It will be necessary to select the secondary FMC.

FCOM 1 34.32.5

25
Q

Differences between Calculated and Totaliser fuel?

A

Totaliser fuel is calculated via sensors in the fuel tanks.

Calculated fuel- fuel remaining as calculated by the FMC.

  • before engine start, displays fuel quantity calculated by fuel quantity system totaliser.
  • after engine start, displays fuel quantity at engine start decreased by total fuel flow (FUEL USED).
  • after fuel jettison, resets to fuel quantity system totaliser
  • after landing, resets to fuel quantity system totaliser.
26
Q

What fuel quantity does the FMC use for performance calculations?

A

The FMC usually uses the calculated value.

However if it is sensed that the fuel flow value is invalid then totaliser value will be used

FCOM 1 34.32.4

27
Q

How many wheels on a 747?

A

The nose gear consists of a conventional steerable two-wheel unit.

The main gear consist of two steerable body gear and two non steerable wing gear. Each main gear has four wheels per truck in tandem pairs.

Total wheels= 18

28
Q

How many engine fire bottles for 747F PW + 747BCF + 747ERF + 747-8?

A

There are two fire extinguisher bottles in each wing for the two engines on that wing. One or both bottles can be discharged in either engine on a wing.

Pulling the engine fire switch arms the squib in each bottle for discharge to the respective engine. Rotating the fire switch selects a fire extinguishing bottle and discharges it into the respective engine nacelle.

29
Q

How many APU fire bottles?

A

One APU fire bottle.

30
Q

How many fire extinguishers in the fwd + aft lower love compartments? How do they work?

747-8

A

There are seven fire extinguisher bottles for the forward and aft cargo compartments. Pushing the cargo fire discharge switch discharges two bottles immediately. The other five bottles discharge after a brief delay or upon touchdown. This provides 256 minutes of protection.

31
Q

How many fire extinguishers for the fwd + aft cargo compartments and how do they work?

747 PAX RR & 747 F RR, 747 ERF, 747F PW

A

There are 4 fire extinguisher bottles for the forward and aft lower cargo compartments. Pushing the cargo fire discharge switch discharges 2 bottles immediately. The other 2 bottles discharge after a brief delay or upon touch down. This provides 210 minutes of protection for the ERF & RR freighter and 215 minutes for the PW. 195 minutes for Pax RR

32
Q

How many fire extinguishers for the fwd + aft cargo compartment and how do they work?

747 BCF

A

There are 6 fire extinguisher bottles for the forward and aft cargo compartments. Pushing the cargo fire discharge switch discharges two bottles immediately. The other 4 bottles discharge after a brief delay or upon touch down. This provides protection for 334 minutes.

33
Q

Main deck cargo compartment suppression?

A

Main deck is a class E compartment. Pushing the main deck cargo fire arm switch configures equipment cooling to closed loop and turns off two picks and airflow to all cargo compartments. Subsequently pushing the cargo depress discharge switch opens the outflow valves to initiate a controlled cabin depressurisation.

34
Q

When does fuel TANK/ENG display 747-8?

A

When main tank 2/3 is equal to or less than the sum of the main tank 1/4 plus reserve tank 1/4 quantity.

35
Q

When does fuel TANK/ENG occur on 747 RR freighter, 747RR Pax, 747 BCF, 747ERF?

A

Fuel tank/eng occurs when main tank 2/3 quantity is equal to or less than main tank 1/4.

36
Q

What are the fuel tank capacity for 747 PAX, 747F, 747 BCF, 747ERF?

A

1 and 4 Main= 27,244 kg
2 and 3 Main= 76,263 kg
Centre= 52,167kg
2 and 3 Reserves= 8,036kg

Total= 163,695kg

Stabiliser= 10030kg for PAX VERSION ONLY

37
Q

What is the fuel tank capacity for 747-8?

A

1 and 4 Main= 32,337kg
2 and 3 Main= 87,713kg
Centre= 51,668kg
1 and 4 Reserves= 9,323kg

Total= 181,041kg

38
Q

What engines and thrust does the 747 BCF have?

A

Pratt & Whitney PW- 4056 engines with 56,750 pounds of thrust.

39
Q

What engines and thrust does the 747 ERF have?

A

Pratt & Whitney PW-4062 engines with 62,000 pounds of thrust.

40
Q

What engines and thrust does the 747-8 have?

A

General Electric GEnx-2B67 engines with 67,000 pounds of thrust.

41
Q

What happens when the main deck cargo Fire switch is armed?

A

Enables main deck fire suppression.

  • turns off two packs
  • configures equipment cooling to closed loop and turns off all airflow to allow main deck and airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments.
  • closes master trim air valve.
41
Q

What happens when the forward or aft cargo fire switches are armed?

A
  • turns off two packs
  • arms lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers
  • configures equipment cooling to override mode and turns off all airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments
  • closes master trim air valve
41
Q

What happens when the cargo fire DEPRESS switch is pushed?

A

Airplane depressurisation is initiated.

41
Q

What happens when cargo fire DISCHARGE switch is pressed?

A

Cargo fire extinguishers in lower lobes are discharged.

42
Q

Utility buses power what equipment?

A

Forward main fuel pumps 2/3
Forward override/jettison pumps 2/3
Centre override/jettison pump
Galley equipment

43
Q

Captain transfer bus is powered by what bus and what does the transfer bus power?

A

Captains transfer bus is powered by AC bus 3. If it is unpowered then the transfer bus is powered by AC bus 1.

The transfer bus powers
Centre EFIS EICAS interface unit
Left HF

44
Q

First officer transfer bus is usually powered by what bus and what equipment does the transfer bus power?

A

First officer transfer bus is normally powered by AC bus 2 and if it is unpowered then AC bus 1.

Transfer bus powers
Autothrottle servo 
Lower EICAS display
Right ADC, right EFIS control, right EIU, right FMC
Right CDU, right HF, right ND, right PFD
45
Q

Ground service bus powers what?

A

Main and APU battery chargers
Fuel pumps for APU start
Flight deck flood, navigation and service lights
Miscellaneous service outlets and equipment

46
Q

Ground handing bus powers what?

A

It is powered by either external or APU power.

It powers
Lower cargo handling equipment and compartment lights
Fueling system
Auxiliary hydraulic pumps 1/4

47
Q

Main deck cargo handling bus powers what?

A

Main deck cargo handling equipment and lighting

Nose and side cargo doors

48
Q

What happens to the AC buses during a ILS autoland?

A

AC and DC buses 1/2/3 are isolated from the synchronous bus to provide independent power sources for all three autopilots.

49
Q

What powers the main standby bus and what does the main standby bus power?

A

Main standby bus is normally powered by AC bus 3. If AC power is lost then the main standby bus can be powered for 30minutes from the battery via the main standby inverter.

The main standby bus powers individual equipment such as
Left EIU, left CDU, left ILS, left VOR
Various flight control components
Standby ignition for all engines
Primary EICAS display, standby instruments
Left ADC, left transponder, left EFIS control panel

50
Q

What powers the APU standby bus and what doe sit power?

A

The APU standby bus is normally powered by the captain transfer bus. If AC power is unavailable then then the bus can be powered from the APU battery via the standby inverter for 30minutes.

The APU standby bus powers
Left FMC
Left ND
Left PFD

51
Q

What does it mean to have the standby power selector in BAT position?

A

With battery switch on and standby power selector in BAT, main and APU battery chargers are disabled. Each AC standby bus is powered by it’s related battery and inverter.

Standby power must be in AUTO for flight

52
Q

Transformer rectifier units TRU DC main buses power what equipment?

A

Cabin pressure, fuel jettison and integrated air system controllers
Wing anti ice control
Engine drive and hydraulic demand pump control
Fuel transfer and jettison valve control
Individual engine nacelle inlet and anti icing control

Technical Knowledge (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions